2024~2025学年度第一学期高一期中考试
英语试题
考生注意：
1.满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2.考生作答时，请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效，在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
3.本卷命题范围:北师大版必修第一册 Unit 1— Unit 3( lesson 2)。
第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. How does Mike probably feel now
A. Happy. B. Worried. C. Angry.
2. What is the man probably
A. A manager. B. A doctor. C. A student.
3. How does the woman usually go to work
A. By bus. B. By car. C. On foot.
4. What will the speakers do this weekend
A. Go to a new restaurant. B. Watch a French movie. C. Stay at home.
5. When will the speakers probably study together
A. At four o’clock. B. At six o’clock. C. At eight o’clock.
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the woman doing
A. Reading a story. B. Writing a story. C. Listening to a story.
7. What will the woman do next probably
A. Talk with her teacher.
B. Invite the man to dinner.
C. Tell the man the storyline.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What did the man do yesterday
A. He went to the history museum.
B. He signed up for the painting courses.
C. He did some shopping online.
9. When will the man go to the store
A. This Tuesday. B. This weekend. C. Next week.
10. Why does the woman advise the man to go to the store
A. The prices of paintbrushes are low.
B. It’s near the man’s house.
C. There are many kinds of paintbrushes.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What do we know about the woman
A. She enjoys sharing.
B. She often sings songs.
C. She likes listening to music.
12. What is the disadvantage of the apartment
A. It shares several walls with neighbors.
B. It is on the top floor.
C. It isn’t big enough.
13. What does the woman ask about the apartment at last
A. Its address. B. Its size. C. Its price.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. How old is Jane
A.21. B.24. C.25.
15. What is the relationship between Jane and James
A. Mother and son. B. Husband and wife. C. Sister and brother.
16. What can we know about Tina
A. She has got a new job.
B. She loves playing the piano.
C. She will graduate this June.
17. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. The weather. B. Their travel experiences. C. Their family members.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. When did the speaker return to the United States
A. In 1993. B. In 1999. C. In 2006.
19. What did the speaker major in at university
A. PE. B. Japanese. C. Spanish education.
20. Where does the speaker live now
A. In Japan. B. In the United States. C. In Venezuela.
第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
People usually celebrate their traditional festival. The Spring Festival is celebrated not only in China but also in other parts of the world. The traditional holiday is the most important to Chinese both at home and abroad.
the United Kingdom(UK)
Celebrations for Spring Festival in the UK started in 1980, with the first evening party held in 2002. Every New Year, people get together and have a lot of activities. They sing songs, dance to music, share photos with friends or enjoy films in a cinema.
the United States(US)
Spring Festival is an important time for Chinese living or working in the US. They join ina large evening party to welcome the traditional New Year. It is a good chance for people to feel that they are not alone because they share the same culture.
Australia
On Chinese New Year, many people across Australia come to Sydney’s Chinatown. They enjoy fireworks, lion dances, dragon boat races and many other traditional activities. The celebrations are also a bridge towards better understanding between Chinese and non-Chinese.
Singapore
The family dinner on New Year’s Eve is an important tradition for Chinese. They put traditional food on a table as an act of remembering their past. Then the whole family enjoys their dinner together. They usually have it at home because having it in a restaurant takes away the meaning of the tradition.
21. Chinese in Australia enjoy the following activities except ______ on Chinese New Year.
A. fireworks B. lion dances
C. playing cards D. dragon boat races
22. Why do Chinese families in Singapore have the New Year dinner at home
A. The restaurant is far away. B. They want to keep Chinese tradition.
C. Eating at home helps save money. D. They were born in Singapore.
23. What can we learn from the text
A. All parts of the world celebrate Spring Festival.
B. Chinese New Year is celebrated only in China.
C. Only four foreign countries celebrate Chinese Spring Festival.
D. Chinese around the world have a strong feeling towards Spring Festival.
B
A bunch of strangers showed up at the gym in the early morning of the last Sunday of April. A few athletes were already stretching(拉伸) their arms, but most of us could barely focus. As I was burning off last night’s wrong decision-a big meal, I spotted a poster about a gym’s 21-day workout challenge, and I immediately signed up. I always wanted to train fora marathon, so I considered this as my warm-up. Besides, I needed to stop being lazy and this was my chance to make a change.
It was easy to promise on paper, but three weeks of recommended exercise routines and diet restrictions(限制) wouldn’t be easy. I stuck to working out 30 minutes a day, and I didn’t disturb(干扰) my normal routine. Instead, I had to be faced with the tough work of being more creative in my spare time, thus breaking some bad habits.
Overcoming weaknesses with willpower was my goal for the next part of the journey. But the difficult part about making a challenge is realizing that “wanting” and “doing” are two very different things. Just like a career, you have to physically work for it rather than just wait for it to happen. But that’s hard. Throughout the 21 days, I often told myself that the challenge was meaningless and tried to sabotage myself from exercising. However, finally I overcame that negative thought and kept working out.
