湖南省名校联考联合体2024-2025学年高一上学期11月期中英语试题（含解析，含听力原文无音频）
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| 名称 | 湖南省名校联考联合体2024-2025学年高一上学期11月期中英语试题（含解析，含听力原文无音频） |  | |
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| 版本资源 | 人教版（2019） | ||
| 科目 | 英语 | ||
| 更新时间 | 2024-11-15 17:20:04 | ||
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2024年秋季高一期中联考
英 语
时量：120 分钟 满分：150分
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例： How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What did Tom want to be
A. A librarian. B. A writer. C. A singer.
2. Where does the man plan to go next month
A. Los Angeles. B. Shanghai. C. Seattle.
3. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Mrs. Johnson’s lessons.
B. Importance of asking questions.
C. The exam results.
4. When does the man finish his first class
A. At 9:10 a. m. B. At 10:10 a. m. C. At 11:00 a. m.
5. Who is probably the woman
A. The man’s doctor. B. The man’s friend. C. The man’s teacher.
第二节 （共15 小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does John come to the coffee shop for
A. Getting relaxed. B. Doing his work. C. Meeting Sarah.
7. What is John’s favorite coffee
A. Cappuccino. B. Espresso. C. Latte.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What does the man want to do with the broken chairs
A. Return them. B. Replace them. C. Repair them.
9. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Co-workers.
B. Manager and clerk.
C. Shop owner and customer.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What did Chris do at a school event today
A. He wrote a report.
B. He took part in dances.
C. He exchanged presents with others.
11. What does Chris dislike most about today’s event
A. The strange host.
B. The follow-up task.
C. The students’ performance.
12. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a dance studio. B. At school. C. At home.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Which country was the woman’s starting point of the journey
A. Russia. B. Mongolia. C. China.
14. How many people were there on the trip
A. 10. B. 11. C. 13.
15. What did the woman see in Siberia
A. Animals. B. Trees. C. Rivers.
16. What is said about the woman
A. She rode a camel on the trip.
B. She caught several fish in China.
C. She ate noodles on the train.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Who is probably the speaker
A. A freshman. B. A teacher. C. A former graduate student.
18. What is the speaker doing
A. She’s giving a speech. B. She’s teaching a lesson. C. She’s making a report.
19. What should the students do at college according to the speaker
A. Live a healthy lifestyle.
B. Form their own clubs.
C. Prepare for their future careers.
20. What does the speaker advise the listeners to do
A. Go on journeys.
B. Develop their own personalities.
C. Don’t join too many clubs.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
2024 British Day Needs Volunteers!
The British Day has become an important part of the annual grand events in Guangdong Province since 2010, which welcomes friends from all over the world. This year’s British Day is themed “Cool Britannia”， taking you on a childhood time machine to explore childhood memories. And here volunteers are needed.
When & Where
Date: Saturday, Nov. 2, 2024, from 11:00 AM to 5:00 PM.
Location: Zhujiang New Town, Tianhe District, Guangzhou City.
Who to apply
Mainly for college students studying in the Greater Bay Area who
* are eager to spread Chinese and foreign cultures;
* have good oral English communication skills and experience in volunteering for large outdoor activities;
* have a strong sense of responsibility and teamwork.
What to gain
* The experience of cultural exchanges between China and the UK;
* The opportunity to improve your oral English;
* Volunteer certificates（证书）( in Chinese and English) and thank-you letters;
* A limited-edition T-shirt of British Day as a souvenir.
What to do
Volunteers will handle different tasks.
Group 1: Handle on-site ticketing, event layout and material sorting.
Group 2: Offer event guidance to guests. Answer questions from stall owners and guests.
Group 3: Assist stage activities like performances to ensure smooth progress.
Group 4: Aid in charity raffle（慈善抽奖） ticket sales, including introducing activities and sorting prizes.
How to apply
Please send your resume（简历） with a simple self-introduction to events @ before 12: 00 noon, Beijing time on Oct. 22, 2024.Volunteers successfully selected will be informed by phone and email before Oct. 24. Volunteers who have been accepted but are unable to participate due to personal reasons must apply to the organizer at least five days in advance.
Come and join us!
21. What can guests do on this year’s British Day
A. Take on a time machine.
B. Visit the British cities.
C. Interview some volunteers.
D. Experience childhood happiness again.
22. Who are most likely to be accepted as volunteers for the event
A. High school students in Guangzhou who are good at oral English.
B. Students of Shenzhen University who often go to outdoor community services.
C. Professionals in Guangzhou who try to promote the cultural exchanges.
D. British college students who love Chinese culture and speak Chinese fluently.
23. Which statement is TRUE according to the passage
A. Volunteers are required to work more than 8 hours for the event.
B. Volunteers will gain a common T-shirt as a present.
C. Volunteers will all have to offer event guidance to guests.
D. Volunteers unable to serve the event should inform the organizer before Oct.28,2024.
B
When Heman Bekele was 6, he got a chemistry set for Christmas. He used it to mix up “potions（魔水）”. Back then, only his parents paid attention. Now, in 2024, at 15, Heman is used to a lot more people watching his work.
In October 2023, 3M and Discovery Education named Heman the winner of their Young Scientist Challenge. His prize: $25,000. His accomplishment: inventing a soap that could one day treat and prevent some forms of skin cancer.
It could take years before the soap is available to customers. But Heman, a 10th grader at Woodson High, is determined. Over the summer, he spent every weekday in a lab at the Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health. When he goes back to school this fall, he’ ll be at the lab less often. But he’ ll stick to his dream and try hard to make it come true.
Heman was born in Africa. He remembers seeing people in Africa working in the hot sun without protection for their skin. Because of that, some of them developed skin cancer, a disease caused by too much exposure（暴露） to the sun. Treating the cancer is costly, about $40,000. Heman wondered if there was a cheaper way for people to deal with the disease. He thought of adding a skin-cancer medicine called imiquimod to a bar of soap. “What is one thing that everyone can use ” Heman recalls thinking. “Everyone uses soap and water for cleaning. So soap would probably be the best option.”
Heman needed help to bring his idea to life. In 2023, he came across the 3M Challenge and submitted a video explaining his idea. Soon, he received an invitation to the company’s headquarters. He spoke in front of a panel of judges. That day, he was named the winner. Since then, Heman has been working on developing his idea and some adult experts are guiding him, saying he’s passionate and inspiring.
24. Why did Heman win the Young Scientist Challenge
A. He discovered a new chemical element.
B. He invented a soap that could prevent skin cancer.
C. He created a potion to cure common illnesses.
D. He developed a sunscreen with long-lasting effects.
25. Why did Heman view soap as the best choice for his invention
A. Because it was a common item people often use.
B. Because he had a personal interest in making soap.
C. Because he wanted to target a specific group of people.
D. Because he believed in the healing function of soap.
26. What is TRUE about Heman’s experience at the 3M company’s headquarters
A. He was not well-prepared in front of the judges.
B. It offered him a chance to explain his idea online.
C. It was pretty challenging but rewarding in the end.
D. His parents kept him company throughout the event.
27. What is the significance（意义） of Heman’s invention based on his personal background
A. It shows his love for skin care.
B. It shows his interest in the beauty industry.
C. It shows his commitment to environmental protection.
D. It shows his desire to contribute to African community.
C
Ramona is only seven years old, but her paintings sell for around US $2,000 dollars each. That is a good price, especially since each painting takes her no more than 10 minutes.
She doesn’t paint the same subjects as the average 7-year-old girl, either. There are no pictures of Mummy and Daddy, or her friends or school. Ramona prefers abstract（抽象的） art. She does not paint the real world. Instead, she paints her feelings about it in broad sweeps of bright colour. In fact, Ramona is an elephant.
Ramona is not the only artist at the Elephant Safari Park on the Indonesian island of Bali, or in Asia as a whole. Art comes naturally to them, “For many years, zookeepers have known that elephants both in zoos and in the wild will pick up sticks and doodle in the dirt,” says Mia Fineman, an art historian from New York and author of the book “When Elephants Paint”.
Mia Fineman says that elephants from different parts of Asia have different styles. Those from central Thailand, for example, prefer cool, dark colours like blue and green. “When I view a painting, I can usually tell what region it’s from, and which elephant created it,” she says.
Elephant art first appeared in 1997, when two Russian conceptual artists first had the idea of encouraging elephants to paint. For them, the art lay in the idea of elephants painting, rather than in the paintings themselves.
Over time, people have come to enjoy the elephant art for itself. No one will put Ramona and her friends in the same category（类别） as famous painters like Rembrandt or Picasso. But their works are not just random brush strokes, either. Elephants are known to be sensitive and thoughtful creatures. There is no reason why they should not express their feelings about the world around them and what the human race has done to the world.
