陕西省榆林市横山区2023-2024学年高一下学期7月期末英语试题（含答案，无听力音频有听力原文）

绝密★启用前
2023~2024学年度第二学期期末检测
高一英语(人教版)
注意事项：
1.本试卷共8页，全卷满分150分，答题时间120分钟；
2.答卷前，考生须准确填写自己的姓名、准考证号，并认真核准条形码上的姓名、准考证号
3.选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂，非选择题必须使用0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写，消享工整、清晰；
4.考试结束，监考员将答题卡收回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Whose cup did the woman break
A. Mike's. B. Vivian's. C. Kevin's.
2. How does Mike feel now
A. Happy. B. Sad. C. Excited.
3. What does Lucy think of the trip
A. Worthless. B. Terrible. C. Great.
4. What does the woman want
A. An English dictionary. B. A magazine. C. Some food.
5. Where is the woman
A. At school. B. At a bus station. C. In a supermarket.
第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the man looking at
A. A picture. B. A map. C. A history book.
7. Where does the conversation take place
A. At a museum. B. At home. C. At school.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What does the woman ask the man to do
A. Clean the street. B. Buy some medicine. C. Help her cross the street.
9. How does the woman think of the man
A. Kind. B. Impolite. C. Healthy.
听第8段材料，回答第10至 13题。
10. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Friends. B. Mother and son. C. Teacher and student.
11. Why does the man call the woman
A. To express thanks. B. To make an invitation. C. To ask for help.
12. Where is the Italian restaurant
A. On Queen Street. B. On Green Street. C. On King Street.
13. How will the woman most probably get to the restaurant
A. By car. B. By bus. C. On foot.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What is being held in the park
A. A concert. B. A food festival. C. A speech contest.
15. How many restaurants are taking part in this festival
A. Thirty. B. Twenty. C. Forty.
16. How often is the event held
A. Once a year. B. Twice a year. C. Three times a year.
17. When does the event end today
A. At 8:30 p. m. B. At 9:00 p. m. C. At 9:30 p. m.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Who is the speaker probably
A. A teacher. B. A student. C. A parent.
19. What is the homework
A. Reading some books. B. Keeping a diary. C. Preparing for the new term.
20. When should students return to school
A. On August 30th. B. On August 31st. C. On September 1st.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Ancestors left us many valuable things and intangible cultural heritage is one of them. It includes things like music, art, sports and other social practices.
With a knife, scissors and a comb, people in Shanxi can creatively turn the dough(面团) into different characters. The common ones are babies and animals. During many festivals, even now, they are sent to friends and family as gifts. But few young people can make them.
More than 1,000 years ago, the Bai people used Tie-dye(扎染) to make colorful clothes. During the Tang and Song dynasties, it was popular. In the 1960s, it became a fashion in the US. Now some children learn it in their art classes. Hope more of them can join.
As one of the most famous styles, Shu Embroidery(蜀绣) is known for its smooth needlework(针线) and beautiful colors. However, because of cheaper products made by modern machines, fewer people buy handmade embroidery products, so the skill is in danger. Luckily, some young people are learning it.
West Lake Longjing Tea Roasting Technique(炒茶技术) is an important part of Chinese tea culture. Although machines can do the job now, the quality is not good. Only by hand can we make tea leaves have the best color, shape and taste. We need to pass it down and let more young people learn it.
21. Which is the intangible cultural heritage in Shanxi
A. Tea Roasting Technique. B. Dough Sculpture.
C. Tie-dye. D. Shu Embroidery.
22. What can Tie-dye be used to make
A. Different characters. B. Colorful clothes.
C. Smooth needlework. D. Roast tea.
23. According to the passage, how can we pass on these four kinds of cultural heritage
A. By using the Internet to spread them.
B. By introducing the art forms to foreigners.
C. By encouraging young people to learn them.
D. By using more new skills to make the products.
B
Every dog should have a loving home, and thanks to a 13-year-old boy named Thiago, many are
now closer to finding one.