At the end of the challenge, I learned something even more important: Feeling the results is better than seeing them. I had fewer headaches and more energy, and was simply happier. I even felt a little smarter as I researched which foods were better for my body, and learned how to make healthier meals. I felt a sense of accomplishment(成就), too, because even though I wanted to give up dozens of times, I didn’t. I felt my waist got smaller and my arms got stronger, and I no longer felt guilty after having a piece of cake or a drink.
24. What was the author’s wrong decision
A. Going to the gym early.
B. Training for a marathon.
C. Eating a lot the previous night.
D. Stopping being lazy for a change.
25. What does paragraph 2 mainly talk about
A. Some of the author’s bad habits.
B. Some ways of the author’s killing his spare time.
C. The importance of sticking to the normal daily routine.
D. The difficulty of the author’s keeping on with the workout plan.
26. What does the underlined word “sabotage” in paragraph 3 probably mean
A. stop B. hear C. improve D. recognize
27. What did the author learn from the workout challenge
A. Eating healthy food is more important than exercising.
B. Overcoming a challenge could bring good feelings to him.
C. It’s more important to see what he likes than just feel it.
D. There was no need to feel guilty about things he disliked to do.
C
The capital of France-Paris, also has a traffic problem like all big cities: lots of cars, lots of traffic jams and lots of pollution from exhaust fumes(废气). So the city began a scheme(计划) to improve the situation.
Under the Velib scheme (“Velib” comes from vélo liberté, or “bicycle freedom”) people can take a bicycle, use it for as long as they want, and then leave it at the same or another bicycle station. The first half-hour on the bike is free, but if you don’t return it after 30 minutes, you have to pay. But it’s only ? 1 a day or ?29 a year! The bicycles are heavy(25kg), and they are all grey and have baskets. There are about 20,000 of them in the city, and around 1,450 bicycle stations. So there are a lot more Velib stations than the 298 subway stations!
Paris is not the first city to have a scheme like this. But not everybody thinks it’s a great idea. One Parisian said, “These bicycles are only for short journeys. If people want to travel across the city, they won’t use a bicycle— they’ll still use their cars.”
A city spokesman said, “The bicycle scheme won’t solve all our traffic problems, of course. But it might help reduce air pollution. Traffic, together with factory fumes, is a big problem. There aren’t any simple answers to traffic problems and pollution in cities. But unless we do something now, there will be more traffic jams and temperatures will continue to rise, so the problems in our environment will get worse. The bikes might help people to lead a healthier life, too.”
28. What can we know about the Velib scheme
A. Its bikes have no baskets.
B. Its bikes are light and colorful.
C. It aims to make traveling easier.
D. It owns more stations than the subway.
29. How much should you pay for using a Velib for 40 minutes
A.?1. B.?29. C.?30. D. No money.
30. Why do some people disagree with the Velib scheme
A. The cost is rather high.
B. It’s hard to find a Velib station.
C. It’s not suitable for a long journey.
D. The distance between two Velib stations is long.
31. What’s the city spokesman’s attitude towards the bicycle scheme
A. Positive. B. Worried. C. Uncaring. D. Doubtful.
D
The National Health Service(NHS) in England is to pay for 10 people, to whom a“bionic eye” will be implanted(植入). It is a pioneering technology that can help those who have been blind for years to gain some sight.
Only a small number of people have received surgery in trials so far to equip them to use Argus Ⅱ, which uses a camera fixed in a pair of glasses and a tiny computer to send signals directly to the nerves(神经) controlling sight. Those who will get the equipment can currently see nothing more than the difference between daylight and darkness. The system allows the brain to decode(解读) flashes of light, so that they can learn to see movement.
One of three patients who have had the implant into the retina(视网膜) in trails at Manchester Royal Eye Hospital is Keith Hayman, 68, from Lancashire, who has five grandchildren. He was blind in his 20s. The disease causes cells in the retina gradually to stop working and die. Hayman was forced to give up his work. “Having spent half my life in darkness, I can now tell when my grandchildren run towards me and make out lights,” he said. “I would be talking to a friend, who might have walked off and I couldn’t tell and kept talking to myself. This doesn’t happen anymore, because I can tell when they have gone. They may seem like little things, but they make all the difference to me.”
After the surgery, 10 patients will be carefully followed, to gather data on their progress and assess how much the bionic eye improves their daily lives. If the results are good, more patients will be likely to receive the treatment in the future. The “bionic eye” treatment, including surgery, follow-up, equipment and recovery, costs 150,000.
