2024～2025学年度第一学期高二10月联考
英语
考生注意：
1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At home. B. At a restaurant. C. In an office.
2. Where does the man go windsurfing
A. On the lake. B. On the river. C. On the sea.
3. What do the man’s parents usually eat for dinner
A. Noodles. B. Vegetables. C. Meat.
4. What are the speakers talking about
A. Their trip. B. Their clothes. C. Their jobs.
5. What will the speakers do next
A. Buy a T- shirt. B. Go to a party. C. See an app.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. When does the swimming class start
A. At6:30. B. At 7:00. C. At 7:30.
7. What does the man want the woman to do
A. Hurry up. B. Do her hair. C. Swim better.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. Why does the man talk to the woman
A. To make an invitation. B. To ask for advice. C. To express thanks.
9. What does the woman say about the Latin Quarter
A. It is far from Paris. B. It is a nice place to live in. C. It is a modern community.
10. What will the woman most likely continue talking about
A. Accommodation.
B. The history of Paris.
C. The advantage of taking the subway.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. Why does the man make the phone call
A. To arrange an outing. B. To put off a meeting. C. To get some information.
12. Where is the man’s office
A. In Building 3. B. In Building 4. C. In the main building.
13. What does the man expect James Green to do before 1:30
A. Call back. B. Go to his office. C. Chai r a meeting.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What is the woman doing
A. Having a class. B. Working in the hospital. C. Sharing a piece of news.
15. What happened to Mario
A. He was late for school.
B. He lost his fishing boat.
C. He ran into trouble when swimming.
16. Which word can best describe the two brothers
A. Helpful. B. Lucky. C. Grateful.
17. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Teacher and student. B. Classmates. C. Strangers.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. How did the speaker find a long flat ride at the very start
A. Easy. B. Boring. C. Tiring.
19. What can we learn about the speaker
A. He considers cycling as a task.
B. He is completely new to cycling.
C. He has made progress in riding uphill.
20. What does the speaker stress at the end of the speech
A. Tips on bicycling. B. Varieties of sports. C. Benefits of bicycling.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
The Most Popular National Parks in the US
Mount Rainier National Park
Located in Washington, Mount Rainier National Park is America’s fifth- oldest national park. Visit in the spring, and you’ll see waterfalls; come in the summer, and you’ll enjoy wildflowers; or arrive in the fall when the leaves put on a colorful show.
Joshua Tree National Park
Named for the trees native to the park, 1,200- square- mile Joshua Tree National Park in California is slightly larger than the state of Rhode Island. Much of the park is wilderness and includes parts of two deserts, the higher Mojave Desert and the lower Colorado Desert. There are 12 self- guided nature trails（小径）, some as short as a half- mile, perfect for young children.
Bryce Canyon（峡谷）National Park
Despite its name, Bryce Canyon National Park in Utah is not a canyon at all. Instead, it is a collection of giant natural rocks up to 150 feet high. The red, orange and white colors of the rocks make for breathtaking views throughout the park. You can explore the rock formations on a scenic drive or up close and personally on a hike.
Grand Teton National Park
Located in Wyoming, Grand Teton National Park is home to various wildlife like bears, moose, otters and elk. There are several stand- out hiking trails. This park is connected to Yellowstone National Park by the Johnd. Rockefeller Jr. Memorial Parkway, so it’s incredibly easy to visit both parks in one trip.
21. Where is Joshua Tree National Park
A. In California. B. In Washington. C. In Wyoming. D. In Utah.
22. What is Bryce Canyon National Park famous for
A. Hug e waterfalls. B. Various wildlife.
C. Unique rocks. D. Mojave Desert.
23. Which of the following is closest to Yellowstone National Park
A. Joshua Tree National Park. B. Grand Teton National Park.
C. Bryce Canyon National Park. D. Mount Rainier National Park.
B
Catherine Sevcenko spends her spare time taking in and rescuing injured birds in Alexandria. And there’s something constant in the past 12 years: Each crow（乌鸦）that appears at her door is covered in shiny black feathers.
Sevcenko could hardly believe it when a rare crow she named Hope showed up last month. “I’d never seen a white crow before,” said Sevcenko, who runs Diva Crows rehab center with the goal of freeing the birds back into the wild.
