2024-2025学年上学期高一英语第一次月考试卷（河北专用）
（考试时间：120分钟 试卷满分：150分）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3．考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．Where is Jason going today
A．His father’s farm. B．The basketball court. C．His grandparents’ house.
2．How much should the woman pay if she buys two T-shirts
A．Eight dollars. B．Ten dollars. C．Twelve dollars.
3．How many people are eating with the man
A．Two. B．Three. C．Four.
4．What’s the relationship between the two speakers
A．Husband and wife. B．Boss and secretary. C．Guest and waitress.
5．Why did the man go to see a doctor
A．One of his eyes hurt. B．His glasses no longer worked. C．He could only see things up close.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答6~8小题。
6．Who will be on the face of the $20 bill
A．Andrew Jackson. B．Harriet Tubman. C．Alice Paul.
7．What did Susan B．Anthony do
A．She saved many slaves.
B．She helped pass a new law.
C．She proposed women get the vote.
8．Why are the speakers excited
A．The 19th Amendment was just passed.
B．Women will be featured on U.S. money.
C．Alexander Hamilton won’t be on the $10 bill.
听第7段材料，回答9~11小题。
9．How did the speakers find the restaurant
A．From a friend. B．From a website. C．From the newspaper.
10．What does the woman want to do after the meal
A．Eat some pizza. B．Get another drink. C．Talk to the owner of the restaurant.
11．What will the woman do this weekend
A．Phone Susan. B．Go back to the restaurant. C．Get some money from Brian.
听第8段材料，回答12~15小题。
12．What did Milton do
A．He caught a thief. B．He went to a theme park. C．He traveled a very long distance.
13．What happened this week
A．Some cars were stolen.
B．A broken roller coaster caused several injuries.
C．The Johnson family moved to New York.
14．Where is Six Flags located
A．In Orange County. B．In Union City. C．In New York.
15．What will viewers see next
A．Advertisements. B．An interview. C．A weather report.
听第9段材料，回答16~17小题。
16．What are the speakers mainly discussing
A．A computer museum.
B．Advances in computer technology.
C．A library with examples of old technology.
17．What is the PowerBook 100
A．A machine from 1976.
B．An original portable computer.
C．A computer worth $ 900,000.
听第10段材料，回答18~20小题。
18．How often does the man run
A．Twice a week. B．Four days a week . C．Every day.
19．Which event is the man good at
A．Short distance. B．Middle distance. C．Long distance.
20．How fast can the man run the event now
A．In 3 minutes and 47 seconds. B．Within 4 minutes. C．In about 6 minutes.
第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Horses have always held a special place in the hearts of many famous artists. Let’s explore some of the most well-known paintings of horses by famous artists.
Chinese Horse at Lascaux Cave
This Chinese Horse painting was first discovered in 1940 at the prehistoric cave art sites, Lascaux, in France.
The painting earned its name for looking like the style of a Sung Chinese painting of a horse. Early artists created their own paintbrushes from animal skin and hair and also employed a spray (喷洒) painting technique using a hollow (空心的) reed to blow pigment through.
Whistlejacket
Whistlejacket depicts a life-sized racehorse against a plain background. One of the most unique features of this painting is that it does not situate the horse in any particular location. Rather, it focuses only on the details and character of the horse in question. In a way, Stubbs captures the spirit of the horse that suggests freedom of spirit, not tied to any background or environment, which makes this horse painting quite special for its time.
Horse Frightened by Lightning
In Horse Frightened by Lightning, a white horse is frightened by the lightning, standing on its hind legs in a storm. The daring color choices and detailed brushwork captures the reaction of the animal with care, showing
panic and terror. The unpleasant weather is highlighted by the strong contrast created between the horse and the dark black and gray clouds that cover the entire sky. The symbolism found in most Romantic horse paintings includes themes of passion, power, nobility, and intense emotion.
21．What do we know about Chinese Horse
A．It employed colors daringly.
B．It was painted on animal skins.
C．It was a Sung Chinese painting.
D．It used a spray painting approach.
22．What theme is commonly found in Romantic horse paintings
A．Freedom of spirit. B．Strong emotion.
C．Connection with animals. D．Power of nature.
