安徽省合肥八中 2023-2024学年第二学期高二年级期末检测 英语试题卷（PDF版，无答案，无听力原文及音频）

智学大联考·皖中名校联盟
合肥八中 2023-2024 学年第二学期高二年级期末检测
英语试题卷
全卷满分 150 分，考试时间 120 分钟。
注意事项：
1．答题前填写好自己的姓名、班级、考号等信息。
2．请将答案正确填写在答题卡上。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 7.5分）
听下面 5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标
在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话
仅读一遍。
1. What are the speakers going to do tomorrow
A. Ride bikes. B. Play frisbee. C. Surf on the land.
2. What will Mr. Smith do
A. Have some coffee. B. Go back home. C. Continue working.
3. What does the woman suggest Peter do
A. See a dentist. B. Do some exercise. C. Have diet drinks.
4. Why does the man make the call
A. To warn of a rainstorm. B. To have his house repaired. C. To make work arrangements.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. A talk show. B. A festival performance. C. A funny competition.
第二节（共 15小题；每小题 1.5分，满分 22.5分）
听下面 5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最
佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5秒钟；听完
后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6段材料，回答第 6、7题。
6. How did the man usually have lunch
A. He ordered takeaway food. B. He went to a restaurant. C. He ate at home.
7. What does the man say about the cafeteria
A. It’s expensive. B. It’s popular. C. It’s special.
听第 7段材料，回答第 8、9题。
8. What did Clifford do last Saturday
A. He watched a match. B. He played football. C. He visited a museum.
9. When will the exhibition end
A. In August. B. In September. C. In November.
听第 8段材料，回答第 10至 13题。
10. How does Jennifer sound at first
A. Worried. B. Surprised. C. Disappointed.
11. What kind of animals does Jennifer like best
A. Dogs. B. Cats. C. Rabbits.
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12. What is Sarah Wolfgang
A. A cafe owner. B. A volunteer. C. A vet.
13. Where does the conversation take place
A. At a cafe. B. At a shelter. C. At school.
听第 9段材料，回答第 14至 17题。
14. Why is Nancy going to Germany
A. For work. B. For study. C. For sightseeing.
15. What do we know about the website
A. It’s teacher-targeted.
B. It helps improve speaking skills.
C. It provides much reading material.
16. What does David think of his German
A. Average. B. Competent. C. Excellent.
17. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Teacher and student. B. Schoolmates. C. Colleagues.
听第 10段材料，回答第 18至 20题。
18. What does Simon Calder do
A. He is a tour guide. B. He is a hotel clerk. C. He is a travel journalist.
19. How can a tour operator get discounts for its customers
A. By reducing extra taxes.
B. By booking plane tickets in quantity.
C. By getting the government’s financial support.
20. Why does the speaker give the talk
A. To recommend scenic spots.
B. To introduce some tourist companies.
C.To show the benefits of the package holiday.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节 （共 15小题；每小题 2.5分，满分 37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Amy is doing a project on great literary writers. By now, she has collected some information.
Jane Austen (16 December 1775 — 18 July 1817) was an English novelist. Austen’s plots often explore the
dependence of women on marriage in the pursuit of favorable social standing and economic security. Her uses of
biting irony, along with her realism, humor and social commentary, have long earned her praise.
With the publication of Sense and Sensibility, Pride and Prejudice, Mansfield Park and Emma, she achieved
success. She wrote two other novels, Northanger Abbey and Persuasion and began another, titled Sanditon, but
died before its completion.
Her novels have inspired many films.
Charles Dickens (7 February 1812 —9 June 1870) was an English writer. He created some of the worlds
best-known fictional characters. By the twentieth century, critics and scholars had recognized him as a literary
genius.
Oliver Twist and Great Expectations are frequently adapted. A Tale of Two Cities, set in London and Paris, is
his best-known work of historical fiction. Dickens has been praised for his realism, comedy, prose style, unique
characterizations and social criticism.
Mark Twain ( November 30, 1835 — April 21, 1910 ) , was an American writer, humorist, entrepreneur,
publisher and lecturer.