The Wildlife Rescue League of Falls Church, Va., contacted Sevcenko and asked if she could take in a rare white crow that had been brought in by a man last month. The man had rescued the bird in Manassas, Va. after he saw a group of adult crows attack the rare bird. The juvenile crow hadn’t developed enough strength in her wings to fly away. The bird was only a few months old and was a little underweight, but didn’t appear to have any injuries.
“I told them,’ Of course, I’ll take the bird,’” said Sevcenko, who has spent her spare time helping birds in need since 2012. With help from volunteers, she estimates that Diva Crows has rescued more than 2,000 birds. In 2023, Sevcenko took in a two- foot- tall bird that had been shot with a gun. Although the bird could no longer fly and couldn’t be freed to the wild after he had been cured, she found a home for him at the Cayuga Nature Center in Ithaca, N. Y.
Sevcenko and her volunteers briefly put Hope in a cage with some rescued young black crows and there weren’t any issues. Then they put Hope in with an adult crow. Things did not go well.
Everyone who spends time with Hope is delighted by her personality. “She loves bird baths, and when I change her cage, she’ll sit on top and talk to me like she’s a little person,” Tijona Owens, a Diva Crows volunteer, says. “She’s a very interesting bird. She loves exploring, and she’ll stay on your arm. She enjoys hanging out in the center to see what’s going on.”
24. How did Sevcenko feel when she first saw Hope
A. Disappointed. B. Moved. C. Surprised. D. Stressed.
25. What does the underlined word “juvenile” in paragraph 3 mean
A. Black. B. Big. C. Injured. D. Young.
26. What does the author want to show by mentioning the two- foot- tall bird
A. How Sevcenko became a volunteer.
B. What Sevcenko did for bird protection.
C. The process of saving wounded birds.
D. The problem of finding a home for birds.
27. What does Tijona say about Hope
A. She is comfortable with her. B. She likes to talk with little kids.
C. She will be sent to the wild soon. D. She gets on well with adult crows.
C
This year marks the 50th anniversary（周年纪念）of the Rubik’s Cube（魔方）. More than450 million have been sold since its invention, making it one of the bestselling toys in history. The Rubik’s Cube was named Toy of the Year in 1980 and was selected into the National Toy Hall of Fame in 2014. Beyond Rubik’s Cube, a traveling exhibit that was held on the toy’s40th anniversary in 2014, traveled internationally for seven years.
The “Rubik” in Rubik’s Cube is Hungarian professor of architecture Erno Rubik, who first created his puzzle to teach his students concepts of three- dimensional（三维的）movement. Rubik called it the Magic Cube. After it became popular around campus, Rubik decided to apply for a patent（专利）.
After the cube was released in the United States, books on how to solve it soon followed. In 1981, You Can Do the Cube, written by 13- year- old Patrick Bossert, sold more than 750,000 copies in short order, making him the youngest author to hit the New York Times bestseller list.
For some, simply solving the Rubik’s Cube isn’t enough. “Speedcubers” race to solve it as quickly as possible. More than 200,000 people have participated in competitions permitted by the World Cubing Association, the governing body that establishes rules and maintains official records. Solvers at these events race under a variety of limitations, such as using only one hand or even being blindfolded.
The first cubing world championship was hosted in Rubik’s native Budapest in 1982. The fastest solving time then was 22.95seconds, held by Vietnamese American Minh Thai. But since then, the record has been broken many times, most recently in 2023 by Max Park, who solved it in just 3.13 seconds!
Quite the pop culture icon, the Rubik’s Cube has made many cameos in films and TV shows including Spider- Man: Into the Spider- Verse and The Big Bang Theory. It’s also part of the permanent collection at New York’s Museum of Modern Art and has been the subject of numerous exhibitions.