We may one day come to understand the meaning of elephant art. But will we like what it has to say about us
28. The underlined word “doodle” in paragraph 3 probably means “______”.
A. fight fearlessly B. draw roughly C. walk carelessly D. play happily
29. Why did the two Russian artists encourage elephants to paint
A. They thought the act of elephant painting was an art.
B. Elephants could express their feelings about the world.
C. Elephants’ paintings were worth a lot of money.
D. Lost elephants could be found because of their paintings.
30. What does the writer think of clephant art
A. Elephant art can equal human art.
B. Paintings by elephants are meaningless.
C. Much remains to be discovered about elephant art.
D. It is impossible to discover what elephant art means.
31. What does the passage mainly talk about
A. A new way of making money.
B. An advanced method of training elephants.
C. Different lifestyles of elephants in parks.
D. The amazing art of elephants’ paintings.
D
Joyce Loaiza lives alone in a community for older people in the American state of Florida. When she is home, the retired office worker often talks in a friendly female voice that asks about her day. A few kilometers away, the same voice helped 83-year-old Deanna Dezern when her friend died. In New York state, it plays games and music for92-year-old Marie Broadbent. And in Washington state, it helps 83-year-old Jan Worrell make new friends.
The women are some of the first in the United States to receive the robot ElliQ made by Intuition Robotics. The company and other officials say it is the only device（设备） using artificial intelligence(AI) to help older Americans from loneliness.
The device looks like a small table light, which has an eyeless, mouthless head that lights up and turns. It remembers each user’s interests and their talks, helping create a special experience with each new discussion. It can be as deep as the meaning of life or as light as a small joke.
ElliQ also plays music and provides creative or encouraging sayings. On a video screen that comes with it, it will show different cities and places of interest. The device leads exercises, asks about the owner’s health, and gives reminders to take medicines and drink water. It can also support video calls and contact family, friends, or doctors in an emergency.
Intuition Robotics says none of the conversations are heard by the company, with the information staying on each owner’s device.
Charlotte Mather-Taylor is director of the Broward County, Florida, Area Agency on Aging. She said the COVID-19 pandemic and its following results left many older people more disconnected. Her agency has provided 300 ElliQs which, she believes, help the situation. She said, “We’ve seen very positive results with it. People generally like her and she makes them smile and brings joy.”
Brigham Young University professor Julianne Holt-Lunstad, who studies the effects of loneliness on health, worries that a device like ElliQ might have short-term helpful effects but it could make people less likely to seek human communication. She told The Associated Press that the difficult feeling of loneliness should push people to reconnect socially.
32. What makes the robot ElliQ unique
A. It is made by Intuition Robotics in America.
B. It can play games and music for the old.
C. It uses AI to help the old fight loneliness.
D. It can talk in a friendly female voice.
33. What do we know about ElliQs
A. They are intelligent and well-rounded women.
B. They can have deep discussions with the owners.
C. They are small table lights with human-like heads.
D. They may send the conversations to the company.
34. What can be inferred from Holt-Lunstad’s comment
A. ElliQs will push more people to reconnect socially.
B. ElliQs make no difference to smoothing out loneliness.
C. ElliQs will have a promising future for their good effects.
D. ElliQs will have less helpful effects in the long term.
35. What’s the main purpose of the passage
A. To introduce a special AI device.
B. To show us how to operate a new device.
C. To offer some advice on removing loneliness.
D. To call for more care for the old.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Being Your Best Self
You may anxiously want to be your best self. And here is how.
Live according to your personal values.
Ignoring your core beliefs can make you feel distressed（极为苦恼的） or conflicted. Discover your personal values by listing the things important to you, identifying times you’ve felt truly happy, and deciding your desire in life. For instance, you might value helping others and being creative. 36 .
Do at least one activity you enjoy every day.
Schedule time every day to do something that makes you feel happy. This can help you enjoy life more and become your best self.
37
It’s easier to feel happy if you’ re proud of who you are, and knowing your strengths can help. Your strengths might include things like solving math problems, writing, singing, or competing in athletics. Additionally, you might have interpersonal skills, analytical skills, or critical thinking skills. 38 Make a list of your talents, skills, and knowledge. Then, review it often to help you remember how awesome you are.
Work on improving your weaknesses so you can overcome them.
39 If they trouble you, try to improve them by learning new skills or trying something different, like starting a workout program to improve the fitness level you are unhappy with. In time, you might be able to improve yourself.
Express your emotions so they don’t get piled up.
Your feelings are super important. Ignoring them can actually make them worse. 40 Here are some options: talk to someone, write a journal, do something creative or exercise.
A. List your skills to solve your problems.
B. Instead, choose a healthy way to let them out.
C. These emotions will greatly increase your pressure.
D. Recognize your strengths to help you have self-confidence.
E. So you may choose a job in nursing and paint as a hobby.
F. Everyone has shortcomings, so don’t feel bad about yours.
G. Similarly, you might be very creative or enjoy teaming with people.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My senior year of high school looks a lot different now than it did just a few short months ago.
I am 17 and have competed at the sport’s highest levels. I was looking forward to continuing my athletic career in college, but on September 20, 2021, my world 41 in an instant.
I was 42 for the coming homecoming pep rally（赛前动员会） at a friend’s house when one of my flips（空翻） went 43 and I landed directly on my neck and face. I was fully conscious（神志清醒的） as I 44 in the grass and 45 that I couldn’t feel my arms and legs. I was rushed to the hospital. When I awoke, 46 warned me that most people who suffer this sort of injury never 47 again, but I 48 to believe them!
I never 49 smiling. My athleticism（体育才能） has helped me fully focus on my 50 , and I make up my mind to 51 the doctors are wrong and get back to walking on my own two feet. I also hope to help people know about what it’s like to 52 a severe injury, so I 53 my recovery on social media. By 54 my struggles and victories, I hope to touch the hearts of others who are going through a 55 time in their lives.
41. A. ended B. happened C. continued D. changed
42. A. resting B. writing C. practising D. finishing
43. A. bad B. wrong C. blank D. crazy
44. A. lay B. played C. rolled D. moved
45. A. realized B. thought C. hoped D. regretted
46. A. doctors B. parents C. friends D. teachers
47. A. run B. jump C. stand D. walk
48. A. failed B. refused C. decided D. aimed
49. A. remember B. stop C. enjoy D. risk
50. A. experiment B. mind C. recovery D. task
51. A. show B. find C. doubt D. accept
52.A. come up with B. catch up with C. live with D. connect with
53. A. record B. reflect C. seek D. get
54. A. learning B. judging C. sharing D. explaining
55. A. useful B. familiar C. regular D. tough
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Nov. 22, 2023, just before turning 20, Ji Xiaoming received a letter from Cao Yajun, a girl from a middle school in Daye, Hubei province.
The girl was one of the 526 middle school students in Daye 56 took part in a charity project focused on providing psychological（心理的） support to children in the countryside. Lin Lusheng, the project director, 57 (stress) that teenagers in the project are at an age when they begin to meet pressure and go through typical psychological changes. “But many children are less likely 58 (share) their feelings with adults such as parents or teachers, which, if ignored, can lead to psychological problems,” he added. According to him, 80 to 90 percent of the 59 (volunteer) of the project are university students in their 20s.
In Cao’s letter, she mentioned feelings overcome by schoolwork, asked about 60 (effect) study methods, and was curious about university life. Ji sincerely responded 61 the letter, sharing details about her educational experiences and university life. Upon 62 (receive) Ji’s reply, Cao was overjoyed. “She described university life as so colorful and inspiring. It 63 (definite) really encourages me to study hard and struggle for my dream university,” she said. So far, the project 64 (offer) letter companionship services to rural children from 1,217 schools across the country, including nine schools in Daye, exchanging 65 total of 1.42 million letters.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （满分15分）
假定你是李华，你的英国朋友 Chris在新学校与新同学相处不愉快，很烦恼。他发来邮件询问你的建议。请你用英文给他回复，内容包括：
1.表明目的；
2.表示理解；
3.提出建议（至少三条）。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Chris, Hearing that you have difficulty getting along well with your new classmates, ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua
第二节 （满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The smallest loaf of bread
Once there was a serious shortage（短缺，不足） of food in the town. A rich and kind baker called all the poorest children in town to his bakery（面包店） and gave one loaf of bread to each of them and told them to come back every day for bread until the hard days ended.
Rather than being thankful for the baker’s kindness, many of the children fought over who would get the largest loaf. They complained, were bitter（愤愤不平的） about their present situation, and were just out for what they could get.