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Among his novels are The Adventures of Tom Sawyer and The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn, the latter
often called “ The Great American Novel” .
The Celebrated Jumping Frog of Calaveras County, based on a story that he heard at Angels Hotel in Angels
Camp, California, was published in 1865. The short story won international attention. His wit and satire earned
praise from critics and peers.
Arthur Conan Doyle (22 May 1859 —7 July 1930) was a British writer best known for his detective fiction
featuring the character Sherlock Holmes. In 1887 he published A Study in Scarlet, the first of four novels about
Holmes and Dr. Watson.
The Sherlock Holmes stories are considered milestones in the field of crime fiction. He was a productive
writer whose other works include fantasy and science fiction stories, plays, romances, poetry, non-fiction and
historical novels.
21．Which book was produced earliest
A．A Study of Scarlet B．Great Expectations
C．Sense and Sensibility D．The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn
22．What do we know about The Celebrated Jumping Frog of Calaveras County
A．It attracted global attention.
B．It was criticized by peers.
C．It was called “The Great American Novel”.
D．It was based on the life that Mark Twain lived in California.
23．______ books are considered landmarks in the field of crime fiction.
A．Mark Twain’s B．Jane Austen’s C．Charles Dickens’ D．Arthur Conan Doyle’s
B
Kristin Schell is the founder of The Turquoise(青绿色) Table, a movement of ordinary people who want to
create community right in their own front yards. Ten years ago, she and her family moved to a new home in
Austin, Texas.
One day, Kristin tried to connect with her new neighbors by hosting a party. She bought a few picnic tables
but the delivery driver set one table down in her front yard by mistake. “After the party, I painted the table
turquoise—my favorite color—and put it in the front yard, just a few feet from the sidewalk,” she says.
That turquoise table became the place where Kristin and her kids hung out. They played games, did crafts
and ate snacks. “We got intentional about where we spent our time,” Kristin says. “We became ‘front yard
people’.”
Neighbors began to stop by to introduce themselves and sit down for a chat. Kristin invited people to join her
at the table for coffee or iced tea. Then neighbors asked Kristin if their family could put a picnic table in their
front yard too. A movement was born. “It was a simple way to slow down and connect with others,” she says. The
turquoise table was inviting and had a shared feel.
People often hesitate to invite others into their homes. They think their house is too messy, it’s not big
enough or they don’t have enough time. “Our perfectionism can cause us to miss out on the joy of connecting with
others,” Kristin says. Her picnic table takes away the excuses and the pressure.
She likes how it enables her to take a small step toward easing loneliness and building relationships in her
community. “People’s greatest need is to know that they are loved and that they belong,” she says.
A decade after their Texas beginnings, thousands of Turquoise Tables exist in all 50 states and in 13 countries
around the world. All of them are not actually turquoise. “No matter what color it is, it’s a friendship table,”
Kristin says.
24．What was Kristin’s purpose of initiating the movement
A．To play with her family in her front yard.
B．To engage with people in the neighbourhood.
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C．To help her neighbors to reduce the pressure.
D．To invite her friends and neighbors to her party.
25．What can we learn from the text
A．Kristin bought the turquoise table to host a party.
B．People refused to join in the front yard chat at first.
C．The campaign has a big impact at home and abroad.
D．People are unwilling to invite strangers to step into their houses.
26．Which of the following words best describe Kristin according to the text
A．Caring and competent. B．Friendly and reliable.
C．Generous and gentle. D．Creative and sociable.
27．Which of the following is a suitable title for the text
A．Tables Where All Are Welcome B．An Amazing Idea About Tables
C．Happy Front Yard Time With Family D．Keep Your Neighbors Relaxed
C
If you could change your children’s DNA in the future to protect them against diseases, would you It
could be possible because of the technology known as CRISPR. It involves a piece of RNA, a chemical messenger,
designed to work on one part of DNA and uses an enzyme that can take unwanted genes out and put new ones in,
according to The Economist. There are other ways of editing DNA, but CRISPR will do it very simply, quickly,
and exactly.