28. When was the Rubik’s Cube invented
A. In 2014. B. In 1982. C. In 1980. D. In 1974.
29. Why did Erno Rubik invent the Rubik’s Cube
A. As a teaching tool. B. For a birthday gift.
C. To make more money. D. To become a toy producer.
30. What can be learnt from paragraph 3
A. People preferred books to newspapers.
B. The Rubik’s Cube was widely welcomed.
C. Patrick Bossert was the youngest professor.
D. There were many famous writers in the 1980s.
31. What do the data in paragraph 5indicate
A. The sales of the Rubik’s Cube are increasing.
B. The Rubik’s Cube is becoming more expensive.
C. More and more people are joining in cubing games.
D. People are solving the Rubik’s Cube faster and faster.
D
Becky Litvintchou k didn’t think she’d be able to manage the mountain of tasks needed to become a businesswoman. Every other part of her life has been overpowering because of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder（ADHD）, one of the most common developmental disorders in children, which can impact her ability to concentrate. So, she turned to Al. The app Claude helps her decide which contracts make the most sense for her business, GetDirty, without having to read them word for word. She also created business plans by telling the generative AI bot what her goals were and having it create steps for her to get there.
“It’s been just massively instrumental. I probably would not be where I am today without it,” Becky says of using AI for about two years. When she shared her technique with another person who also has ADHD, she felt more people needed to know about it, so she started creating videos online about various AI tools she uses to help manage her ADHD struggles.
Generative AI tools can help people with ADHD break down big tasks into smaller, more manageable steps. Chatbots can offer specific advice and can sound like you’re talking with a human. Some AI apps can also help with reminders and productivity.
Experts say generative AI tools can help people with ADHD to get through tasks more quickly. But they also warn that AI apps should be used more as “one tool in a toolbox” instead of replacing traditional treatments such as developing organizational skills or taking prescription medications.
Software engineer Bram de Buyser says, “If you say,’ Oh, I want an AI that gives me personal information and checks my calendar’ and all of that, you are giving that big company access to your emails, your calendar, personal correspondence, essentially your deepest, darkest secrets just so it can give you something useful back. That is worrying.”
32. Why did Becky post videos online
A. To introduce AI tools to people with ADHD.
B. To employ excellent people.
C. To share her daily pleasures.
D. To enlarge her business.
33. What is paragraph 3 mainly about
A. The steps of using AI tools. B. How to improve productivity.
C. The functions of AI technologies. D. How to communicate with robots.
34. Which of the following shows experts’ opinion according to paragraph 4
A. We should create more tools. B. It is necessary to widely apply AI.
C. It is unwise to over- rely on AI apps. D. We may give up traditional treatments.
35. What does Bram de Buyser think of the use of AI
A. It will benefit us in many ways. B. It will bring about privacy issues.
C. It will prevent us from using emails. D. It will protect personal information.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Getting work done, meeting deadlines and being productive 100% of the time is difficult for everyone. 36 . Luckily, here are several ways you can improve your time management skills.
Create a daily schedule to organize tasks.
Use a calendar or a piece of paper for scheduling. Map out exactly how you want to use your time each day, leaving nothing out of your schedule. 37 . For example, start your schedule with something like, “7:30 AM-8:00 AM: Wake up and eat breakfast.”
38 .
It’s hard to get things done when you’re doing too many things at once. As you cross things off your to- do list, keep your mind focused on the task at hand. Shut out thoughts about your other responsibilities and avoid going back and forth between unrelated duties.
Take short breaks so you don’t burn out.
You can’t work or be productive 24 hours a day. Schedule breaks throughout your day to give yourself some time to rest and relax. A break allows you to re charge and come back to a task with a fresh viewpoint. 39 , like drawing a picture, playing the guitar, or playing a game of chess on your phone.
Say no to extra projects if your plate is full.
40 . Be realistic when agreeing to new responsibilities, keeping what you have to get done already in mind. For example, if your schedule is fully booked with classes and soccer practice during the school week, it may not be the best time to join another club.
A. Concentrate on one task at a time
B. Set clear and measurable weekly goals
C. You don’t have to feel bad about relaxing
D. It’s easy to take on more than you can finish
E. It’s even harder if you struggle with time management
F. Include how much time you would like to spend on each task
G. Try to do something on your break that is unrelated to your task
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Raku Inoue is a talented artist. He specializes in 41 arranging flowers, leaves and other plant parts to 42 pop culture characters, animals, and pretty much anything else you can think of.