Thiago is a self-described animal lover hoping to help the homeless dogs in his home city of Ant nio Prado. So, he came up with an idea. Maybe if he could make the dogs on the street look more attractive, they'd have more chances to be adopted(收养). So he began giving baths to dogs in his spare time. This great idea is what led Thiago to create a project called “Sou de rua mas to limpinho” at the end of 2020.
With the help of his father, he began looking for dogs who needed a helping hand. “At the end of last year, I decided that I needed to somehow do something for the animals,” Thiago said. “While talking to my father, I told him about my idea of bathing street dogs so they can stay clean and smell good and people may look at them differently.”
Before the effort truly took off, Thiago and his dad had to work out how to win the dogs over. “Catching dogs on the street is difficult, since they are always frightened and many have suffered from ill treatment,” Thiago explained. “So we spent some time without baths until my father spoke to the public service organization and we started to bathe their newly saved dogs.” In addition to bathing them, Thiago started adding little accessories (配饰) to the dogs, such as little hair pins, to really increase their chances of adoption. The boy's dad also took pictures of the dogs and posted them online, pointing any possible adopters to the nearby shelters(收容所). “I want people to be not afraid to adopt,” Thiago said. “It's the best thing in the world.”
24. Why did Thiago create “Sou de rua mas to limpinho”
A. To provide baths for dogs. B. To raise money for animal shelters.
C. To help homeless dogs get adopted. D. To draw public attention to animal care.
25. What was a problem facing Thiago and his dad at the start of the project
A. They were short of bath products.
B. The homeless dogs distrusted them.
C. People showed no interest in adoption.
D. Possible adopters preferred young dogs.
26.Which of the following best describes Thiago
A. Caring. B. Confident. C. Humorous. D. Serious.
27.What can be a suitable title for the text
A. A Boy Adopts Dogs in Bad Conditions B. Homeless Dogs Move into Shelters
C. Lost Dogs Require Getting Adopted D. A Boy Helps Dogs Find a New Home
C
The arts, especially music , should be part of every school's lessons at every grade level. Students would be much smarter if they had some music al experience. They could improve their classroom sills, like paying attention and following directions. People develop all these skills when they learn
music. Making music also lets children use their imagination. It provides students with a chance to try out their own ideas.
Music not only makes children better students, but also gives them something positive to do. In a music program, children can be part of a band. Parents can enjoy listening to their children's music instead of seeing them glued to a computer or TV screen. In a school band, students get to be part of steam. They can get along well with old friends and make new friends through music.
Music builds self-confidence, too. It gives children a sense of achievement and success. Making music is something for them to be proud of, and it lets kids practice performing in front of audiences. Music gives children an opportunity for self-expression, and that helps develop their self-confidence.
Once again, music is important because it can make children better students, give them something positive to do, and build their characters. That is why music should be offered in every single grade in every school.
28. How could music make students smarter
A. By improving their memory and attention.
B. By improving their classroom skills and imagination.
C. By making them brave, knowledgeable and modest.
D. By learning music, making music and trying out their own ideas.
29. What does the underlined phrase “glued to” in the second paragraph mean
A. Unwilling to turn on. B. Always looking for.
C. Unwilling to leave. D. Always playing.
30. What's the main idea of the third paragraph
A. Music brings children success. B. Music gives children self-expression.
C. Music helps children achieve their dream. D. Music develops children's self-confidence.
31. What does the passage want to tell us
A. Music is a must as a course at school. B. Music builds children's self-confidence.
C. Music makes students much smarter. D. Learning music is very important.
D
Google is the most popular Internet search engine in the world. It was invented by two students, Larry Page and Serge y Brin. They met in 1993, when they were studying computer science at Stanford University, USA. They dreamed of producing something that could also answer any question in seconds.
Internet search engines at that time were slow and gave many websites that weren't useful. In January, 1996, Page and Brin decided to make a better and faster search engine. They thought the results should be based on the most popular websites.
Nobody would give them money for their project, so they used their own money.
They also borrowed money from family and friends. Then, in 1998, they were given a cheque(支票) for $100,000, and they started their own company. Their first office was in a friend's garage. The company's name is Google, a word which comes from mathematics. A “google” is a very high number——1 followed by a hundred zeros.