The use of CRISPR could mean that cures are developed for everything from Alzheimer’s disease to
cancer to AIDS. By allowing doctors to put just the right cancer-killing genes into a patient’s immune system, the
technology could help greatly.
In April, scientists in China said they had tried using CRISPR to edit the genomes(基因组 ) of human
embryos(胚胎). Though the embryos would never turn into humans, this was the first time scientists had ever tried
to edit DNA from human beings. With this in mind, the US National Academy of Sciences plans to discuss
questions about its safety. For example, CRISPR doesn’t work properly yet. As well as cutting the DNA it is
looking for, it often cuts other DNA, too.
A harder question is whether it is ever right to edit human cells and make changes that are passed on to
children. This is banned in 40 countries and restricted in many others. However, CRISPR means that if genes can
be edited out, they can also be edited back in. It may be up to us as a society to decide when and where editing the
genome is wrong. Also, according to The Economist, gene editing may mean that parents make choices that are
not in the best interests of their children.
In the end, more research is still needed to see what we can and can’t do with CRISPR. “It’s still a huge
mystery how we work,” Craig Mello, a UMass Chan Medical School biologist and Nobel Prize winner, told The
Boston Globe. “We’re just trying to figure out this amazingly complicated thing we call life.”
28.According to the passage, what is true about the technology of CRISPR
A.It functions well in both experiments and applications.
B.It is very safe because it only cuts the DNA it is looking for.
C.It is strictly banned in most countries and restricted in many others.
D.It could cause parents to make choices of no greatest benefits for their children.
29.What can be inferred from the passage
A.CRISPR was the first attempt to edit DNA.
B.CRISPR could probably be used to cure all diseases.
C.CRISPR is a technology that uses an enzyme to work on RNA and DNA.
D.CRISPR has proven to be the most effective way to protect children against diseases.
30.What is the author’s attitude towards CRISPR
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A.Supportive. B.Skeptical. C.Objective. D.Negative.
31.What is the passage mainly about
A. The development of CRISPR. B.The experiments on CRISPR.
C.The promising future of CRISPR. D.The benefits of and concerns on CRISPR.
D
Chief executive officer. Marketing director. Lead writer. Job titles like these have generally been standard
across work for years. They communicate essential employee details such as job function and seniority. They
make sense to employees and employers alike, leaving little room for obscurity. However, labels like “chief
visionary officer”, “business development guru (大师) ”or “chief remote officer” are emerging. In many industries,
especially creative ones, employers feel free to create job titles for employees. They can serve as recruitment or
retention (留用) tools — and even grab attention from clients.
This was the case for Lennie Hughes, whose official job title is “head of hype (炒作) and culture” at Truant,
a London-based advertising agency. Initially, this position was advertised as a more traditional “head of marketing
and new business“. But, after being recruited, Hughes worked with Truant to craft a new title for the role he’d lead,
centred more on integrating traditional external branding and communications with a fresh take on internal
workplace culture. He also acknowledges it’s not without strategic benefit. “If my job is all about getting attention,
the title should do that, too.”
Experts and employees alike say there can be an upside to flashy job titles. Pawel Adrjan works for Indeed,
a large hiring platform. He cites Indeed data, showing “people” is outdoing the traditional title of “human
resources”; similarly, the title of “talent acquisition” has been up 75% while “recruitment” down 19% since 2019.
Adrjan says, “By using ‘people’ in the title, employers can say they invest in people. Through this language,
companies are trying to show they don’t regard employees as resources to tap.”
However, these fancy new titles aren’t all good news. Sometimes they offer little guidance as to what their
job actually involves. Ultimately, when a non-descriptive, overstated job title is used as a costless recruiting
method to boost worker self-respect, it can lead to a mismatch in expectations between employer and employee.
At the extreme end, this could place workers in a tough position where they end up in a role that doesn’t match
what they thought was promised.
32．What best explains“obscurity”underlined in paragraph 1
A．Promotion. B．Confusion. C．Disappointment. D．Comprehension.
