辽宁省抚顺市新宾满族自治县2023-2024学年七年级下学期7月期末考试英语试题(含答案,无音频及听力原文)

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名称 辽宁省抚顺市新宾满族自治县2023-2024学年七年级下学期7月期末考试英语试题(含答案,无音频及听力原文)
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更新时间 2024-07-06 19:16:54

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2023~2024学年度第二学期期末教学质量检测
七年级英语试卷
考试时间: 110分钟 试卷满分: 120分
※ 考生注意:请在答题卡各题目规定区域内作答,答在本试卷上无效。
第Ⅰ卷 听力测试 (共20分)
第一节 (共5分,每小题1分)
情景应答
你将听到5个句子,每个句子后面设有一个小题,请从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个句子后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个句子读一遍。
1. A. In 2020. B. At 7:00 o'clock. C. On May 3.
2. A. Yes, but I can't play it well.
B. No,I like bananas.
C. Sorry,I don't like the green skirt.
3. A. It's scary. B. By bus. C. It's cloudy.
4. A. He's in the bank. B. He's reading a newspaper. C. He's a doctor.
5. A. I played badminton.
B. It was interesting.
C. My aunt had a beautiful farm.
第二节 (共15分,每小题1分)
听短对话,回答问题。
你将听到五段短对话,每段对话后面设有一个小题,请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个对话读一遍。
6. Where was Lucy last weekend
A. At home. B. In the library. C. On the table.
7. How does Jenny go to school on rainy days
A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By bike.
8. How was the school trip
A. Boring. B. Terrible. C. Interesting.
9. What kind of noodles does Gina want
A. Beef noodles. B. Chicken noodles. C. Tomato noodles.
10. What's Cindy's mother doing
A. Cleaning the room. B. Reading a book. C. Cooking.
听长对话,回答问题。
你将听到2段长对话,每段对话后面设有三个小题,请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。对话读两遍。
听第11段材料, 回答第11-13题。
11. What is Jim Smith good at
A. Swimming. B. Singing. C. Playing chess.
12. What does Jim Smith look like
A. He is short. B. He has straight hair.C. He wears glasses.
13. Why does David like Shen Teng best
A. Because he is a singer.
B. Because he is an actor.
C. Because he is funny.
听第12段材料, 回答14-16题
14. A. Where does the woman want to go
A. A park. B. A library. C. A bank.
15. Where is the bank
A. It's in front of the library.
B. It's on Guangming Street.
C. It's on Zhongshan Road.
16. How can the woman go there
A. By bike. B. On foot. C. By bus.
听短文,回答问题。
你将听到一段短文,短文后面设有四个小题,请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听短文前,你将有时间阅读各小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。短文读两遍。
17. When does Helen go home
A. From Monday to Friday. B. On weekends. C. Every day.
18. What time does she have breakfast
A. At 7:00. B. At 7:20. C. At 8:00.
19. What club does Helen join
A. P. E. club. B. Art club. C. Chess club.
20. Where does she do her homework in the evening
A. In the classroom. B. At home. C. At the club.
第Ⅱ卷 ● 第一部分 选择题 (共50分)
一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分;满分40分)
第一节 阅读下面语言材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Passage A.
MISSING(丢失的)CAT
What he looks like He is black and white. His front paws(爪子) are white like gloves(手套). His name is Bard.
How he sounds(发出声音) Bard is big, but he cries(喊叫) like a little young cat. If you hear a little meow and see that it is running away from a big, strong cat, then you find Bard.
We cannot find our cat! We look for(寻找)him everywhere. Please help us! If you see him Please call 555-5555 or bring him to our house at 10Cherry Street. We will give you a reward.
21. The title(标题) tells that someone .
A. lost something B. wants to buy something
C. found something D. wants to sell something
22. What can we know from the picture of Bard
A. Where Bard lives B. How Bard sounds
C. What Bard looks like D. Whose cat Bard is
23. The meaning of the underlined word“reward”in the passage is .
A. 账单 B. 证据 C. 报酬 D. 惩罚
24. The heading(标题)“If you see him”tells .
A. how Bard got lost B. why his name is Bard
C. who is looking for Bard D. what to do if you find Bard
Passage B
She is Jenny, my best friend. She's an exchange(交换) student in China. She is a student of No. 1 Middle School. There are some clubs in her school. There is an English club, an art club, a music club, a ball game club, a swimming club, a chess club and a computer club.