The Google search engine was soon used by thousands of people worldwide because it was fast, easy and correct. By 2002 it was the biggest search engine on the Internet. Now, more questions have been answered by Google than any other Internet service, from sport to science, and from music to medicine. Google hopes that in the future all the world's information will be put on the Internet, so that everybody can find everything.
32. Who invented the search engine Google
A. Two college students. B. Two college teachers.
C. Two high school students. D. Two high school teachers.
33. When was the name of “Google” used
A. In 1993. B. In 1996. C. In 1998. D. In 2002.
34. Which statement is NOT true according to the passage
A. The Google search engine was invented by two students.
B. The company of Google was in a garage at first.
C. The name of Google comes from biology.
D. The service of the Google search engine is very popular.
35. Where is this passage from
A. A geography text. B. A science magazine.
C. A travel advertisement. D. An environmental report.
第二节(共5 小题; 每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
An earthquake can strike without warning. But many injuries and deaths from this kind of natural disaster can be prevented if people follow these safety tips.
If you're inside a building, stay there! One of the most dangerous things to do in an earthquake is to try to leave a building. 36 Drop down onto the ground. Get under an object that is not easily damaged. Hold on to it until the shaking stops. You can also get to a corner formed by two walls with your arms over your head. If you're in bed when the quake hits, stay there and protect your head with a pillow.
37 Don't take shelter under trees, streetlights, telegraph poles or tall buildings. If you are
driving, stop as quickly as possible and stay away from overpasses, buildings, bridges or anything else that might fall or collapse over you. 38
If you are trapped in the ruins, cover your mouth with a handkerchief or a piece of clothing. Use your cellphone to call for help if possible. Don't shout. 39 Tap on a pipe or the wall so rescuers can find you.
Be prepared for aftershocks. 40 However, sometimes they even happen months later. Therefore, if you are not in a safe position after the first shock, you should move quickly but carefully to a safer place.
A. Don't move about or kick up dust.
B. If you're outside, go to an open space.
C. Shouting can cause you to breathe in dust.
D. Don't park your car under a tree or any tall object.
E. Take a good hold of your cellphone in the building.
F. They can happen in the first hours after the earthquake.
G. Most injuries happen when people inside buildings try to get out.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分 15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Afraid to have a start, I was walking slowly into my first school in America. I had 41 a long way from India in order to join my parents. My father decided that I would go to school here, so1 42 a local high school in my new town.
With 43 and fear, I arrived at the classroom. Everyone's eyes were on me as I entered the classroom. I went straight to the 44 and asked him if it was the right class. With a 45 voice, he answered, “Yes.” His voice comforted me a little. Then he asked me to 46 where I would sit. I selected the 47 closest to the door instead of the corner where all of the boys were sitting. I spent the rest of the class taking notes from the 48 produced by the overhead projector(投影仪).
49 it was my first day, I was confused about which hallway to use, but I 50 to get to my classroom without asking anyone. I wasn't quite sure when I would have 51 . It was noon when I went to my next class and the bell rang as I entered. I went through the 52 process of asking the teacher if I was in the right class. Feeling surprised, she said, “That is the lunch bell. "I felt a little 53 . Without another word, I headed for the cafeteria.
I realized that all the confusion on my first day was like the difficulty I had to 54 to reach my goal. When I got on my bus and sat down inside 55 , I said to myself, “Today isn't so bad.”
41. A. traveled B. lived C. felt D. suffered
42. A. explored B. found C. entered D. built
43. A. anger B. anxiety C. doubt D. sadness
44. A. foreigner B. teacher C. worker D. partner
45. A. deep B. familiar C. strict D. soft
46. A. find B. see C. choose D. discuss
47. A. area B. direction C. seat D. goal
48. A. movies B. pictures C. voices D. stories
49. A. Since B. If C. Though D. Before
50. A. feared B. refused C. hesitated D. managed
51. A. gifts B. chances C. fun D. lunch
52. A. interesting B. unexpected C. same D. easy
53. A. funny B. excited C. lonely D. awkward
54. A. put away B. get through C. build up D. show off
55. A. suddenly B. happily C. curiously D. actually
第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。The giant panda is unique to China. 56. (cover) the areas of Sichuan, Shaanxi, and Gansu Province, Giant Panda National Park protects the pandas’ natural living space. This giant national park 57. (include) sixty-seven panda reserves(保护区),which are home 58. about 1,340 wild giant pandas as well as many other endangered animals, such as Sichuan golden monkeys and snow leopards.