However, among the crowd was a neatly dressed little girl who had a different attitude. Day after day, patiently, she waited for the others to stop fighting, and she gratefully took the smallest loaf. Then, she thanked the baker and happily brought the loaf home to share with her family.
One day, while slicing（把……切成薄片） the bread, her mother found several silver coins inside the loaf. Quite surprised, she showed her daughter what she had discovered in the bread.
The next day, as usual, the children went back to the bakery. Some impatient children couldn’t wait to get the bread. Some kept their eyes on the big loaf. Still others were making a noise, taking the baker’s kindness and generosity for granted. The little girl also returned. Holding out the palm of her hand, the girl showed the silver coins to the baker and said, “Sir, we found your money inside the loaf of bread that you so generously gave to us. You must have accidentally dropped the coins while you were baking the loaf.” This somehow didn’t surprise the baker. He got closer to the little girl smilingly and said lovingly, “No, no, my child. I did not make a mistake.” Hearing this, the crowd were curious about what would happen and began to quiet down.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
“Keep the money. This is a reward for you!” the baker added. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Moved by the girl’s story, the children lowered their heads in shame. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024年秋季高一期中联考
英语参考答案
题序 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
答案 B B A B B A B A C B B C A B B
题序 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 C C A C C D B D B A C D B A C
题序 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
答案 D C B D A E D G F B D C B A A
题序 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
答案 A D B B C A C A C D
21. D。细节理解题。由首段中的“taking you on a childhood time machine to explore childhood memories（让你乘坐童年的时光机，再次探索童年的记忆）”可知。
22. B。细节理解题。由 Who to apply部分中的“Mainly for college students studying in the Greater Bay Area（主要为大湾区的大学生）”及“have good oral English communication skills and experience in volunteering for large outdoor activities”可知。
23. D。细节理解题。由最后一段中的“Volunteers who have been accepted but are unable to participate due to personal reasons must apply to the organizer at least five days in advance.”可知，必须提前五天告知负责人，故选 D。由文中 Date 部分中的“from 11:00 AM to 5:00 PM”可知，工作时间为6小时，排除选项A; 由文中“A limited-edition T-shirt of British Day as a souvenir（限定版T恤作纪念物）”可排除选项 B；由文中 What to do 部分中的“Volunteers will handle different tasks.”及“Group 2: Offer event guidance to guests.”可知，给客人提供引导仅是第二组的任务，排除选项C。
【语篇解读】本文介绍了少年科学家 Heman Bekele 发明了一种能预防和治疗某些皮肤癌的肥皂，赢得了3M和 Discovery Education的 Young Scientist Challenge，并获得了25000美元奖金的故事。
24. B。细节理解题。题干意为：为什么 Heman 赢得了 Young Scientist Challenge的比赛 根据第二段中的“His accomplishment: inventing a soap that could one day treat and prevent some forms of skin cancer”可知，答案为 B项。
25. A。推理判断题。题干意为：为什么 Heman将肥皂作为他发明的最佳选择 根据第四段中的“Everyone uses soap and water for cleaning. So soap would probably be the best option.”可知， Heman 选择肥皂是因为它是一种人们常用的生活物品。故选A项。
26. C。推理判断题。题干意为：关于 Heman在3M公司总部的经历哪一项是正确的 根据最后一段可知，他先提交了视频解释自己的创意，然后被邀请到3M公司总部并在评委组面前发表演讲，这对一个十几岁的少年来说无疑是充满挑战的，但是他最后成功获得了奖金，结果是值得的。故选C项。
27. D。推理判断题。题干意为：基于 Heman的成长背景，他的发明的意义是什么 根据第四段可知他出生在非洲，看到非洲同胞由于过多地暴露在太阳下而患上皮肤癌，但治疗费用昂贵，他想要通过发明一种肥皂来改善这种状况，因此选择D选项：他想为非洲社会做出贡献。
【语篇解读】本文为说明文。作者首先以大象 Ramona为例，介绍了大象绘画这一奇特现象，也提出了让读者思考的问题。
28. B。词义理解题。根据第三段画线词前的“Art comes naturally to them”以及第六段中的“But their works are not just random brush strokes, either”可知 doodle与绘画有关。
29. A。细节理解题。根据第五段中的“For them, the art lay in the idea of elephants painting（对于两位艺术家而言，艺术在于大象绘画这个想法）”可知。
30. C。推理判断题。依据最后一段可知答案。A项意为：大象艺术可以与人类艺术媲美。与原文第六段二句（没人会把 Ramona和她的伙伴们的作品与著名的画家伦勃朗和毕加索的作品归为一类。）不符。
31. D。主旨大意题。根据全文可知，作者以大象 Ramona为例，介绍了神奇的大象绘画。
【语篇解读】本文是一篇说明文，题材为科技与生活。本文主要介绍了一款设备——机器人ElliQ。ElliQ的特殊之处在于它是唯一一款使用人工智能来帮助美国老年人对抗孤独的设备。
32. C。细节理解题。根据第二段中的“The company and other officials say it is the only device（设备） using artificial intelligence(AI) to help older Americans from loneliness.”可知，机器人ElliQ是唯一一款使用AI技术来帮助美国老年人摆脱孤独的设备。由此可知，ElliQ的特殊之处在于它能够运用人工智能与老人交流来帮助老年人对抗孤独。故选C项。
33. B。推理判断题。根据第三段中的“It can be as deep as the meaning of life or as light as a small joke.”可知，ElliQ可以与主人进行讨论，话题可以像生命的意义一样深刻，也可以像一个小笑话一样轻松，故选 B项。A项：它们是智能、全面的女性；C项：它们是人头形状的小台灯；D项：它们可以把谈话内容发送给公司。这三项均与原文描述不符。
34. D。推理判断题。根据第七段中的“a device like ElliQ might have short-term helpful effects but it could make people less likely to seek human communication”可知，像ElliQ这样的设备确实会产生一些短期的有益效果，但它可能会使人们不太可能寻求人类交流。由此推知，从长远来看，它帮助效果不大，故选D项。A项：ElliQs将会促使更多的人重新建立社交联系；B项：ElliQs对人类抵抗孤独没有任何作用；C项：由于良好的效果，ElliQs前景将会很好。这三项均与原文描述不符。
35. A。推理判断题。文章第一到第五段主要介绍机器人设备 ElliQ的功能，即使用人工智能帮助美国老年人摆脱孤独。最后两段分别介绍了佛罗里达州布劳沃德县老龄化地区机构的主任 Charlotte Mather-Taylor 和杨百翰大学教授 Julianne Holt-Lunstad对这款设备的看法。由此推知，本文的主要写作目的是介绍一款特殊的人工智能设备。
36. E。选项E中的“nursing”为帮助别人的职业， “paint”为体现创造性的爱好，与前一句“For instance, you might value helping others and being creative.”形成对应。
37. D。从文章结构可知此处应为本段小标题，应对应选择祈使句。本段内容主要讲认识自己的优势会让自己“proud of who you are”和“remember how awesome you are”，由此可知，应选D:“意识到你自己的优势可以帮助你获得自信”。
38. G。本段讲要认识自己的优势，然后列举了一些优势并且最后一句进行总结，可推知此句也应该是并列的优势。
39. F。此段小标题中的关键词“weaknesses”意为“缺点，不足”，与选项F中的“shortcomings”为同义替换，且作为段首句，承接小标题展开叙述。
40. B。前文说忽略情绪会适得其反，由此可知应该要释放情绪即“let them out”，并且后文“Here are some options ...”举例给出具体的释放方式。
【语篇解读】作者在一次赛前训练中因动作失误受了伤，医生们提醒作者，她很可能再也不能走路了，但作者从来都不相信这一点，她下定决心证明医生说的是错的。
41. D。根据上文可知，作者在高中阶段参加过体育比赛，在大学想继续她的运动生涯，但是在2021年9月20日这一天她的世界瞬间改变了。
42. C。根据下文的“coming”和“flips（空翻）”可知，比赛还没有进行，所以作者在朋友家为即将到来的比赛进行练习。
43. B。根据空后的“I landed directly on my neck and face”可知，作者落地的姿势不对，即动作环节出问题了。 go wrong意为“出现问题；出故障”。
44. A。根据上文可知，作者脸部着地，由此可推知，作者当时应是在草地上躺着，等待救援。
45. A。根据下文可知，作者意识到感觉不到自己的手和脚。
46. A。根据上文可知，作者受了伤，被立即送到了医院，故作者醒来后应是医生们告知她的受伤情况。
47. D。根据下文可知， 作者下定决心要证明医生们的提醒是错误的——回到能用两条腿走路的状态，可知医生告知作者大多受过这种伤的人再也不能走路了。
48. B。根据下文可知，作者下定决心要恢复到能用腿走路的状态，拒绝相信医生。
49. B。根据下文可知，作者对体育运动的热爱使作者能够完全专注于自己的康复，持有一种积极乐观的态度，故作者从未停止微笑。
50. C。根据下文“walking on my own two feet”可知，作者一直相信自己可以恢复到用腿走路的状态。
51. A。根据下文可知，作者下定决心要恢复到能用腿走路的状态，要证明医生们是错误的。
52. C。作者想让人们了解忍受严重的伤痛的生活是什么样的。
53. A。根据上文可知，作者想让人们了解自己忍受伤痛的生活，所以作者记录下了自己康复的过程。
54. C。根据语境并结合选项可知，作者希望通过分享自己与伤痛的斗争和胜利来帮助其他人。
55. D。作者希望触动那些在生活中经历困难的人的内心。
【语篇解读】本文主要讲述了一个慈善项目中的大学生志愿者与高中生结对，给其提供心理支持。
56. who/ that。考查定语从句。设空处为引导定语从句的关系词，先行词是 students。关系词在定语从句中作主语，指人，故填关系代词 who/ that。
57. stressed。考查谓语动词的时态。根据第58题后面的“he added”可知，本题与之时态一样，所以使用一般过去时。
58. to share。考查非谓语动词。此空前面出现“many children are less likely”，根据 likely的用法可知，此空应填动词不定式。
59. volunteers。考查名词单复数。根据本句中的“80 to 90 percent of the 59 (volunteer)”可知，本空应使用名词的复数形式。
60. effective。考查词性转换。根据本空后的“study methods”可知此空填形容词修饰名词。
61. to。考查介词。 respond to the letter, 意思是“回信”。
62. receiving。考查非谓语动词。本空前面是介词 upon；介词后面的动词使用-ing形式。
63. definitely。考查词性转换。本空修饰动词 encourages，作状语，使用其副词形式，故填 definitely。
64. has offered。考查谓语动词的时态。本句有时间状语 So far，所以应该使用现在完成时；主语是 the project，为单数，故填 has offered。
65. a。考查冠词。短语 a total of, 意思是“总计”。
第四部分
第一节
【参考范文】
Dear Chris,
Hearing that you have difficulty getting along well with your new classmates, I am writing to offer you my suggestions.