There is a“Show Yourselves!”festival in her school. On that day, students from different clubs show their talents in different ways. They can sing English songs and draw. They can play the guitar, the violin, the piano and the drums. They can also play chess and show us their swimming skills(技巧). They like this festival very much. Jenny joins the art club. She draws many nice pictures for the festival. That makes(使得) her very happy.
This is my best friend, could you tell me something about your friend
25. How many clubs are there in No. 1 Middle School
A. Five. B. Four. C. Seven. D. Eight.
26. Jenny is in the club.
A. music B. English C. art D. swimming
27. What does“talents”mean(意思是) in Chinese
A. 才艺 B. 节目 C. 活动 D. 歌声
28. makes Jenny happy.
A. Singing English songs B. Showing her skills
C. Being in a good school D. Drawing pictures for the festival
Passage C
Sam doesn't like beef, mutton or chicken. His favorite food is fish. He buys some fish from the shop in the morning and puts them on the table. But when his wife(妻子) sees the fish, she says to herself,“Good! Now I can ask my friends to have lunch, and we can eat the fish. They like fish very much.”
So when Sam comes home in the evening, the fish is not there and his wife says,“Oh, your cat ate it.”And she gives Sam some bread for his supper. Sam gets very angry(生气的). He takes the cat and his wife to the shop near his house and weighs(称重) the cat. Then he turns to his wife and says,“My fish weighs two kilos. This cat weighs two, too. My cat is here, you see. Then where's my fish ”
29. What kind of food does Sam like best
A. Chicken. B. Mutton. C. Fish. D. Beef.
30. How much does the cat weigh
A.2kilos. B.3 kilos. C.4k ilos. D.5 kilos.
31. Who ate the fish
A. Sam's cat. B. Sam's parents.
C. Sam's friends. D. Sam's wife and her friends.
32. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A. Sam often buys some fish for his cat.
B. Sam's cat often eats the fish before he comes back.
C. When Sam comes home, the fish isn't there.
D. Sam doesn't like eating fish at all.
Passage D
Teeth are important to us. If we don't have good teeth, we may not have fun eating delicious food. Today, more and more people want to protect(保护) the teeth. Here are some tips(提示).
Brush teeth. It is important for us to keep our teeth clean. Every day, we should brush our teeth after getting up. Don't forget to brush teeth before going to bed, or we will have toothaches(牙疼).
Eat healthily. We can eat more fruit and vegetables to get VA and VD. They are good for our teeth. Calcium(钙) can help the teeth be strong. And our teeth can also get calcium from milk. So we can drink more milk. But we shouldn't eat too much sweet(甜食) food like chocolate and candy(糖果). Sweet food is bad for our teeth.
If we keep on brushing teeth and eating healthily, we will be able to have good teeth.
33. How many tips are there for us to protect our teeth
A.2 B.4 C.6 D.8
34. What is good for our teeth
A. Sweet food. B. Candy and chocolate.
C. Fruit and milk. D. Chocolate and vegetables.
35. What's the purpose(目的) of the text
A. To call people to brush teeth.
B. To tell people how to protect teeth.
C. To tell people the importance of teeth.
D. To show how to eat healthily.
36. What is the structure(结构) of the text
第二节 阅读短文,从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有一个多余的选项。
My name is Jack. I like cooking. I often help my mom cook. Chicken is my favorite food to make and eat.
One day, Mom and Dad were not at home. 37 I stayed at home alone. My parents would come back to have lunch. So I decided to bake(烘烤) the chicken for lunch for them. 38 After about 40 minutes, I took the chicken out. I thought the chicken would taste delicious. When I opened the oven(烤箱), do you know what I found 39 I started laughing(笑). I laughed and laughed and laughed! I forgot to turn on the oven!
Mom and Dad would come back soon. I didn't have time to bake the chicken again.So I called on the phone for hamburgers to come to my house.
When my parents came back, I told them how I baked the chicken. 40 My parents and I had the hamburgers happily, they both said the hamburgers tasted good!
A. They laughed, too.
B. The chicken was still cold!
C. They drove to visit their friends.
D. I went out to have lunch.
E. I washed the chicken and put it in the oven(烤箱).
二、完形填空 (共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
Last summer, I went to a beautiful beach on vacation with my parents. We stayed there for a(n) 41 . The weather was always fine and 42 that week.