Inoue’s journey into painstaking floral art 43 one windy day in 2017. He was in his Montreal home watching the strong wind 44 dozens of pink flowers from a rose bush（花丛）in his backyard. Seeing these beautiful flowers on the 45 , he thought to himself “What a 46 !” and went to pick them up.
Looking at these 47 , the artist came up with the idea to 48 them to create art. He arranged them in the 49 of a beetle（甲虫）with small tree branches for legs, and his little project turned out so good that he 50 it.
After that very first floral artwork, the 51 artist started adding seeds, leaves, and other plant parts to his 52 . And he got better at arranging them with each 53 day. Soon, he was 54 to recreate all sorts of insects. Then he moved on to realistic- looking 55 like tigers and monkeys, and iconic characters like Nintendo’s Super Mario and Peach.
41. A. helplessly B. carefully C. secretly D. kindly
42. A. replace B. rescue C. reconsider D. recreate
43. A. began B. changed C. ended D. disappeared
44. A. improve B. test C. shake D. form
45. A. market B. beach C. water D. ground
46. A. waste B. surprise C. chance D. difference
47. A. trees B. flowers C. projects D. characters
48. A. paint B. sell C. use D. help
49. A. case B. history C. middle D. shape
50. A. kept at B. waited for C. complained about D. referred to
51. A. qualified B. gifted C. open- minded D. strong- willed
52. A. gardens B. stories C. designs D. foods
53. A. puzzling B. drinking C. frightening D. passing
54. A. nervous B. able C. expected D. guided
55. A. insects B. plants C. animals D. houses
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
As China enters autumn with the 56 （arrive）of the solar term liqiu, which means temperatures across most of 57 country have started to cool gradually, people are addicted to various foods to celebrate the seasonal change, hoping for health and a better life.
During liqiu, people in northern China traditionally join in a practice 58 （know）as tieqiubiao, a custom of eating more food, especially meat, to make up 59 the loss of weight during the hot summer.
Businesses, especially restaurants and stores selling meat 60 is traditionally eaten during liqiu, have prepared to meet the demand, with sales of meat 61 （dish）in many restaurants in Beijing increasing 62 （great）, creating a bustling（熙熙攘攘的）market scene.
There is a store of time- honored food brand Daoxiangeun in Beijing’s Changping district. On Wednesday morning, customers poured into the store 63 （buy）ready- to- eat foods such as cooked pork, fried fish and sausages.
Store manager Liu Jianjun 64 （express）his satisfaction with recent sales and said,“ In recent days, customers have been waiting outside the store even before 65 （open）hours, with the staff working tirelessly from morning till afternoon.”
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
你校上周日举办了一场“非物质文化遗产（Intangible Cultural Heritage）进校园”活动。请你给校英语报写一篇报道，介绍此次活动。内容包括：
1.活动目的；
2.活动内容；
2.活动意义。
注意：1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
参考词汇：传承人 inheritor
Last Sunday, our school launched the “Intangible Cultural Heritage into the Campus” activity.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I was a senior and team captain as a middle linebacker. We were a good football team with a 12-I record so far in the season. In November, we traveled to meet our cross- state competitors, which were a strong team. If we won this game, we would play in the State Championship game in December.
Playing in the championship game in Birmingham was something my dad did as a senior in high school. To make it that far was a dream of mine. I wanted to do something my dad had done, even better.
That November night, the stadium was filled with one hundred or so faithful fans that followed us to the battle. My parents sat closest to the field.
The game started. It was a fight to the finish with both teams leaving everything they had on the field. However, with under a minute left in the game, our team made a mistake that caused us to lose the game. I knew where my parents sat and hid my face from their seats. I could hear the disappointment in the sighs（叹息）of the crowd. Worse still, I couldn’t bear the thought of what my dad was thinking.
The clock struck zero, signaling that our chances of making it to the finals were over. We were disappointed. Not enough energy to cry. I remained silent. I didn’t want to speak to anyone, especially my dad.