I definitely understand your feelings, but cheer up. It’s time to find an opportunity to have a full and frank talk with them face to face and be sure to explain how you feel. Friendships are like flowers which need to be taken good care of, so you should be friendlier and always be a good listener. It’s natural that you sometimes disagree with your new classmates, but you need to respect different opinions. Last but not least, it might be a good idea to always support your new classmates through thick and thin.
Hopefully you’ll find these ideas helpful.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节
【参考范文】
“Keep the money. This is a reward for you!” the baker added. “A reward for me ” the girl was quite surprised. All these days, she was deeply grateful to the baker for his generosity and understanding. Now she wondered why she deserved the “reward”. Noticing her hesitation, the baker patted her on the head kindly, saying, “You are always kind, patient and grateful. You know good things often come to those who can wait and be thankful. You are worth it.” With these words, he gently took the girl to the front and patiently explained to the kids what had happened.
Moved by the girl’s story, the children lowered their heads in shame. Everything began to change. They waited in line. There were no more complaints, arguments or fighting for the largest loaf. Every kid took the bread politely and offered thanks to the baker. What a heart-warming scene! The little girl, with her quiet grace, had become a symbol of hope and a reminder that even in the most challenging times, virtues like patience, gratitude, and honesty could lead to unexpected blessings.
【文本解读】这篇文章的核心内容是一个面包师对一个小女孩的奖励。小女孩因为耐心、感恩和善待他人而得到了面包师的赏识。面包师在面包中放入银币，而小女孩发现了这些银币后，并没有私自留下，而是将它们归还给了面包师。
这个故事强调了耐心和感恩的重要性，以及善行会得到回报的主题。同时我们也了解到，即使在贫穷和困难的环境中，保持友好、积极和感恩的态度仍然能够带来良好的结果。
这个故事的续写强调了小女孩的行为如何影响了周围的人，以及面包师如何利用这个机会教育孩子们关于分享、等待、善待他人和感恩的重要性。
【写作要点】
第一段：根据首句关键词“reward”、原文第二段中的“thankul … kindness … complained …”以及第三段中的“had a different attitude ... patiently ... gratefully ... happily ... share ...”等伏笔，可知本段要写小女孩的优秀品质，如 kindness, patience, gratefulness等。但要特别注意， honesty不能作为“reward”的原因。同时，结合第二段首句可知，本段要写小女孩的言行举止影响到了周围的人。
第二段：根据首句关键词“Moved”“shame”可知，本段可结合孩子们的心理、动作、表情来描写孩子们受到触动之后的变化，并与文中的伏笔形成呼应，然后自然升华主题和感悟。
听力材料
Text 1
M: Tom wanted to become a singer, right
W: Actually, he hoped to be a writer, because he always had a lot of ideas to share. But now he aims to be a librarian. He enjoys reading and organizing books.
Text 2
W: Ryan, were you born in Seattle
M: Yep, I finished primary school there. Then my parents moved to Shanghai. And they have lived there ever since. I now live alone in Los Angeles, and I will pay them a visit next month.
Text 3
M: I feel like choosing Mrs. Johnson’s course. I heard she would ask many questions in class.
W: I signed up for her lessons last term. Though the lessons weren’t relaxing, my progress last term was satisfactory.
Text 4
W: Todd, what’s your typical day at university like
M: Well, I usually get up around 8:00 a. m. My first class starts at 9:10 a. m. It lasts an hour. And I have lunch with my roommates, usually after 11:00 a. m.
Text 5
W: Is there anything I can do for you Maybe bring you some novels to pass the time in the hospital
M: That’s really sweet of you. Actually, I would appreciate it if you helped me with my English homework.
W: Sure. Which unit have you studied, by the way
Text 6
M: Hi, Sarah. I’ve heard a lot about your work. Do you come here often
W: Thanks, John! Not really, but I love the atmosphere. So, what brings you here
M: I’m feeling burnt-out at work. It’s good to have such a quiet coffee shop to relax.
W: It is! I come here to escape the busy life sometimes. I heard they have the best cappuccino here.
M: Yes. By the way, what’s your favorite coffee
W: Oh, I’m a fan of latte. How about you
M: Espresso all the way. It can clear my mind.
Text 7
M: Good afternoon. I’ve received the 20 chairs I ordered here, but the legs of four chairs are broken.
W: Sorry. I’m afraid there must be a problem with the delivery. Would you like me to change them
M: No, that’s not necessary. Actually, I bought two spare chairs at first. And two of my colleagues quit this month. So 16 new chairs are enough. My manager wants me to ask for the return of the four broken chairs.
W: I see. As soon as we receive the four broken chairs, we’ll give your money back to your account.
M: OK. Thank you.
Text 8
W: Hi, Chris. How was school
M: Well, today we had an event that was quite an adventure.
W: Oh What happened
M: It was a “Cultural Exchange Day” when students from different countries presented their cultures.
W: That’s cool.
M: Well, the unexpected part was that the host asked us to take part in traditional dances from every culture.
W: That does sound a bit out of the common.
M: I tried to go along with it, but I couldn’t shake off the feeling of discomfort. And the worst part is that now I have to write a summary of what I’ve seen today.
W: I suppose that could not be too hard.
M: That’s not the point. I have already had enough homework to finish.
W: Don’t worry. I will accompany you. There is no hurry to make dinner.
Text 9
M: I heard that you took a train journey.
W: Yes, I started from Russia, travelled through Mongolia, and ended up in China.
M: Wow! That was a long way!
W: Yes, it was. It took three weeks. I went on a tour with ten other friends. It did cost a lot of money, but it was worth it.
M: Cool! What was the landscape like
W: Much of what we saw was flatland, mile after mile. As we reached Siberia, we saw many trees. When we got to Mongolia, we caught sight of some camels and winding rivers every once in a while.
M: So what did you eat during the trip
W: We stopped several times along the way and bought food that the local people were selling— dried fish and other types of Russian food. And we ate instant noodles on the train.
Text 10
W: Good morning! On behalf of the whole university, it is with great pleasure that I give a warm welcome to all the new faces joining our university. Congratulations on starting this exciting journey of higher education in Florida! Although I graduated one year ago, I clearly remember how curious and excited I was on my first day here. The university is not just a place for learning. It is more of a place for establishing relationships and is the stepping stone to your future career. Around the campus, you will discover lots of knowledge waiting to be explored. Choose a club that interests you the most, but you don’t need to join too many. Professors and classmates will become your guides. Remember, every challenge is an opportunity to broaden your views. Our university is full of various cultures, ideas and talents. Embrace this colorful college life, for it enriches your knowledge and prepares you for the global challenges ahead. Welcome to the university where your journey of knowledge and self-discovery begins.