23．Where might the text be taken from
A．An art magazine article. B．An art festival guide.
C．An art exhibition poster. D．An art history lecture.
B
We are in a time of crisis (危机) when it comes to the planet’s limited energy resources. We have to quit our bad habits and focus on more sustainable (可持续的) solutions. But while we are rightly concentrating on Earth’s energy balance, we are ignoring the signs that our own bodies are running on empty.
According to a 2023 meta-analysis, one in five worldwide is living with fatigue (疲劳) unrelated to a medical condition. The fast speed of life and work sends stress levels skyrocketing and wears people out. A poor diet, lack of physical activity or mental health conditions including anxiety, can also lead to feeling tired.
Popular advice to keep fatigue at bay is always to “do more”. Top of the list of things you can do to help is to “have a healthy diet and exercise regularly”. However, 35 percent of UK adults say that being “too tired” holds them back from having a healthier diet and doing more exercise. How can people cook new recipes if their existing lifestyle leaves them without any spare energy How can someone go to the gym when every moment of the day is already taken up by work
Therefore, “do more” isn’t the best solution to our tiredness which is often marked by a lack of confidence in one’s ability to meet goals and produce good work. If eating healthier and exercising more feels impossible, being told to do these things might only weaken your faith in yourself further.
Instead, we need to “do different” or “do smart”. For example, if you feel incapable of dealing with all of life’s demands, change the unnecessary for the achievable. Focus on doing something you know you are good at. And don’t use all your energy on the task you have to do. If all your time is spent working, you will miss out on the benefits of relaxation. And when work takes over your free time, it leads to lower overall well-being. Just like our planet, our body energy supplies aren’t limitless and we need to break our bad energy habits.
24．Which aspect of fatigue does paragraph 2 mainly talk about
A．The causes. B．The examples. C．The effects. D．The features.
25．What might be the result of “do more” according to the author
A．Having a healthier lifestyle. B．Being energetic a whole day.
C．Reducing your work productivity. D．Lowering your confidence further.
26．What does the author suggest people do
A．Work at all cost. B．Exercise regularly.
C．Take a rest properly. D．Keep challenging yourself.
27．Which of the following is a suitable title
A．The Other Energy Crisis B．The Work Management
C．The Stressful Lifestyle D．The Earth’s Energy Balance
C
32°N adaptive glasses, created by Deep Optics using pixelated liquid crystal (PLC) lenses (像素化液晶镜片), work as both protective eyewear and adaptive reading glasses.
PLC lenses appeared as early as 2017, but only recently did the company create an interesting pair of eyeglasses that could, in theory, become the only pair of glasses a person would need. That’s because the adaptive concept of the glasses allows wearers to adjust their purpose with a single slide of the frame (框架). For stylish sunglasses, simply slide backward on the right frame, and to put them into vision correction mode, you just slide back to the original place. Additionally, the lens power can be changed from 0 to 2. 5 diopters (屈光度), and the built-in battery offers up to 48 hours of power.
“Our special technology actively corrects vision using PLC lenses,” Deep Optics explains. “The lenses perform like human eyes, allowing the wearer to see what they want when they want Our technology adds no extra weight or size.” The lenses are set in frames containing a distance meter on the bridge, which measures the distance from the wearer’s face to objects. The meter then sends a signal to adjust the diopters of the lenses. This adjustment
can happen quickly, letting the user focus from one object to another clearly and accurately in 14 milliseconds.
At $849 per pair, 32°N glasses are not cheap, but they do relieve you of the need to carry two pairs of eyeglasses with you. No more changing between reading and distance glasses, as after adjusting the liquid crystal lenses to your needs, all you have to do is a slide on the right frame to change their focus between close and far distances.
These adaptive sunglasses are a giant step forward, ridding the need for single-use lenses. And 32°N glasses are not just primary designs that may or may not make it to the market. They are already available, despite their high price. Still, if liquid lenses become more mainstream, the price is certain to come down in the future.
28．What does paragraph 3 mainly tell us
A．How the lenses are fixed. B．How the lenses work.
C．How the lenses bear more weight. D．How the lenses are created.