In the morning, my father and I played beach volleyball. My mother read books 43 rested(休息) on the beach. In the afternoon, we 44 a good time playing in the water. In the evening, we went to the movies. There were some nice 45 every evening. I liked cartoon movies best. Sometimes we went46 . There were all kinds of 47 like bananas, oranges, and pineapples(菠萝)in the shop. Pineapples are 48 favorite and I ate a lot of them.
On the 42 day, it was cool. We decided to take a walk near the beach. The wind was gentle(温和的) and the air was so clean that we didn't want to leave the50 place.
41. A. hour B. day C. week D. minute
42. A. cold B. hot C. rainy D. snowy
43. A. but B. or C. so D. if
44. A. found B. let C. fell D. had
45. A. movies B. songs C. theaters D. banks
46. A. camping B. skating C. shopping D. dancing
47. A. fruits B. food C. drinks D. clothes
48. A. our B. his C. their D. my
49. A. last B. second C. third D. first
50. A. late B. lovely C. dirty D. scary
第二部分 非选择题(共50分)
三、按照要求完成句子 (共10分)
(A)根据括号里的要求完成句子。 (每小题1分,共5分)
51. You can't talk in class.(改为同义句)
in class.
52. He went to school by train yesterday.(改为同义句)
He a train school yesterday.
53. I studied at my friend's home yesterday afternoon.(时间状语改为 now)
I at my friend's home now.
54. He isn't tall. He isn't short.(合并为一句)
He is medium .
55. I like noodles with beef and tomatoes.(对划线部分提问)
of noodles do you like
(B)用所给词的适当形式填空。 (每小题1分,共5分)
56. It’s (rain) now in Beijing.
57. Tom has brown hair and he (wear) glasses.
58. Do you like (monkey)
59. I can help (he) clean the yard.
60. They (camp) by the lake last weekend.
四、汉译英(共10分 局部翻译每题1分,整句翻译每题2分)
61.他们在公园搭起来了帐篷。
They a tent in the park.
62.昨晚我们熬夜看篮球了。
We to watch basketball game last night.
63.总的来说,我喜欢骑自行车上学。
I like riding a bike to school.
64.请许愿吧,我亲爱的朋友!
Please , my dear friend!
65.学校在邮局的对面。
66.我想要喝些橙汁。
67.我妈妈正在采摘苹果。
五、语篇填空 (共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空,使短文通顺、连贯。
Carol had a busy weekend. She 68 (do) her homework on Saturday morning.There was a difficult math problem, so she asked her sister for help. In the afternoon,Carol helped 69 (she) mother cook. She likes delicious food and is 70(interesting) in cooking.
On Sunday morning, she visited her grandparents. They went 71 (fish) by a lake. After waiting for a long time, Carol got a big fish. She was so 72 (luck).
In the afternoon, she went to a park and 73 (ride) a horse there. After that, she went to a kite show and bought a beautiful kite 74 a panda on it. Then she flew the new kite. It was windy, just right for flying 75 (kite).
In the evening, her grandparents made her big dinner. After dinner, she went home76 bus. She had to leave 77 she must go to school the next day.
六、阅读与表达(共4小题, 78-80小题, 每小题2分, 81小题4分; 满分10分)
Paul is a 12-year-old student from Australia. He has short blonde hair, blue eyes and a big nose. He comes to China to study with his parents. He likes to be friends with other people. He can speak Chinese well. And every student in his class likes him. His best friend is from Canada. She says Paul is handsome and nice.
Jessica is a beautiful girl. She is from the USA. She is tall with big blue eyes. For her, basketball is really interesting. She dreams of being a basketball player of national team(国家队). But her parents want her to be an actress because she is smart and beautiful.
Lin Tao is a Chinese boy. He has short black hair and black eyes. He lives with his grandparents in a village because his parents are working in Beijing. He can only see his parents once(一次) a year. He doesn't like that. He misses his parents very much.To see his parents often, he studies very hard and he wants to walk out of his village.He is a great boy.