英 语
时量：120 分钟 满分：150分
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例： How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What did Tom want to be
A. A librarian. B. A writer. C. A singer.
2. Where does the man plan to go next month
A. Los Angeles. B. Shanghai. C. Seattle.
3. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Mrs. Johnson’s lessons.
B. Importance of asking questions.
C. The exam results.
4. When does the man finish his first class
A. At 9:10 a. m. B. At 10:10 a. m. C. At 11:00 a. m.
5. Who is probably the woman
A. The man’s doctor. B. The man’s friend. C. The man’s teacher.
第二节 （共15 小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does John come to the coffee shop for
A. Getting relaxed. B. Doing his work. C. Meeting Sarah.
7. What is John’s favorite coffee
A. Cappuccino. B. Espresso. C. Latte.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What does the man want to do with the broken chairs
A. Return them. B. Replace them. C. Repair them.
9. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Co-workers.
B. Manager and clerk.
C. Shop owner and customer.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What did Chris do at a school event today
A. He wrote a report.
B. He took part in dances.
C. He exchanged presents with others.
11. What does Chris dislike most about today’s event
A. The strange host.
B. The follow-up task.
C. The students’ performance.
12. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a dance studio. B. At school. C. At home.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Which country was the woman’s starting point of the journey
A. Russia. B. Mongolia. C. China.
14. How many people were there on the trip
A. 10. B. 11. C. 13.
15. What did the woman see in Siberia
A. Animals. B. Trees. C. Rivers.
16. What is said about the woman
A. She rode a camel on the trip.
B. She caught several fish in China.
C. She ate noodles on the train.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Who is probably the speaker
A. A freshman. B. A teacher. C. A former graduate student.
18. What is the speaker doing
A. She’s giving a speech. B. She’s teaching a lesson. C. She’s making a report.
19. What should the students do at college according to the speaker
A. Live a healthy lifestyle.
B. Form their own clubs.
C. Prepare for their future careers.
20. What does the speaker advise the listeners to do
A. Go on journeys.
B. Develop their own personalities.
C. Don’t join too many clubs.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
2024 British Day Needs Volunteers!
The British Day has become an important part of the annual grand events in Guangdong Province since 2010, which welcomes friends from all over the world. This year’s British Day is themed “Cool Britannia”， taking you on a childhood time machine to explore childhood memories. And here volunteers are needed.
When & Where
Date: Saturday, Nov. 2, 2024, from 11:00 AM to 5:00 PM.
Location: Zhujiang New Town, Tianhe District, Guangzhou City.
Who to apply
Mainly for college students studying in the Greater Bay Area who
* are eager to spread Chinese and foreign cultures;
* have good oral English communication skills and experience in volunteering for large outdoor activities;
* have a strong sense of responsibility and teamwork.
What to gain
* The experience of cultural exchanges between China and the UK;
* The opportunity to improve your oral English;
* Volunteer certificates（证书）( in Chinese and English) and thank-you letters;
* A limited-edition T-shirt of British Day as a souvenir.
What to do
Volunteers will handle different tasks.
Group 1: Handle on-site ticketing, event layout and material sorting.
Group 2: Offer event guidance to guests. Answer questions from stall owners and guests.
Group 3: Assist stage activities like performances to ensure smooth progress.
Group 4: Aid in charity raffle（慈善抽奖） ticket sales, including introducing activities and sorting prizes.
How to apply
Please send your resume（简历） with a simple self-introduction to events @ before 12: 00 noon, Beijing time on Oct. 22, 2024.Volunteers successfully selected will be informed by phone and email before Oct. 24. Volunteers who have been accepted but are unable to participate due to personal reasons must apply to the organizer at least five days in advance.
Come and join us!
21. What can guests do on this year’s British Day
A. Take on a time machine.
B. Visit the British cities.
C. Interview some volunteers.
D. Experience childhood happiness again.
22. Who are most likely to be accepted as volunteers for the event
A. High school students in Guangzhou who are good at oral English.
B. Students of Shenzhen University who often go to outdoor community services.
C. Professionals in Guangzhou who try to promote the cultural exchanges.
D. British college students who love Chinese culture and speak Chinese fluently.
23. Which statement is TRUE according to the passage
A. Volunteers are required to work more than 8 hours for the event.
B. Volunteers will gain a common T-shirt as a present.
C. Volunteers will all have to offer event guidance to guests.
D. Volunteers unable to serve the event should inform the organizer before Oct.28,2024.
B
When Heman Bekele was 6, he got a chemistry set for Christmas. He used it to mix up “potions（魔水）”. Back then, only his parents paid attention. Now, in 2024, at 15, Heman is used to a lot more people watching his work.
In October 2023, 3M and Discovery Education named Heman the winner of their Young Scientist Challenge. His prize: $25,000. His accomplishment: inventing a soap that could one day treat and prevent some forms of skin cancer.
It could take years before the soap is available to customers. But Heman, a 10th grader at Woodson High, is determined. Over the summer, he spent every weekday in a lab at the Johns Hopkins Bloomberg School of Public Health. When he goes back to school this fall, he’ ll be at the lab less often. But he’ ll stick to his dream and try hard to make it come true.
Heman was born in Africa. He remembers seeing people in Africa working in the hot sun without protection for their skin. Because of that, some of them developed skin cancer, a disease caused by too much exposure（暴露） to the sun. Treating the cancer is costly, about $40,000. Heman wondered if there was a cheaper way for people to deal with the disease. He thought of adding a skin-cancer medicine called imiquimod to a bar of soap. “What is one thing that everyone can use ” Heman recalls thinking. “Everyone uses soap and water for cleaning. So soap would probably be the best option.”
Heman needed help to bring his idea to life. In 2023, he came across the 3M Challenge and submitted a video explaining his idea. Soon, he received an invitation to the company’s headquarters. He spoke in front of a panel of judges. That day, he was named the winner. Since then, Heman has been working on developing his idea and some adult experts are guiding him, saying he’s passionate and inspiring.
24. Why did Heman win the Young Scientist Challenge
A. He discovered a new chemical element.
B. He invented a soap that could prevent skin cancer.
C. He created a potion to cure common illnesses.
D. He developed a sunscreen with long-lasting effects.
25. Why did Heman view soap as the best choice for his invention
A. Because it was a common item people often use.
B. Because he had a personal interest in making soap.
C. Because he wanted to target a specific group of people.
D. Because he believed in the healing function of soap.
26. What is TRUE about Heman’s experience at the 3M company’s headquarters
A. He was not well-prepared in front of the judges.
B. It offered him a chance to explain his idea online.
C. It was pretty challenging but rewarding in the end.
D. His parents kept him company throughout the event.
27. What is the significance（意义） of Heman’s invention based on his personal background
A. It shows his love for skin care.
B. It shows his interest in the beauty industry.
C. It shows his commitment to environmental protection.
D. It shows his desire to contribute to African community.
C
Ramona is only seven years old, but her paintings sell for around US $2,000 dollars each. That is a good price, especially since each painting takes her no more than 10 minutes.
She doesn’t paint the same subjects as the average 7-year-old girl, either. There are no pictures of Mummy and Daddy, or her friends or school. Ramona prefers abstract（抽象的） art. She does not paint the real world. Instead, she paints her feelings about it in broad sweeps of bright colour. In fact, Ramona is an elephant.
Ramona is not the only artist at the Elephant Safari Park on the Indonesian island of Bali, or in Asia as a whole. Art comes naturally to them, “For many years, zookeepers have known that elephants both in zoos and in the wild will pick up sticks and doodle in the dirt,” says Mia Fineman, an art historian from New York and author of the book “When Elephants Paint”.
Mia Fineman says that elephants from different parts of Asia have different styles. Those from central Thailand, for example, prefer cool, dark colours like blue and green. “When I view a painting, I can usually tell what region it’s from, and which elephant created it,” she says.
Elephant art first appeared in 1997, when two Russian conceptual artists first had the idea of encouraging elephants to paint. For them, the art lay in the idea of elephants painting, rather than in the paintings themselves.
Over time, people have come to enjoy the elephant art for itself. No one will put Ramona and her friends in the same category（类别） as famous painters like Rembrandt or Picasso. But their works are not just random brush strokes, either. Elephants are known to be sensitive and thoughtful creatures. There is no reason why they should not express their feelings about the world around them and what the human race has done to the world.