29．Which words best describe 32°N glasses
A．Heavy but effective. B．Costly but multi-functional.
C．Creative but easily-broken D．Energy-saving but inflexible.
30．What can we know about 32°N glasses from the last paragraph
A．They haven’t reached consumers. B．They’ll cure wearers’ eye illnesses.
C．They have replaced the old sunglasses. D．They’re a breakthrough in the glasses industry.
31．In which section of a website may the text appear
A．Education. B．Sports. C．Science. D．Entertainment.
D
Over the years, many scientists have attempted to explain why spending time in green spaces can reduce feelings of stress and anxiety, from their supposed ability to clean the air to their mysterious effects on our brains.
The most common saying I tend to hear is that plants, particularly houseplants, clean the air. The latest research now suggests that in indoor spaces you would need a lot of them before you see any noticeable benefit. How many Well, several hundred per square meter of living space to achieve the same benefit of simply opening a window.
What we do know, however, is that there is something unusual about the color green that seems to affect how our brains function. Researchers investigating the effect of exercise on psychological well-being have found that seeing views of the natural world on screens had additional benefits over and above the workout alone.
However, when they changed the screens to show the same views in black and white or in shades of red, the effect was markedly reduced compared to the original green. This may mean that having evergreen species in your garden or even something as simple as painting your fence green might contribute to its effect.
Similarly, designing your garden to require higher maintenance (维护) so that it is not simply somewhere to sunbathe in summer may improve the beneficial effect by encouraging gentle workouts. Low-impact, prolonged exercise, such as gardening, can burn more calories (卡路里) than a hard-hitting gym session, despite feeling easier. It is a way of being active that may appeal to far more people.
Gardening is also a classic form of practicing mindfulness, which can help to focus our thoughts on the here and now, distracting us from any worries or stresses. Mindfulness exercises are well-documented to have a positive impact on psychological well-being. So act now, embrace (接受) the power of greenery and turn your garden into a welcoming space.
32．Which factor determines houseplants’ effect on cleaning the air
A．Their quantity. B．Their colors.
C．Their varieties. D．Their placement.
33．What is a benefit of seeing the color green during exercise
A．Promoting sports technique. B．Burning more calories.
C．Increasing intelligence level. D．Improving mental health.
34．What contributes to the popularity of gardening
A．It is accessible and effective. B．It is affordable and appealing.
C．It requires higher maintenance. D．It offers a connection with nature.
35．Why is gardening a form of mindfulness
A．It helps develop a sense of success. B．It frees us from our daily matters.
C．It directs our attention to the present. D．It encourages learning and creativity.
第二节(共5小题:每小题2. 5分, 满分12. 5分)
阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
With the rise of language apps, learning new languages seems to be much easier than ever, but actually it is unrealistic to master a language only through apps. 36 .
Be a child, watch cartoons
37 . But, at first, watching Childre’s cartoons is highly recommended, for cartoons often consist of
basic phrases and words. They usually come with clearer and slower pronunciation, which will help learners understand without subtitles.
Turn the volume (音量) up
If watching cartoons is not your cup of tea, you can listen to podcasts and songs in the language. Not only can you pick up popular phrases and idioms, but you can also explore various topics to expand your vocabulary and understand the slight difference within various contexts. 38 .
Let the words flow
When practicing speaking, one runs the risk of making mistakes or embarrassing oneself, so, instead, start small. Speak to your pets or lifeless objects around the house. 39 . As you grow more confident, work up to a native speaker.
40 .
A method to put your writing skills to test is to keep a pen pal. Find someone who is not only fluent in the language you are learning, but who is also learning a language you are fluent in. Through the exchange of letters, you can practice your writing skills and provide feedback to each other. Plus, everyone gets a friend.
A．A foreign stamp
B．Depend on writing apps
C．Here are some other practical ways to help you
D．Tell them about your day or describe how you feel
E．Consuming films and shows in the language you are learning is common for learners
F．These apps typically fail to provide meaningful opportunities for real-time interaction
G．You will achieve all of this by being absorbed in the talks and music while developing an appreciation for the culture
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It was a busy Monday morning as usual. While the children were enjoying “free play”, I 41 to the doorway of the classroom to take a break. Suddenly, I 42 a movement of the heavy wooden door. This was the very door I 43 guided the children through to ensure their 44 from the cold. I felt a chill (寒意) go through my body.