I feared how the conversation would go. I didn’t want to hear “Good game” because I knew it wasn’t true. I didn’t want to hear “You’ll get them next time” because there was not going to be a “next time”. I didn’t want to hear “You should’ve done it in this or that way”. I wasn’t ready to face the reality of falling short in my father’s footsteps. In fact, I’d been trying so hard to make my dad proud of me, even though he didn’t ask me to do so.
I walked alone across the field to the clubhouse. I looked up into the stands where my parents once sat. Empty. Every seat was empty.
注意：1.续写词数应为 150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Suddenly, a familiar sound from a whistle（哨子）fell on my ears. ___________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
He loves me even though I blew it ___________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024～2025学年度第一学期高二10月联考·英语
参考答案、提示及评分细则
听力部分录音稿
（Text 1）
W: We’ve been waiting for our drinks for half an hour.
M: Sorry, I’ll bring them for you now. There are a lot of customers today.
（Text 2）
W: These photos are so cool! Do you go windsurfing a lot
M: Yeah. We don’t live near the sea, but luckily there’s a big lake near here. And we go windsurfing on the lake.（Text 3）
W: You’re cooking tonight, aren’t you
M: Yes. I cook for my family. I only eat vegetables for dinner, but my parents usually cat meat.
（Text 4）
W: I’m really looking forward to going to Barcelona. We will have a great time.
M: And it’s Barcelona Fashion Week while we are there, so it’s good for shopping!
W: What I expect most is to look at the Gaudi buildings and visit the Picasso Museum.
（Text 5）
W: My brother gave this T- shirt to me for my birthday. He designed it using an app.
M: Wow! Amazing! Can you show me the app
W: Sure.
（Text 6）
M: Come on, Amy! We’re leaving soon. Are you ready
W: Yeah. I’m getting my things ready now. Can you give me five minutes
M: Well, I don’t like being late. You know, the class starts at seven o’ clock.
W: There’s plenty of time. We always catch the bus at six thirty.
M: But they’re doing work on the roads at the moment, so it will take longer than before.
W: OK. I’m nearly ready. I just need to do my hair.
M: Your hair Amy, we’re going to the swimming pool!
（Text 7）
M: Hi, Emma Have you got a minute
W: Of course, Mark. What is it
M: Well, I’m going to Paris for a few days next week. And as you’re from Paris, I was wondering if you could give me some tips
W: Of course! Have you found anywhere to stay
M: Not yet. I’m still looking.
W: Well, try the Latin Quarter. That’s a very historic part of the city, and it’s not that expensive.
M: Sounds good, thanks. What about getting around
W: That’s easy. Just use the subway. It’s quite...
（Text 8）
W: Hello. This is Mary Smith speaking.
M: Oh, hello. This is Jason Brown. I’d like to speak to James Green.
W: Sorry, I’m afraid he’s out of the office right now. I’m his secretary. Would you like to leave a message
M: Yes, thanks. I’m supposed to meet him at two o’ clock this afternoon, but something has come up. I wonder if we can reschedule it to 4:00 pm instead, and maybe meet here in my office, that’s in Building 3, rather than in the main building.
W: OK. Got it. I’ll make sure he gets that.
M: Could you please ask him to call me before one thirty to confirm I’ll be in a meeting after that.
W: We’ll do.
M: OK. Thanks a lot.
（Text 9）
M: Hey, Emily. What are you doing here Our class is going to start in fifteen minutes.
W: Hey, Jack. I’m addicted to the news that two teenagers rescued an Italian tourist named Mario Marino from the Atlantic Ocean in Florida. Have you heard about that
M: Yeah, I read about it. These two brothers are amazing. They’re only 17 and 15, right
W: Yes, and Mario was so lucky that he was found by them.
M: Definitely. He got into trouble while swimming in the sea. That’s really dangerous. If he hadn’t shouted for help, those two teens wouldn’t have found him.
W: That’s right. Fortunately, the boys were passing in their fishing boat. When they heard the shout, they pulled Mario into their boat and took him back to the beach.
M: That’s really heart- warming. Mario was grateful to the boys. Mario spent the night in the hospital, but he’s fine now. He’s already talking about getting back into the water. That’s brave.
W: I guess he doesn’t let this scare him away from the ocean.