We may one day come to understand the meaning of elephant art. But will we like what it has to say about us
28. The underlined word “doodle” in paragraph 3 probably means “______”.
A. fight fearlessly B. draw roughly C. walk carelessly D. play happily
29. Why did the two Russian artists encourage elephants to paint
A. They thought the act of elephant painting was an art.
B. Elephants could express their feelings about the world.
C. Elephants’ paintings were worth a lot of money.
D. Lost elephants could be found because of their paintings.
30. What does the writer think of clephant art
A. Elephant art can equal human art.
B. Paintings by elephants are meaningless.
C. Much remains to be discovered about elephant art.
D. It is impossible to discover what elephant art means.
31. What does the passage mainly talk about
A. A new way of making money.
B. An advanced method of training elephants.
C. Different lifestyles of elephants in parks.
D. The amazing art of elephants’ paintings.
D
Joyce Loaiza lives alone in a community for older people in the American state of Florida. When she is home, the retired office worker often talks in a friendly female voice that asks about her day. A few kilometers away, the same voice helped 83-year-old Deanna Dezern when her friend died. In New York state, it plays games and music for92-year-old Marie Broadbent. And in Washington state, it helps 83-year-old Jan Worrell make new friends.
The women are some of the first in the United States to receive the robot ElliQ made by Intuition Robotics. The company and other officials say it is the only device（设备） using artificial intelligence(AI) to help older Americans from loneliness.
The device looks like a small table light, which has an eyeless, mouthless head that lights up and turns. It remembers each user’s interests and their talks, helping create a special experience with each new discussion. It can be as deep as the meaning of life or as light as a small joke.
ElliQ also plays music and provides creative or encouraging sayings. On a video screen that comes with it, it will show different cities and places of interest. The device leads exercises, asks about the owner’s health, and gives reminders to take medicines and drink water. It can also support video calls and contact family, friends, or doctors in an emergency.
Intuition Robotics says none of the conversations are heard by the company, with the information staying on each owner’s device.
Charlotte Mather-Taylor is director of the Broward County, Florida, Area Agency on Aging. She said the COVID-19 pandemic and its following results left many older people more disconnected. Her agency has provided 300 ElliQs which, she believes, help the situation. She said, “We’ve seen very positive results with it. People generally like her and she makes them smile and brings joy.”
Brigham Young University professor Julianne Holt-Lunstad, who studies the effects of loneliness on health, worries that a device like ElliQ might have short-term helpful effects but it could make people less likely to seek human communication. She told The Associated Press that the difficult feeling of loneliness should push people to reconnect socially.
32. What makes the robot ElliQ unique
A. It is made by Intuition Robotics in America.
B. It can play games and music for the old.
C. It uses AI to help the old fight loneliness.
D. It can talk in a friendly female voice.
33. What do we know about ElliQs
A. They are intelligent and well-rounded women.
B. They can have deep discussions with the owners.
C. They are small table lights with human-like heads.
D. They may send the conversations to the company.
34. What can be inferred from Holt-Lunstad’s comment
A. ElliQs will push more people to reconnect socially.
B. ElliQs make no difference to smoothing out loneliness.
C. ElliQs will have a promising future for their good effects.
D. ElliQs will have less helpful effects in the long term.
35. What’s the main purpose of the passage
A. To introduce a special AI device.
B. To show us how to operate a new device.
C. To offer some advice on removing loneliness.
D. To call for more care for the old.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Being Your Best Self
You may anxiously want to be your best self. And here is how.
Live according to your personal values.
Ignoring your core beliefs can make you feel distressed（极为苦恼的） or conflicted. Discover your personal values by listing the things important to you, identifying times you’ve felt truly happy, and deciding your desire in life. For instance, you might value helping others and being creative. 36 .
Do at least one activity you enjoy every day.
Schedule time every day to do something that makes you feel happy. This can help you enjoy life more and become your best self.
37
It’s easier to feel happy if you’ re proud of who you are, and knowing your strengths can help. Your strengths might include things like solving math problems, writing, singing, or competing in athletics. Additionally, you might have interpersonal skills, analytical skills, or critical thinking skills. 38 Make a list of your talents, skills, and knowledge. Then, review it often to help you remember how awesome you are.
Work on improving your weaknesses so you can overcome them.
39 If they trouble you, try to improve them by learning new skills or trying something different, like starting a workout program to improve the fitness level you are unhappy with. In time, you might be able to improve yourself.
Express your emotions so they don’t get piled up.
Your feelings are super important. Ignoring them can actually make them worse. 40 Here are some options: talk to someone, write a journal, do something creative or exercise.
A. List your skills to solve your problems.
B. Instead, choose a healthy way to let them out.
C. These emotions will greatly increase your pressure.
D. Recognize your strengths to help you have self-confidence.
E. So you may choose a job in nursing and paint as a hobby.
F. Everyone has shortcomings, so don’t feel bad about yours.
G. Similarly, you might be very creative or enjoy teaming with people.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My senior year of high school looks a lot different now than it did just a few short months ago.
I am 17 and have competed at the sport’s highest levels. I was looking forward to continuing my athletic career in college, but on September 20, 2021, my world 41 in an instant.
I was 42 for the coming homecoming pep rally（赛前动员会） at a friend’s house when one of my flips（空翻） went 43 and I landed directly on my neck and face. I was fully conscious（神志清醒的） as I 44 in the grass and 45 that I couldn’t feel my arms and legs. I was rushed to the hospital. When I awoke, 46 warned me that most people who suffer this sort of injury never 47 again, but I 48 to believe them!
I never 49 smiling. My athleticism（体育才能） has helped me fully focus on my 50 , and I make up my mind to 51 the doctors are wrong and get back to walking on my own two feet. I also hope to help people know about what it’s like to 52 a severe injury, so I 53 my recovery on social media. By 54 my struggles and victories, I hope to touch the hearts of others who are going through a 55 time in their lives.
41. A. ended B. happened C. continued D. changed
42. A. resting B. writing C. practising D. finishing
43. A. bad B. wrong C. blank D. crazy
44. A. lay B. played C. rolled D. moved
45. A. realized B. thought C. hoped D. regretted
46. A. doctors B. parents C. friends D. teachers
47. A. run B. jump C. stand D. walk
48. A. failed B. refused C. decided D. aimed
49. A. remember B. stop C. enjoy D. risk
50. A. experiment B. mind C. recovery D. task
51. A. show B. find C. doubt D. accept
52.A. come up with B. catch up with C. live with D. connect with
53. A. record B. reflect C. seek D. get
54. A. learning B. judging C. sharing D. explaining
55. A. useful B. familiar C. regular D. tough
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Nov. 22, 2023, just before turning 20, Ji Xiaoming received a letter from Cao Yajun, a girl from a middle school in Daye, Hubei province.
The girl was one of the 526 middle school students in Daye 56 took part in a charity project focused on providing psychological（心理的） support to children in the countryside. Lin Lusheng, the project director, 57 (stress) that teenagers in the project are at an age when they begin to meet pressure and go through typical psychological changes. “But many children are less likely 58 (share) their feelings with adults such as parents or teachers, which, if ignored, can lead to psychological problems,” he added. According to him, 80 to 90 percent of the 59 (volunteer) of the project are university students in their 20s.
In Cao’s letter, she mentioned feelings overcome by schoolwork, asked about 60 (effect) study methods, and was curious about university life. Ji sincerely responded 61 the letter, sharing details about her educational experiences and university life. Upon 62 (receive) Ji’s reply, Cao was overjoyed. “She described university life as so colorful and inspiring. It 63 (definite) really encourages me to study hard and struggle for my dream university,” she said. So far, the project 64 (offer) letter companionship services to rural children from 1,217 schools across the country, including nine schools in Daye, exchanging 65 total of 1.42 million letters.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （满分15分）
假定你是李华，你的英国朋友 Chris在新学校与新同学相处不愉快，很烦恼。他发来邮件询问你的建议。请你用英文给他回复，内容包括：
1.表明目的；
2.表示理解；
3.提出建议（至少三条）。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Chris, Hearing that you have difficulty getting along well with your new classmates, ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Yours, Li Hua
第二节 （满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The smallest loaf of bread
Once there was a serious shortage（短缺，不足） of food in the town. A rich and kind baker called all the poorest children in town to his bakery（面包店） and gave one loaf of bread to each of them and told them to come back every day for bread until the hard days ended.
Rather than being thankful for the baker’s kindness, many of the children fought over who would get the largest loaf. They complained, were bitter（愤愤不平的） about their present situation, and were just out for what they could get.
However, among the crowd was a neatly dressed little girl who had a different attitude. Day after day, patiently, she waited for the others to stop fighting, and she gratefully took the smallest loaf. Then, she thanked the baker and happily brought the loaf home to share with her family.