Among the panda reserves in the national park, we 59. ( high)recommend Wolong Nature Reserve and Ya'an Bifengxi a Giant Panda Protection and Research Centre, because of 60. (they ) large numbers of pandas, beautiful natural environment, 61. being easy to reach from Chengdu. Right now, there are more than 100 pandas in the Wolong base and more than 60 at Bifengxia. Wolong Nature Reserve is the only place 62. you can see pandas at night.
Giant panda volunteer programs in the panda bases give you 63. unique experience with pandas and you will have a chance 64. (make) special cakes for them, etc. Contact us for details about these panda programs.
Giant Panda National Park is 65. (suit) for animal lovers, especially panda lovers. You can visit it all year round. Wolong is about a 2-hour drive from Chengdu; Bifengxia is about a 3-hour drive from Chengdu.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是李华，你的留学生好友 Fred发来邮件询问他和你一起参加的研学之旅——“走进西安”的活动安排。请用英语给他回一封邮件。
内容包括：1.出发及返回时间；
2.活动内容(参观秦始皇兵马俑博物馆、观看皮影戏、登大雁塔、品尝小吃)；
3.你的期望。
注意：1.词数80左右(开头和结尾已给出，但不计入总词数)；
2.请在答题卡相应位置作答。
参考词汇:秦始皇兵马俑博物馆Emperor Qinshihuang's Mausoleum Site Museum
皮影戏 shadow play 大雁塔 Big Wild Goose Pagoda
Dear Fred,
Glad to hear from you. I'd like to tell you something about our study tour “Into Xi'an” weekend.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
My name is Bronson Layton. I am 23 years old. I am a college student, and I have a story that I feel should be shared with the world.
I come from a family that had never had a single record of ancestry with autism (自闭症), until the day I was born. When I was two years old, my parents were still getting used to the lifestyle of raising a normal kid, but what they had noticed was what they considered “out of the ordinary” behavior. Whatever toys I played with, I placed them in a straight line. When I was not satisfied, I got angry easily.
Soon after my parents noticed these signs, they took me to a child expert, who eventually informed them that I was diagnosed (诊断) with a type of autism, a disorder that delays the nervous growth of a child's brain.
My diagnosis was in 1999, a time when autism was still not commonly understood and was still
being observed. At first, my parents were shocked at the news from an expert that I was going to grow up blind, but they(and I) were not prepared for how the following events would completely change our lives forever.
As I got older, I began to change from keeping myself alone to getting with other kids once Ientered public school in first grade. I noticed how the other kids were able to answer questions in class a lot faster than I could understand. Because of my slow thinking, it took me two minutes to come up with an answer. From that year on, I received special accommodations for my studies, such as sitting in front of the class to read the blackboard better, and taking longer time on tests.
注意：1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1:
My teacher and classmates tried their best to help me.
Paragraph 2:
Thanks to my classmates, I made great changes.
2023~2024 学年度第二学期期末检测
高一英语参考答案及评分标准(人教版)
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5 小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C
第二节(共 15 小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
6. B 7. C 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. B 15. A
16. B 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. B
第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
A)21. B 22. B 23. C
B)24. C 25. B 26. A 27. D
C)28. B 29. C 30. D 31. A
D)32. A 33. C 34. C 35. B
第二节(共5 小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
36. G 37. B 38. D 39. C 40. F
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15 小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
41. A 42. C 43. B 44. B 45. D 46. C 47. C 48. B 49. A 50. D
51. D 52. C 53. D 54. B 55. B
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
56. Covering 57. includes 58. to 59. highly 60. their
61. and 62. where 63. a 64. to make 65. suitable
第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
参考范文：
Dear Fred,
Glad to hear from you. I'd like to tell you something about our study tour “Into Xi'an” next weekend. We're setting off at 7:00 next Saturday morning. After arriving at the destination, we're going to visit Emperor Qinshihuang's Mausoleum Site Museum, where we will see the surprising
wisdom of ancient Chinese people. In the evening we are going to watch some shadow plays. The following day we are going to hike up the Big Wild Goose Pagoda. Standing on the top of it, we'll enjoy a great view of the city. After that, we are going to taste some local food. We'll go back at3:00 p. m. It will be nice to spend such a lovely weekend in Xi'an.