M: Yes. We’d better go now. Mr Johnson is coming. Don’t be late for the class.
（Text 10）
M: I have been a keen bicycle rider for about nine years. When I began bicycling, I found the flat roads easy but the hills almost impossible. Surprisingly, now it’s the opposite. A long flat ride can be both boring and tiring as you never experience that fantastic feeling of freedom when speeding downhill. Years ago, going uphill left me breathless. Now I have learned to take hills slowly. When I set off, I’m full of energy and the first hundred metres are amazing; the next couple of kilometres are a bit tiring; but on the whole, the experience is very enjoyable. Bicycling is like any other form of exercise I have tried as it is never a task but always a pleasure. The physical benefits are obvious but the mental benefits are equally important. When you are bicycling, you breathe fresh air, have time to think and can relax.
参考答案
1～5BACAC 6～10 BABBC 11～15BAACC 16～20 ABACC
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了美国四个最受欢迎的国家公园。
21. A 细节理解题。根据 Joshua Tree National Park部分“…1,200- square- mile Joshua Tree National Park in California...”可知，约书亚树国家公园位于美国加州。
22. C 细节理解题。根据 Bryce Canyon（峡谷）National Park 部分“Instead, it is a collection of giant natural rocks up to 150 feet high. The red, orange and white colors of the rocks make for breathtaking views throughout the park.”可知，布莱斯峡谷国家公园以独特的岩石而闻名。
23. B 细节理解题。根据 Grand Teton National Park 部分“This park is connected to Yellowstone National Park by the Johnd. Rockefeller Jr. Memorial Parkway, so it’s incredibly easy to visit both parks in one trip.”可知，大提顿国家公园离黄石国家公园最近。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了致力于保护鸟类的 Catherine Sevcenko救助白乌鸦 Hope的故事。
24. C 细节理解题。根据第二段“Sevcenko could hardly believe it when a rare crow she named Hope showed up last month. ‘I’d never seen a white crow before,’ said Sevcenko...”可知，Seveenko第一次见到 Hope时感到惊讶。
25. D 词义猜测题。根据画线词后“crow hadn’t developed enough strength in her wings to fly away. The bird was only a few months old and was a little underweight, but didn’t appear to have any injuries.”可推断，画线词的意思和 Young 最接近。
26. B 细节理解题。根据第四段“With help from volunteers, she estimates that Diva Crows has rescue d more than 2,000 birds. In 2023, Seveenko took in a two- foot- tall bird that had been shot with a gun…”可知，作者提及“两英尺高的鸟”是为了表明Sevcenko为保护鸟类所做的事情。
27. A 推理判断题。根据最后一段可推断，Hope与Tijona相处融洽。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了魔方创造的缘由、影响以及被很多领域认可。
28. D 数字计算题。根据第一段“This year marks the 50th anniversary（周年纪念）of the Rubik’s Cube（魔方）. More than 450 million have been sold since its invention... a traveling exhibit that was held on the toy’s 40th anniversary in 2014…”可知，魔方于1974年被发明。
29. A 细节理解题。根据第二段“The’ Rubik’ in Rubik’s Cube is Hungarian professor of architecture Erno Rubik, who first created his puzzle to teach his students concepts of three- dimensional（三维的）movement.”可知，Erno Rubik 发明魔方是作为自己教学的一种教具。
30. B 推理判断题。根据第三段“After the cube was released in the United States, books on how to solve it soon followed. In 1981, You Can Do the Cube, written by 13- year- old Patrick Bossert, sold more than 750,000 copies in short order...”可推断，魔方曾大受欢迎。
31. D 细节理解题。根据第五段“The fastest solving time the n was 22.95seconds... Max Park, who solved it in just 3.13 seconds!”可知，人们解魔方的速度越来越快。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了人工智能技术对多动症人群的帮助以及专家们的担忧。