One day, while slicing（把……切成薄片） the bread, her mother found several silver coins inside the loaf. Quite surprised, she showed her daughter what she had discovered in the bread.
The next day, as usual, the children went back to the bakery. Some impatient children couldn’t wait to get the bread. Some kept their eyes on the big loaf. Still others were making a noise, taking the baker’s kindness and generosity for granted. The little girl also returned. Holding out the palm of her hand, the girl showed the silver coins to the baker and said, “Sir, we found your money inside the loaf of bread that you so generously gave to us. You must have accidentally dropped the coins while you were baking the loaf.” This somehow didn’t surprise the baker. He got closer to the little girl smilingly and said lovingly, “No, no, my child. I did not make a mistake.” Hearing this, the crowd were curious about what would happen and began to quiet down.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
“Keep the money. This is a reward for you!” the baker added. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ Moved by the girl’s story, the children lowered their heads in shame. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024年秋季高一期中联考
英语参考答案
题序 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
答案 B B A B B A B A C B B C A B B
题序 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 C C A C C D B D B A C D B A C
题序 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
答案 D C B D A E D G F B D C B A A
题序 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
答案 A D B B C A C A C D
21. D。细节理解题。由首段中的“taking you on a childhood time machine to explore childhood memories（让你乘坐童年的时光机，再次探索童年的记忆）”可知。
22. B。细节理解题。由 Who to apply部分中的“Mainly for college students studying in the Greater Bay Area（主要为大湾区的大学生）”及“have good oral English communication skills and experience in volunteering for large outdoor activities”可知。
23. D。细节理解题。由最后一段中的“Volunteers who have been accepted but are unable to participate due to personal reasons must apply to the organizer at least five days in advance.”可知，必须提前五天告知负责人，故选 D。由文中 Date 部分中的“from 11:00 AM to 5:00 PM”可知，工作时间为6小时，排除选项A; 由文中“A limited-edition T-shirt of British Day as a souvenir（限定版T恤作纪念物）”可排除选项 B；由文中 What to do 部分中的“Volunteers will handle different tasks.”及“Group 2: Offer event guidance to guests.”可知，给客人提供引导仅是第二组的任务，排除选项C。
【语篇解读】本文介绍了少年科学家 Heman Bekele 发明了一种能预防和治疗某些皮肤癌的肥皂，赢得了3M和 Discovery Education的 Young Scientist Challenge，并获得了25000美元奖金的故事。
24. B。细节理解题。题干意为：为什么 Heman 赢得了 Young Scientist Challenge的比赛 根据第二段中的“His accomplishment: inventing a soap that could one day treat and prevent some forms of skin cancer”可知，答案为 B项。
25. A。推理判断题。题干意为：为什么 Heman将肥皂作为他发明的最佳选择 根据第四段中的“Everyone uses soap and water for cleaning. So soap would probably be the best option.”可知， Heman 选择肥皂是因为它是一种人们常用的生活物品。故选A项。
26. C。推理判断题。题干意为：关于 Heman在3M公司总部的经历哪一项是正确的 根据最后一段可知，他先提交了视频解释自己的创意，然后被邀请到3M公司总部并在评委组面前发表演讲，这对一个十几岁的少年来说无疑是充满挑战的，但是他最后成功获得了奖金，结果是值得的。故选C项。
27. D。推理判断题。题干意为：基于 Heman的成长背景，他的发明的意义是什么 根据第四段可知他出生在非洲，看到非洲同胞由于过多地暴露在太阳下而患上皮肤癌，但治疗费用昂贵，他想要通过发明一种肥皂来改善这种状况，因此选择D选项：他想为非洲社会做出贡献。
【语篇解读】本文为说明文。作者首先以大象 Ramona为例，介绍了大象绘画这一奇特现象，也提出了让读者思考的问题。
28. B。词义理解题。根据第三段画线词前的“Art comes naturally to them”以及第六段中的“But their works are not just random brush strokes, either”可知 doodle与绘画有关。
29. A。细节理解题。根据第五段中的“For them, the art lay in the idea of elephants painting（对于两位艺术家而言，艺术在于大象绘画这个想法）”可知。
30. C。推理判断题。依据最后一段可知答案。A项意为：大象艺术可以与人类艺术媲美。与原文第六段二句（没人会把 Ramona和她的伙伴们的作品与著名的画家伦勃朗和毕加索的作品归为一类。）不符。
31. D。主旨大意题。根据全文可知，作者以大象 Ramona为例，介绍了神奇的大象绘画。
【语篇解读】本文是一篇说明文，题材为科技与生活。本文主要介绍了一款设备——机器人ElliQ。ElliQ的特殊之处在于它是唯一一款使用人工智能来帮助美国老年人对抗孤独的设备。
32. C。细节理解题。根据第二段中的“The company and other officials say it is the only device（设备） using artificial intelligence(AI) to help older Americans from loneliness.”可知，机器人ElliQ是唯一一款使用AI技术来帮助美国老年人摆脱孤独的设备。由此可知，ElliQ的特殊之处在于它能够运用人工智能与老人交流来帮助老年人对抗孤独。故选C项。
33. B。推理判断题。根据第三段中的“It can be as deep as the meaning of life or as light as a small joke.”可知，ElliQ可以与主人进行讨论，话题可以像生命的意义一样深刻，也可以像一个小笑话一样轻松，故选 B项。A项：它们是智能、全面的女性；C项：它们是人头形状的小台灯；D项：它们可以把谈话内容发送给公司。这三项均与原文描述不符。
34. D。推理判断题。根据第七段中的“a device like ElliQ might have short-term helpful effects but it could make people less likely to seek human communication”可知，像ElliQ这样的设备确实会产生一些短期的有益效果，但它可能会使人们不太可能寻求人类交流。由此推知，从长远来看，它帮助效果不大，故选D项。A项：ElliQs将会促使更多的人重新建立社交联系；B项：ElliQs对人类抵抗孤独没有任何作用；C项：由于良好的效果，ElliQs前景将会很好。这三项均与原文描述不符。
35. A。推理判断题。文章第一到第五段主要介绍机器人设备 ElliQ的功能，即使用人工智能帮助美国老年人摆脱孤独。最后两段分别介绍了佛罗里达州布劳沃德县老龄化地区机构的主任 Charlotte Mather-Taylor 和杨百翰大学教授 Julianne Holt-Lunstad对这款设备的看法。由此推知，本文的主要写作目的是介绍一款特殊的人工智能设备。
36. E。选项E中的“nursing”为帮助别人的职业， “paint”为体现创造性的爱好，与前一句“For instance, you might value helping others and being creative.”形成对应。
37. D。从文章结构可知此处应为本段小标题，应对应选择祈使句。本段内容主要讲认识自己的优势会让自己“proud of who you are”和“remember how awesome you are”，由此可知，应选D:“意识到你自己的优势可以帮助你获得自信”。
38. G。本段讲要认识自己的优势，然后列举了一些优势并且最后一句进行总结，可推知此句也应该是并列的优势。
39. F。此段小标题中的关键词“weaknesses”意为“缺点，不足”，与选项F中的“shortcomings”为同义替换，且作为段首句，承接小标题展开叙述。
40. B。前文说忽略情绪会适得其反，由此可知应该要释放情绪即“let them out”，并且后文“Here are some options ...”举例给出具体的释放方式。
【语篇解读】作者在一次赛前训练中因动作失误受了伤，医生们提醒作者，她很可能再也不能走路了，但作者从来都不相信这一点，她下定决心证明医生说的是错的。
41. D。根据上文可知，作者在高中阶段参加过体育比赛，在大学想继续她的运动生涯，但是在2021年9月20日这一天她的世界瞬间改变了。
42. C。根据下文的“coming”和“flips（空翻）”可知，比赛还没有进行，所以作者在朋友家为即将到来的比赛进行练习。
43. B。根据空后的“I landed directly on my neck and face”可知，作者落地的姿势不对，即动作环节出问题了。 go wrong意为“出现问题；出故障”。
44. A。根据上文可知，作者脸部着地，由此可推知，作者当时应是在草地上躺着，等待救援。
45. A。根据下文可知，作者意识到感觉不到自己的手和脚。
46. A。根据上文可知，作者受了伤，被立即送到了医院，故作者醒来后应是医生们告知她的受伤情况。
47. D。根据下文可知， 作者下定决心要证明医生们的提醒是错误的——回到能用两条腿走路的状态，可知医生告知作者大多受过这种伤的人再也不能走路了。
48. B。根据下文可知，作者下定决心要恢复到能用腿走路的状态，拒绝相信医生。
49. B。根据下文可知，作者对体育运动的热爱使作者能够完全专注于自己的康复，持有一种积极乐观的态度，故作者从未停止微笑。
50. C。根据下文“walking on my own two feet”可知，作者一直相信自己可以恢复到用腿走路的状态。
51. A。根据下文可知，作者下定决心要恢复到能用腿走路的状态，要证明医生们是错误的。
52. C。作者想让人们了解忍受严重的伤痛的生活是什么样的。
53. A。根据上文可知，作者想让人们了解自己忍受伤痛的生活，所以作者记录下了自己康复的过程。
54. C。根据语境并结合选项可知，作者希望通过分享自己与伤痛的斗争和胜利来帮助其他人。
55. D。作者希望触动那些在生活中经历困难的人的内心。
【语篇解读】本文主要讲述了一个慈善项目中的大学生志愿者与高中生结对，给其提供心理支持。
56. who/ that。考查定语从句。设空处为引导定语从句的关系词，先行词是 students。关系词在定语从句中作主语，指人，故填关系代词 who/ that。
57. stressed。考查谓语动词的时态。根据第58题后面的“he added”可知，本题与之时态一样，所以使用一般过去时。
58. to share。考查非谓语动词。此空前面出现“many children are less likely”，根据 likely的用法可知，此空应填动词不定式。
59. volunteers。考查名词单复数。根据本句中的“80 to 90 percent of the 59 (volunteer)”可知，本空应使用名词的复数形式。
60. effective。考查词性转换。根据本空后的“study methods”可知此空填形容词修饰名词。
61. to。考查介词。 respond to the letter, 意思是“回信”。
62. receiving。考查非谓语动词。本空前面是介词 upon；介词后面的动词使用-ing形式。
63. definitely。考查词性转换。本空修饰动词 encourages，作状语，使用其副词形式，故填 definitely。
64. has offered。考查谓语动词的时态。本句有时间状语 So far，所以应该使用现在完成时；主语是 the project，为单数，故填 has offered。
65. a。考查冠词。短语 a total of, 意思是“总计”。
第四部分
第一节
【参考范文】
Dear Chris,
Hearing that you have difficulty getting along well with your new classmates, I am writing to offer you my suggestions.