33．By crafting “head of hype and culture”for his job title, Lennie Hughes is____________.
A．Devoted. B．Imaginative. C．Innovative. D．Humorous.
34．What can be suggested about the new job titles according to Pawel Adrjan
A．They can make employees feel more respected.
B．They are mainly used to raise more investment.
C．They can help companies attract more resources.
D．They have gained less popularity among employers.
35．What is the last paragraph mainly about
A．The drawbacks of alternative job titles.
B．The tough position of modern workers.
C．The unrealistic expectations of employers.
D．The mismatch between employees and their job titles.
第二节(共 5 小题：每小题 2.5 分，满分 12.5 分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Flash fiction is a name for short stories that are kept within a specific word or character limit, usually up to
1,500 words. 36 . It’s about finding clever ways to keep as much detail as possible about the plot,
characters and setting but in the fewest words possible. Use these four top tips to help you write your own
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fascinating flash fiction.
● 37
When planning a flash fiction story you first need to decide what are the important parts of the story that the
reader just cannot miss. This might be a few moments from the beginning, middle and end. Once you have these,
then any extra detail can either be cut away or added in—if it makes the story better and the word limit allows.
●Develop characters using adverbs
Good flash fiction has well-developed characters who have personalities and faults. You can take out long
descriptions of your characters and replace them with the occasional adverb to help the reader understand the
characters’ movements and behaviour. Adverbs are words that describe verbs. 38 . Examples of adverbs
include, “The prince stared angrily and marched awkwardly back to his horse.”
●Use clauses to add colour and detail
Clauses add detail to sentences without adding too many words. You could use a relative clause.
39 . For example, “The air, which smelt of oranges...” Be careful not to make sentences too long, though, and
take out any clauses that don’t add anything to the story.
●Combine your sentences
40 . For example: Mary was upset she had school and took her shoes off. She slumped on the sofa
and flicked on the TV. It was going to be a long day and she was nervous about meeting the new head teacher.
This becomes: Mary slumped in front of the TV, took off her shoes and decided she was too nervous for school.
A. Plan carefully before writing
B.Give priority to word choice
C. Composing a flash fiction takes skill
D.Try doing this by picking a few things and putting them into a shorter sentence.
E. Its functions differ from other words used in flash fiction in English.
F. This is a section of a sentence starting with which, who, when, where, etc.
G. Verbs are words that describe physical or mental actions and states of being.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节 （共 15小题；每小题 1分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
The Smith’s home was always buzzing with activity, with Mrs. Smith seemingly at the center of it all. She
often 41 heavily complaining to her son little Johnny, “Your father never 42 a hand. I’m left to
do everything!”
One day, little Johnny felt a surge of 43 after hearing his mother’s familiar complaint. “But Mom,”
he 44 , his eyes wide and earnest, “Dad does a lot.”Mrs. Smith paused, eyebrows wrinkled in 45 .
“What do you mean ” she asked. “Have you noticed our yard ” began Johnny, his voice steady . “It’s Dad who
keeps it 46 , pulling out weeds and 47 fallen branches, and that’s not all,” he continued. “He’s
always dashing off to bring back 48 and other supplies we need.” Mrs. Smith stood still for a moment, a
wave of realization 49 her. She had been so focused on her own tasks that she failed to notice the 50
contributions her husband made to their home.
From that day forward, Mrs. Smith started viewing the housework in a new 51 . She realized that
the chores weren’t just about cooking and cleaning. They also included 52 the yard, restocking supplies
and undertaking countless other tasks; not all efforts are 53 visible but they are equally crucial. She also
realized that it wasn’t 54 to complain about her husband in front of Johnny. She began to 55 her
husband with sharing housework and made sure to express her gratitude.