45 , I pushed the door open. There stood one of my kindergartners who I thought was 46 that day! He had been dropped off at school late and was 47 to open the door.
He must have been waiting there for quite a while! Without a word, I 48 him to the hospital. He was treated for frostbite on his hands. He’d need time to 49 , and wouldn’t come for class the next day, I thought. The next morning, one of the first to 50 was my little frostbitten boy. Not only did he run in with energy, but his 51 could be heard as loud as ever! I gave him a warm hug and told him how 52 I was to see him. His words have stayed with me and 53 me to do better all these years, “I believe you would open the door.”
That cold Monday morning, he waited a long, long while for adults to 54 . To a child, every minute feels like forever. He didn’t attempt to walk back home; he waited and trusted. This five-year-old taught me a powerful lesson in 55 ．
41．A．stepped B．ran C．jumped D．turned
42．A．caused B．noticed C．checked D．imagined
43．A．excitedly B．worriedly C．hopefully D．carefully
44．A．studies B．joy C．safety D．time
45．A．Curious B．Worried C．Amazed D．Embarrassed
46．A．angry B．absent C．special D．noisy
47．A．courageous B．content. C．unable D．unwilling
48．A．invited B．contacted C．called D．rushed
49．A．recover B．play C．change D．wait
50．A．settle B．gather C．arrive D．react
51．A．sneeze B．weep C．complaint D．laughter
52．A．lucky B．happy C．curious D．nervous
53．A．needed B．reminded C．asked D．signed
54．A．show up B．pull up C．hold up D．line up
55．A．gratitude B．forgiveness C．belief D．kindness
第二节(共10小题:每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
There are about 6, 500 languages in the world, but did you know that a language disappears every two weeks International Mother Language Day, 21 February, is 56 day to celebrate and protect all the languages of the
world.
In 1999, a special day to promote mother languages 57 (create): International Mother Language Day. The day was also intended to raise 58 (aware)of just how many languages we have on this planet and to protect them. The idea for this special day came from the country of Bangladesh, 59 Bangladeshis mark 21 February when the Bangla language was 60 (official)accepted. Bangladeshis celebrate the day 61 holding literary competitions and singing songs. Other 62 (country)have also set up special projects to mark this day.
Language is much more than just a way of 63 (communicate). Language, particularly our mother tongue, is an essential part of our culture. Everyone has the right 64 (use)their own mother language and to keep the traditions and ways of thinking that their language represents. And this is 65 International Mother Language Day is all about.
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66．假定你是李华，本学期你校开设了中国戏剧课。请你给英国朋友 John 写一封邮件分享学习经历，内容包括：
(1)课程内容与安排;
(2)你的学习体会。
注意：
(1)写作词数应为80左右;
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear John,
I’m writing to share with you the Chinese opera course I had this term.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
67．阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
One day, Emma’s mother brought Emma to her favorite steak house (牛排餐厅). She was excited all the way when she was sitting in her mother’s car. Listening to the wonderful music, she couldn’t help but dance in the back seat. Considering her safety, her mother had to stop her and said, “Hey! My sweety! Please be quiet and fasten your seat belt!”
“Okay! Mom,” she answered while continuing to roll down the car window.
“Emma! Don’t head out of the window! This is very dangerous! No hands either!” Mom raised his voice as she spoke.
She said yes and then quietly sat back in place. But there was no previous happiness. She got off in silence and ordered meals silently. Her mother thought that perhaps her tone had just been too urgent, and she tried to make her happy. “Sweetheart, this is a monthly steak appointment. Can you enjoy it with your mom happily ”
Emma nodded silently but continued to stare out of the window. Ten minutes later, Emma looked at the large plate of steak and potatoes as if she had no intention of eating them. Mom sighed and asked, “Isn’t it your favorite steak, sweetheart ” “It is, mom,” Emma said in a low voice. After listening to her answer, Mom brought the steak and planned to help her daughter cut it into small pieces as before.