32. A 细节理解题。根据第二段“When she shared her technique with another person who also has ADHD, she felt more people needed to know about it, so she started creating videos online...”可知，Becky在网上上传视频是想教同样患有多动症的人群如何使用人工智能工具。
33. C段落大意题。通读第三段可知，本段主要介绍了人工智能技术的一些功能。
34. C 推理判断题。根据第四段“But they also warned that AI apps should be used more as ‘ one tool in a toolbox’ instead of replacing traditional treatments such as developing organizational skills or taking prescription medications.”可推断，过度依赖人工智能应用软件是不明智的。
35. B 推理判断题。根据最后一段可推断，Bram de Buyser 认为使用人工智能会带来隐私问题。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇说明文。文章主要提供了一些时间管理技巧。
36. E 根据空前“Getting work done, meeting deadlines and being productive 100% of the time is difficult for everyone.”及空后“Luckily, here are several ways you can improve your time management skills.”可知，E项“如果你在时间管理方面遇到困难，那就更难了”符合。
37. F 根据空前“Map out exactly how you want to use your time each day, leaving nothing out of your schedule.”及空后“For example, start your schedule with something like, ‘7:30 AM-8:00 AM: Wake up and eat breakfast.’”可知，F项“包括你想在每项任务上花多少时间”符合。
38. A 根据下文“It’s hard to get things done when you’ re doing too many things at once. As you cross things off your to- do list, keep your mind focused on the task at hand.”可知，A 项“一次只做一件事”适合作本段小标题。
39. G 根据空前“A break allows you to recharge and come back to a task with a fresh viewpoint.”及空后“like drawing a picture, playing the guitar, or playing a game of chess on your phone.”可知，G项“试着在休息时间做一些与任务无关的事情”符合。
40. D 根据本段小标题及空后“Be realistic when agreeing to new responsibilities, keeping what you have to get done already in mind.”可知，D项“你很容易承担超出能力范围的事情”符合。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇记叙文。艺术家RakuInoue用花瓣、种子、树叶等创作昆虫、动物、流行文化人物等花卉艺术作品。
41. B 他擅长精心（carefully）排列花朵、叶子和其他植物部位，以重现（recreate）流行文化中的人物、动物和几乎任何你能想到的东西。
42. D 见上题解析。
43. A Inoue的花艺之旅始（began）于2017年一个刮风的日子。
44. C当时，他正在蒙特利尔的家中，看着后院玫瑰花丛上的几十朵粉红色的花被强风吹（shake）得摇摇欲坠。
45. D 看到地上（ground）这些美丽的花瓣,他心想：“太浪费（waste）了!”
46. A 见上题解析。
47. B 看着这些花（flowers），Inoue产生了用（use）它们创作艺术的想法。
48. C 见上题解析。
49. D他把它们排成甲虫的形状（shape），用小树枝做腿，他的小项目效果很好，所以他一直在做（kept at）。
50. A 见上题解析。
51. B 在完成了第一个花卉艺术作品之后，这位有天赋的（gifted）艺术家开始在他的设计（designs）中加入种子、叶子和其他植物部分。
52. C 见上题解析。
53. D 随着时间的推移（passing），他在排列这些东西方面做得越来越好。
54. B 很快，他就能（able）再造各种昆虫了。
55. C然后他转向逼真的动物（animals），如老虎和猴子，以及任天堂里的超级马里奥和桃子公主等标志性人物。
【答案与解析】
本文是一篇新闻报道。文章主要介绍了中国的二十四节气之一——立秋，着重介绍了其“贴秋膘”的习俗。
56. arrival 考查词形转换。此处用所给动词的名词形式作介词 with 的宾语。
57. the 考查冠词。空后的 country指的是上文提到的 China，故该空填定冠词 the，表特指。
58. known 考查非谓语动词。分析句子成分可知，此处用所给动词的过去分词作后置定语。
59. for 考查介词。make up for意为“补偿”，为固定搭配。
60. that/ which 考查定语从句。分析句子结构可知，此处引导的是一个限制性定语从句；从句缺少主语，先行词为 meat，指物，故填关系代词 that 或 which。
61. dishes 考查名词复数。根据句意及dish（菜肴）为可数名词可知，此处用所给名词的复数形式。
62. greatly 考查词形转换，此处用所给形容词的副词形式修饰空前的动词 increasing。
63. to buy 考查非谓语动词。分析句子成分可知，此处填非谓语动词；动词buy与其逻辑主语 customers之间存在逻辑上的主谓关系，故此处用所给动词的不定式作目的状语。
64. expressed 考查动词的时态。根据空后的并列谓语said可知，此处用所给动词的过去式。
65. opening 考查非谓语动词。分析句子成分可知，此处用所给动词的动名词形式修饰空后的名词 hours。
第一节
One possible version:
Last Sunday, our school launched the “Intangible Cultural Heritage into the Campus” activity. This activity aims to integrate intangible cultural heritage into school education, so that students can feel the charm of traditional culture.