Looking forward to your arrival in Xi'an.
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
参考范文：
Paragraph 1:
My teacher and classmates tried their best to help me. I found more and more classmates were very friendly and kind to me. They often discussed questions and did homework with me. Several classmates always invited me to go to school with them. On the way, we talked happily. My teacher tried to ask me to answer many questions in class. What benefited me most was that the teacher let me attend the school summer camp, and I fully integrated into the society.
Paragraph 2:
Thanks to my classmates, I made great changes. In class, I could answer the teacher's questions correctly and quickly. I no longer felt lonely and I became active and cheerful. I would warmly greet my classmates when I met them. And I made a lot of good friends. I also participated in various activities in school, such as playing basketball and football. I also took part in speech competitions. I got A's in all my subjects. Finally, I was admitted to a famous university.
2023~2024 学年度第二学期期末检测
高一英语听力(人教版)
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有 10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
Text 1
W: Kevin, I'm sorry for breaking your cup.
M: It's not mine. It's Vivian's.
Text 2
W: Why is Mike crying Today is his birthday. He should be happy.
M: He can't find his pet.
Text 3
M: Lucy, did you go to the panda research base last weekend
W: Yes, it was wonderful. It's really worth visiting.
Text 4
M: I'm going to town. Is there anything I can do for you
W: Could you buy me an English dictionary
M: No problem.
Text 5
M: Have you arrived at school
W: Not yet. I met a classmate and we are shopping in the supermarket.
第二节
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
Text 6
W: Hey, James, what are you looking at
M: I am looking at a map of the history museum.
W: Why Are you going there
M:Yes. There is a picture show about Asian culture. I am planning to visit this weekend.
W: Sounds interesting. Can I go with you
M: Sure. Oh, the bell is ringing. It is time for English class. Let's talk about it later.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
Text 7
W: Hello, young man. Can you help me cross the street
M: Of course, madam. I'd be glad to.
W:Thank you. I'm afraid these legs don't move as fast as they used to.
M: Well, I think you're looking very healthy. By the way, where are you going today
W: Oh, I'm just going to the drugstore over there.
M: Well, I'll wait for you outside the drugstore and help you back across the street.
W: You are so kind!
听第8段材料，回答第10 至 13题。
Text 8
M: Hello, Debbie.
W: Hello, Paul. I haven't heard from you for a long time. How are you and your family doing
M: Fine. I'm calling to ask if you'd like to have dinner with me this evening.
W: Why not Where
M: Let's go to the Italian restaurant on King Street.
W: How can I get there
M: It's not very far and you can walk there in ten minutes.
W: Good. So meet you at ...
M: Six thirty, okay
W: Okay. Thank you for your invitation.
M: It's my pleasure.
听第9段材料 回答第14 至 17题。
Text 9
W: The park is so crowded today. Is there a concert again
M: No. A food festival is being held in the park.
W: Cool! I was wondering why so many people were holding food in their hands.
M: Yeah. Thirty restaurants are taking part in the festival.
W: Does this festival take place every year
M: Twice a year, once in March and once in October.
W: Nice. Is it always held in this park
M:The one in March is held in May Square in the city center.
W: Okay. What time is it open until
M: It opens until nine o'clock on Friday and Saturday. Today it will close at half past eight.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
Text 10
Hi, boys and girls, may I have your attention, please The summer holiday is coming. As I know, all of you work very hard during school time, so you should take a good rest during the holiday. And if you have free time, I hope you can try to help your parents with the housework. What's more, keep reading some books every day and get prepared for the next term. By the way, please keep a diary to record your life during your holiday and that's your homework. Besides, please pay attention to your health, so I suggest doing exercise every day. And finally pay attention to your safety while playing outside and get home on time. Don't forget our new term begins on September 1st,you should return to school on August 31st.
Have a nice holiday!