78. How old is Paul
79. What does Jessica look like
80. Why does Lin Tao live with his grandparents in a village
81. Who is your best friend What does he/she look like
七、书面表达(满分10分)
假定你参加过一次学校旅行,且对那次活动记忆犹新。请写一篇英语短文,介绍那次活动的情况。
写作要求:
1.内容包括旅行的时间、地点、天气、交通、食物、活动及你的感受等;
2.词数:60词左右;
3.条理清晰,语意连贯。
My school trip
2023~2024学年度第二学期期末教学质量检测
七年级英语试卷评分标准及参考答案
第Ⅰ卷 听力测试 (共20分)
第一节(共5分,每小题1分)
情景应答
1-5 B A C B A
第二节(共15分,每小题1分)
听短对话,回答问题
6-10 B A C C C
听长对话,回答问题。
11-13 B C C 14-16 B B C
听短文,回答问题。
17-20 B B C A
第Ⅱ卷 ● 第一部分 选择题(共50分)
一、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分;满分40分)
第一节 阅读下面语言材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Passage A 21-24 A C C D
Passage B 25-28 C C A D
Passage C 29-32 C A D C
Passage D 33-36 A C B B
第二节 阅读短文,从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有一个多余的选项。
37-40 C E B A
二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
41-45 C B B D A 46-50 C A D A B
第二部分 非选择题(共50分)
三、按照要求完成句子(共10分)
(A)根据括号里的要求完成句子 (每小题1分,共5分)
51. Don’t; talk 52. took; to 53. am; studying
54. of; height 55. What; kind
(B)用所给词的适当形式填空。(每小题1分,共5分)
56. rainy/raining 57. wears/is wearing 58. monkeys
59. him 60. camped
四、汉译英(共10分)局部翻译每题1分,整句翻译每题2分)
61. put up 62. stayed up late 63. All in all/In a word
64. make a wish
65. The school is across from the post office.
66. I’d like/want to drink/have some orange juice.
67. My mother is picking apples.
五、语篇填空(共10小题,每小题1分;满分10分)
阅读短文,在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空,使短文通顺、连贯。
68. did 69. her 70. interested 71. fishing 72. lucky
73. rode 74. with 75. kites 76. by 77. because
六、阅读与表达(共4小题,78-80小题,每小题2分,81小题4分;满分10分)
78. 12(years old)./Twelve(years old)./
He is 12/twelve./He is a 12-year-old student/boy.
79. (She is a beautiful girl.) She is tall with big blue eyes.
80. Because his parents are working in Beijing.
81. My best friend is..... He/She is(of).../She/He has...
(本题为主观题,第一问1分。第二问3分。第二问的回答只要合乎题意要求,语言连贯,词数在25词左右。)
评分说明:
一、 选择性试题根据所给答案评分。
二、 非选择性试题如考生与答案不完全一致,但与其表达意思相近,符合问题或情境要求,酌情给分。
(1)第四题 汉译英:拼写错误三处扣1分,语法错误2处扣1分。
(2)第六题 阅读与表达:拼写错误三处扣1分,语法错误2处扣1分。
其中 81题要按照要求表达出观点即可,拼写、语法错误每三处扣1分。字数不足15词,扣1分;字数不足10词扣2分。
三、书面表达
(1)语法、词汇错误每三处扣1分,同一错误不重复扣分,最多不超过2分。
(2)拼写与标点符号的误用是影响语言准确性的重要因素,评分时应视其対交际的影响程度酌情扣分,英美式拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3)作文划等时,注意内容是否全面,逻辑是否清楚,语言表述是否正确、有意义,校内或校外活动内容都可以。
(4)内容上少一项扣1分。
(5)文章不少于50词,不足50词扣2分,不足40词扣4分。
(6)只写3至4句与表达信息相关内容,每句给1分,抄阅读不给分。
1. 评分原则:评分时首先要根据作文内容和语言,初步确定其所属等次,再以该等次的要求来衡量,确定或调整等次,最后给分。内容要点可用不同方式表达,鼓励在紧扣主题的基础上适当发挥。
2.评分标准:
一等文:(9-10分)作文内容完整,表达清楚,条理清楚,语句通顺、正确、可读性强。
二等文:(6-8分)符合题意要求,作文内容比较完整,条理清楚,语言较流畅;语言基本无误;可读性较好。
三等文:(4-5分)基本符合题意要求,表达基本完整,条理较清楚,语句较通顺,语言有部分错误。
四等文:(2-3分)不符合题意要求,表达表达不清楚,语言错误过多。
五等文:(0-1分)写的内容均与所要求的内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
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