At the event, the school invited inheritors of intangible cultural heritage to demonstrate their skills and interact with students. Some related practical activities, such as handicraft making, were also organized to let students have a better understanding of intangible cultural heritage through hands- on practice.
This activity is not only an opportunity for cultural inheritance, but also a touching and enlightening experience for students.
第二节
One possible version:
Suddenly, a familiar sound from a whistle（哨子）fell on my ears. It was my dad’s whistle. Why did he come to the sideline What would he say Our eyes met. I stared at him a waiting his words. To my surprise, he didn’t say “Good game” or “You should have done better”. He said something I’ll never forget for the rest of my life. He extended his muscular arm, raised his thumb in a thumbs- up gesture, and said, “I love you, son.”
He loves me even though I blew it That’s exactly right. He loves me! All of those negative scenarios left my head. Fortunately, I didn’t have a father whose love was depending on my successes or failures. I have a father who loves me because he is my dad. He approved of me because I am his son, not because I do or do not have a chance to win the State Championship. I felt grateful to him for showing me the perfect picture of a heavenly father’s love.写作评分细则
第一节（满分 15 分）
（一）评分原则
1.本题总分为 15 分，按 5 个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最
后给分。
3.词数少于 60 或多于 100 的，从总分中减去 2 分。
4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇
用法均可接受。
6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。
（二）各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（13～15 分）
——完全完成试题规定的任务。
——覆盖所有内容要点。
——应用较多的语法结构和词汇。
——语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
——完全达到预期的写作目的。
第四档（10～12 分）
——完成试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉 1～2 个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂的语法结构或词汇所致。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
——达到预期的写作目的。
第三档（7～9 分）
——基本完成试题规定的任务。
——虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
——整体而言，基本达到预期的写作目的。
第二档（4～6 分）
——未适当完成试题规定的任务。
——漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限。
——有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺乏连贯性。
——信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档（1～3 分）
——未完成试题规定的任务。
——明显漏掉主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题的要求。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限。
——较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，且影响对写作内容的理解。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
——信息未能传达给读者。
{#{QQABBQQEggAoQJBAAAhCEwEICgOQkAEACSgGxBAAMAAACRNABCA=}#}
0 分
——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判。
——所写内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节（满分 25 分）
（一）评分原则
1.本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档
次，最后给分。
3.词数少于 120 的，酌情扣分；只写一段的原则上不超过 10 分。
4.评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
（1）与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
（2）内容的丰富性和关键信息的利用情况；
（3）应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
（4）上下文的连贯性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及
词汇用法均可接受。
6.若书写较差以致影响交际，酌情扣分。
（二）各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21～25 分）
——与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接合理。
——内容丰富，利用了文中的关键信息。
——所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达。
——有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档（16～20 分）
——与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供的各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
——内容比较丰富，基本利用了文中的关键信息。
——所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。
——比较有效地使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写的短文结构紧凑。
第三档（11～15 分）
——与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了若干有关内容，部分利用了文中的关键信息。
——应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但不影响意义表达。
——使用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档（6～10 分）
——与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供的各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
——写出了一些有关内容，较少利用文中的关键信息。
——语法结构单调，词汇有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，且影响了意义的表达。
——较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档（1～5 分）
——与所给短文和所提供的各段落开头语的衔接较差。
——写出的内容较少，很少利用文中的关键信息。
——语法结构单调，词汇很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达。
——缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
0 分
——未能传达给读者任何信息；白卷、内容太少，无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
{#{QQABBQQEggAoQJBAAAhCEwEICgOQkAEACSgGxBAAMAAACRNABCA=}#}