“No, mom, she quickly reached out for the plate. “I can only eat it once a month, right ” “Yes, we made a promise about this,” said the mother.
“Can I just give it to him ” Emma cautiously asked, and her-eyes filled with expectations. Following the direction of her finger, there was a homeless man in tattered (破烂的) clothes. And she realized that the man was the figure that flashed by the roadside when her daughter leaned out of the window in the car.
“Of course, you can,” her mother agreed.
注意：
(1) 续写词数应为120左右;
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Emma quickly left the table with the full plate of food in hand.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
As Emma returned, her mother smiled proudly.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________2024-2025学年上学期高一英语第一次月考试卷（河北专用）
参考答案
英语·答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1—5 CBACC 6—10 BCBBA 11—15 ACABA 16—20 ABBBB
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21．D 22．B 23．A
24．A 25．D 26．C 27.A
28．B 29．B 30．D 31．C
32．A 33．D 34．A 35．C
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36．C 37．E 38．G 39．D 40．A
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41．A 42．B 43．D 44．C 45．A 46．B 47．C 48．D 49．A 50．C 51．D 52．B 53．B 54．A 55．C
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56．a 57．was created 58．awareness 59．and 60．officially 61．by/through 62．countries 63．communicating/communication 64．to use 65．what
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【参考范文】
Dear John,
I’m writing to share with you the Chinese opera course I had this term. The course covers a wide range of topics, from the historical development of Chinese theater to the study of renowned playwrights and their
masterpieces. We have two lessons per week, with a mix of lectures and practical workshops where we get to perform scenes from classic Chinese plays.
I’ve thoroughly enjoyed this learning experience. It has not only deepened my understanding of Chinese culture and the art of storytelling but also helped me develop my public speaking and performance skills.
Yours,
Li Hua
应用文写作评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差，以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 (13～15分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 - 覆盖所有内容要点。 - 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 - 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但因尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 - 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档 (10～12分) 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 - 虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 - 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 - 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 - 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 (7～9分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 - 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 - 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 - 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 - 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 (4～6分) 未适当完成试题规定的任务。 - 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 - 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 - 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 - 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档 (1～3分) 未完成试题规定的任务。 - 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 - 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 - 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 - 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节（满分25分）
【参考范文】
Emma quickly left the table with the full plate of food in hand. As Emma approached the homeless man, her eyes filled with empathy. She greeted him with a warm smile and handed him the plate of food. On receiving the food, the man could hardly conceal his excitement and thanked her joyfully. Meanwhile, Emma sat down beside him, engaging in a heartfelt conservation. Witnessing the moving scene, the mother felt a sense of satisfaction.
As Emma returned, her mother smiled proudly. Moved and delighted, her mother gave her a big hug and praised her for extending a helping hand to the homeless man outside. With another large plate of steak ordered on the table, a surge of happiness and warmth running Emma, she was so relieved that she tasted the steak happily. At that moment, the mother realized that Emma had taught her an invaluable lesson-the joy of giving. While the steak may have been Emma’s favorite, Emma understood the importance of sharing and making a difference in someone else’s life.
读后续写评分原则
一、评分标准
1. 本题总分为25分，按七个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，主要从续写内容、语言表达、篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性及与原文情景的融洽度。
（2）所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时，应先根据作答的具体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于120的，酌情扣分；
（2）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分；
（3）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑，英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第七档（22—25分）
创造了新颖、丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；
使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达流畅，语言错误很少，且完全不影响理解；
自然有效地使用了段落间、语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，前后呼应，意义连贯。
第六档（18—21分）
创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高；
使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达比较流畅，有个别错误，但不影响理解；
比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义比较连贯。
第五档（15—17分）
创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关；
使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，表达方式不够多样性，表达有些许错误，但基本不影响理解；
使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第四档（11—14分）
创造了基本完整的故事内容，但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强，与原文情境基本相关；
使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有部分语言错误和不恰当之处，个别部分影响理解；
有语句衔接的意识，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第三档（6—10分）
内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文有一定程度脱节；
所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多且比较低级，影响理解；
未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义欠连贯。
第二档（1—5分）
内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节；
所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构单调，错误极多，严重影响理解。
几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
第一档（0分）
未作答；所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。