41．A．shrugged B．sighed C．trembled D．nodded
42．A．borrows B．holds C．lends D．takes
43．A．courage B．sorrow C．guilty D．excitement
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44．A．broke out B．poured in C．piped up D．called for
45．A．shame B．anger C．doubt D．surprise
46．A．grassy B．shady C．warm D．neat
47．A．cutting B．gathering C．chopping D．breaking
48．A．groceries B．branches C．cashes D．messages
49．A．running into B．going across C．washing over D．turning to
50．A．notable B．slight C．unique D．critical
51．A．light B．role C．chapter D．position
52．A．decorating B．maintaining C．constructing D．designing
53．A．immediately B．significantly C．dramatically D．certainly
54．A．worthwhile B．sensible C．helpful D．necessary
55．A．provide B．busy C．credit D．present
第二节 （共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
China opens fifth Antarctic research station
China’s fifth 56 (science) outpost in Antarctica, Qinling Station, opened on February 7, 2024.The
research facility, on Inexpressible Island in Terra Nova Bay, can accommodate 80 people in summertime and 30 in
wintertime, according to the Polar Research Institute of China, 57 was in charge of its construction. The
station has an area of 5,244 square meters and an external shape 58 (resemble) the Southern Cross
constellation, 59 unique design to honor Zheng He, a legendary Ming Dynasty (1368-1644) admiral,
mariner and diplomat.
All of its large components were built in China with inner hardware already mounted and then transported to
Inexpressible Island for assembly. 60 (engineer) used lightweight, high-strength materials on the station,
making it able 61 (resist) temperatures as low as -60℃ and the corrosive environment on the island.
Construction began in December and 62 (undertake) by members on China’s 63 (forty)
Antarctic expedition, which set out from Shanghai in early November and arrived in Antarctica later that month.
The other four Chinese research stations in Antarctica are Changcheng, Zhongshan, Taishan and Kunlun. The
new station is the third Chinese research base in Antarctica that can operate all year, joining Changcheng and
Zhongshan, which were built 64 the late 1980s. Kunlun and Taishan stations are 65 (current)
operated during the summertime.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40分）
第一节 （满分 15分）
假定你是李华，你的美国朋友 Henry对科技感兴趣，得知你校正在举行科技节活动(Science Fair)，发邮件
向你询问相关情况。请你回复邮件，主要内容包括：
1. 活动目的
2. 活动内容
3. 活动感受
注意：1.写作词数应为 80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Henry,
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
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第二节(满分 25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Kevin woke to the blaring beep of his alarm clock. “Can’t wait for that camping trip,” Kevin thought, filled
with excitement. As he was leaving home, his dad grabbed him by the hand and said, “Before you go, just tell me
the directions on where you and your friends are going to stay.”
“But dad!” Kevin complained.
“No buts!” Kevin’s dad added.
“Fine.” Kevin told him the directions and left.
The three friends, Kevin, Jay and Nathan, had been planning this adventure for weeks, packing their
stuff-tents, snacks, and a map for a 3-day outdoor exploration. Excitement ran through Kevin as they departed for
their campsite. “This trip is going to be awesome, ” Nathan excitedly yelled as they set off. But little did they
know that nature had a surprise in store for them.
The first day at the campsite was going great, setting up tents, collecting firewood, and sharing stories. “Man,
we nailed（钉牢，固定） these tents, ” Kevin said. “I know it was easy really,” Nathan replied. The friends were
happy.
Yet towards night, as the dark clouds gathered overhead, the atmosphere shifted, and a sudden storm erupted
with unforgiving anger. Rain poured down from the heavens like a relentless waterfall, transforming the peaceful
campsite into a muddy battleground. Worse still, a huge tree was uprooted and crashed down with a deafening
crack on their only means of escape—their car. Kevin’s eyes widened in horror as he spotted the damaged
wreckage beneath the fallen giant. “Our car!” he screamed over the howling wind, his voice a mix of disbelief and
despair. “We’re stuck here,” he declared, his words barely audible against the backdrop of thunder and raindrops.
They realized that their plans had been violently spoiled by forces beyond their control. The once quiet campsite
now stood as a deserted battlefield, the fallen tree serving as a painful reminder of the unpredictable nature of the
world around them.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为 150左右；2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The following day, they were suddenly confronted with the pressing issue of finding water.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
On the third night, a distant engine sound broke the terrible stillness.
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
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