I definitely understand your feelings, but cheer up. It’s time to find an opportunity to have a full and frank talk with them face to face and be sure to explain how you feel. Friendships are like flowers which need to be taken good care of, so you should be friendlier and always be a good listener. It’s natural that you sometimes disagree with your new classmates, but you need to respect different opinions. Last but not least, it might be a good idea to always support your new classmates through thick and thin.
Hopefully you’ll find these ideas helpful.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节
【参考范文】
“Keep the money. This is a reward for you!” the baker added. “A reward for me ” the girl was quite surprised. All these days, she was deeply grateful to the baker for his generosity and understanding. Now she wondered why she deserved the “reward”. Noticing her hesitation, the baker patted her on the head kindly, saying, “You are always kind, patient and grateful. You know good things often come to those who can wait and be thankful. You are worth it.” With these words, he gently took the girl to the front and patiently explained to the kids what had happened.
Moved by the girl’s story, the children lowered their heads in shame. Everything began to change. They waited in line. There were no more complaints, arguments or fighting for the largest loaf. Every kid took the bread politely and offered thanks to the baker. What a heart-warming scene! The little girl, with her quiet grace, had become a symbol of hope and a reminder that even in the most challenging times, virtues like patience, gratitude, and honesty could lead to unexpected blessings.
【文本解读】这篇文章的核心内容是一个面包师对一个小女孩的奖励。小女孩因为耐心、感恩和善待他人而得到了面包师的赏识。面包师在面包中放入银币，而小女孩发现了这些银币后，并没有私自留下，而是将它们归还给了面包师。
这个故事强调了耐心和感恩的重要性，以及善行会得到回报的主题。同时我们也了解到，即使在贫穷和困难的环境中，保持友好、积极和感恩的态度仍然能够带来良好的结果。
这个故事的续写强调了小女孩的行为如何影响了周围的人，以及面包师如何利用这个机会教育孩子们关于分享、等待、善待他人和感恩的重要性。
【写作要点】
第一段：根据首句关键词“reward”、原文第二段中的“thankul … kindness … complained …”以及第三段中的“had a different attitude ... patiently ... gratefully ... happily ... share ...”等伏笔，可知本段要写小女孩的优秀品质，如 kindness, patience, gratefulness等。但要特别注意， honesty不能作为“reward”的原因。同时，结合第二段首句可知，本段要写小女孩的言行举止影响到了周围的人。
第二段：根据首句关键词“Moved”“shame”可知，本段可结合孩子们的心理、动作、表情来描写孩子们受到触动之后的变化，并与文中的伏笔形成呼应，然后自然升华主题和感悟。
听力材料
Text 1
M: Tom wanted to become a singer, right
W: Actually, he hoped to be a writer, because he always had a lot of ideas to share. But now he aims to be a librarian. He enjoys reading and organizing books.
Text 2
W: Ryan, were you born in Seattle
M: Yep, I finished primary school there. Then my parents moved to Shanghai. And they have lived there ever since. I now live alone in Los Angeles, and I will pay them a visit next month.
Text 3
M: I feel like choosing Mrs. Johnson’s course. I heard she would ask many questions in class.
W: I signed up for her lessons last term. Though the lessons weren’t relaxing, my progress last term was satisfactory.
Text 4
W: Todd, what’s your typical day at university like
M: Well, I usually get up around 8:00 a. m. My first class starts at 9:10 a. m. It lasts an hour. And I have lunch with my roommates, usually after 11:00 a. m.
Text 5
W: Is there anything I can do for you Maybe bring you some novels to pass the time in the hospital
M: That’s really sweet of you. Actually, I would appreciate it if you helped me with my English homework.
W: Sure. Which unit have you studied, by the way
Text 6
M: Hi, Sarah. I’ve heard a lot about your work. Do you come here often
W: Thanks, John! Not really, but I love the atmosphere. So, what brings you here
M: I’m feeling burnt-out at work. It’s good to have such a quiet coffee shop to relax.
W: It is! I come here to escape the busy life sometimes. I heard they have the best cappuccino here.
M: Yes. By the way, what’s your favorite coffee
W: Oh, I’m a fan of latte. How about you
M: Espresso all the way. It can clear my mind.
Text 7
M: Good afternoon. I’ve received the 20 chairs I ordered here, but the legs of four chairs are broken.
W: Sorry. I’m afraid there must be a problem with the delivery. Would you like me to change them
M: No, that’s not necessary. Actually, I bought two spare chairs at first. And two of my colleagues quit this month. So 16 new chairs are enough. My manager wants me to ask for the return of the four broken chairs.
W: I see. As soon as we receive the four broken chairs, we’ll give your money back to your account.
M: OK. Thank you.
Text 8
W: Hi, Chris. How was school
M: Well, today we had an event that was quite an adventure.
W: Oh What happened
M: It was a “Cultural Exchange Day” when students from different countries presented their cultures.
W: That’s cool.
M: Well, the unexpected part was that the host asked us to take part in traditional dances from every culture.
W: That does sound a bit out of the common.
M: I tried to go along with it, but I couldn’t shake off the feeling of discomfort. And the worst part is that now I have to write a summary of what I’ve seen today.
W: I suppose that could not be too hard.
M: That’s not the point. I have already had enough homework to finish.
W: Don’t worry. I will accompany you. There is no hurry to make dinner.
Text 9
M: I heard that you took a train journey.
W: Yes, I started from Russia, travelled through Mongolia, and ended up in China.
M: Wow! That was a long way!
W: Yes, it was. It took three weeks. I went on a tour with ten other friends. It did cost a lot of money, but it was worth it.
M: Cool! What was the landscape like
W: Much of what we saw was flatland, mile after mile. As we reached Siberia, we saw many trees. When we got to Mongolia, we caught sight of some camels and winding rivers every once in a while.
M: So what did you eat during the trip
W: We stopped several times along the way and bought food that the local people were selling— dried fish and other types of Russian food. And we ate instant noodles on the train.
Text 10
W: Good morning! On behalf of the whole university, it is with great pleasure that I give a warm welcome to all the new faces joining our university. Congratulations on starting this exciting journey of higher education in Florida! Although I graduated one year ago, I clearly remember how curious and excited I was on my first day here. The university is not just a place for learning. It is more of a place for establishing relationships and is the stepping stone to your future career. Around the campus, you will discover lots of knowledge waiting to be explored. Choose a club that interests you the most, but you don’t need to join too many. Professors and classmates will become your guides. Remember, every challenge is an opportunity to broaden your views. Our university is full of various cultures, ideas and talents. Embrace this colorful college life, for it enriches your knowledge and prepares you for the global challenges ahead. Welcome to the university where your journey of knowledge and self-discovery begins.