32. What is Argus Ⅱ mainly made up of
A. A camera, a pair of glasses and a bionic eye.
B. The nerves, a pair of glasses and some signals.
C. A camera, a pair of glasses and a tiny computer.
D. A new retina, a flash light and a tiny computer.
33. What does the author want to show by using the example of Hayman
A. Hayman has become a normal person.
B. The retina is necessary for one to see well.
C. Blind people are eager to have a bionic eye.
D. The technology is of great importance to blind people.
34. Why will the 10 blind patients be carefully followed
A. The bionic eye will be improved according to the data.
B. They won’t be used to the bionic eye for some time.
C. They will be in very poor health after the surgery.
D. The exact result of the treatment needs to be known.
35. Which of the following would be the best title for the text
A. A Failure in Treating the Blind People
B.10 Blind Patients Will Be Fitted with a Bionic Eye
C. Blind People’s Daily Lives Improved with a Bionic Eye
D. The NHS in England Cares Much about the Blind People
第二节 (共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Whether you’re a fitness coach or a beginner, making fitness part of your daily life definitely benefits your health and well-being. 36 .
Figure out why you exercise
It means identifying your deeper reason for getting healthy. For example, do you want to be able to keep up with your workout partners or friends Are you sick of being tired all the time in the classroom Do you want more energy and confidence 37 .
Pay attention to your thoughts
38 . They can push you forward when things get tough. Also, they enable you to feel energetic when you achieve your fitness goals. Do you encourage yourself with body positivity or hold yourself back with negativity Changing your mindset could be all it takes to get your health on track.
39
Make sure you have at least 150 minutes of physical activity each week to keep yourself healthy! Break it down to 40 minutes 4 days a week, 30 minutes 5 days a week, or whatever you’d like. Choose what works best for your lifestyle, whether it’s yoga, walking, or anything else that gets your heart rate up.
Keep a fitness diary
Writing down your progress helps you stay connected with yourself during moments of doubt. 40 . At the same time, it makes you clear about what lies ahead if you remain committed(坚定的) over time.
A. Thoughts are powerful
B. Take exercise for at least 150 minutes per week
C. Moreover, it allows you to reflect on your progress
D. Stop forcing yourself to exercise as much as you can
E. Here I share some of the best fitness tips to get you covered
F. Staying in touch with a reason for exercise gives you a sense of purpose
G. By being positive about your body, you will become happier and healthier
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共15 小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Fleanor Love knows that weddings create a lot of leftover flowers. That means more opportunities for her to collect after-wedding bouquets(花束) and give them to her lonely hospital 41 , many of whom don’t often have visitors, let alone expensive 42 .
The flowers are still in good shape, and the patients are happy to have them. “I was so 43 that I cried,” said patient Connie Melzer, who was recovering from a heart problem when Love walked into her room with a bouquet in early 2020.
Love worked at the Virginia Commonwealth University Hospital as a(n) 44 student. She wondered how she could help 45 the patients’ suffering besides learning how to treat them as a student doctor.
“One of the 46 of being a medical student is that it can be very difficult to 47 to the care team,” said Love. “You are there as a learner, who doesn’t have as much knowledge as doctors. But you want to 48 your patients. How can I at this stage in my training make a(n) 49 for them ”
In 2019, she started The Simple Sunflower in Richmond, and so far has 50 more than 760 bouquets to patients. She brought fellow students and other people into her project, and now has more than 200 51 on the email list.
When Love began the project, she called businesses such as wedding venues(场馆) and florists and asked them what events were scheduled. She then reached out to brides and grooms to ask them if they had 52 for their flowers after the big day.
For each wedding, she organized a team of eight people who helped 53 the flowers when the party was over and then carried them to individual patients.
People beyond the VCU community have heard about Love’s project and become part of it. “Once the word got out, people around the city started 54 us,” Love said. She wanted to bring the project to more cities and maybe open branches at other medical schools.
“I feel 55 when I see the patients who receive our bouquets,” she said. “It reminds me why we do what we do.”
41. A. patients B. cleaners C. doctors D. nurses
42. A. cards B. fruits C. flowers D. cakes
43. A. tired B. moved C. worried D. bored
44. A. art B. law C. engineering D. medical
45. A. change B. accept C. improve D. reduce
46. A. dreams B. skills C. challenges D. exams
47. A. listen B. contribute C. stick D. adapt
48. A. help B. ask C. study D. guide
49. A. difference B. choice C. impression D. decision
50. A. divided B. thrown C. delivered D. applied
51. A. customers B. volunteers C. managers D. teachers
52. A. means B. goals C. efforts D. plans
53. A. pick up B. hold up C. make up D. give up
54. A. greeting B. contacting C. trusting D. considering
55. A. stressed B. confident C. relaxed D. satisfied
第二节 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Auckland, the largest city and chief seaport of New Zealand, stands in the North Island.
When 56 (plan) a trip to New Zealand, most people skip over Auckland as a destination. People flood into Queenstown to spend time enjoying 57 (they) in nature.
However, as anyone who 58 (visit) it knows, there are even more things to do in Auckland, compared with those in Queenstown. All of these things make travelers get a good impression(印象) of it. If you are a backpacker(背包客), you will like Auckland 59 you can enjoy a huge range of free or cheap things, especially in a country which is known 60 its high living costs. If you are seeking a city that provides a high quality of life, Auckland is a place where you will find great 61 (satisfactory).
The city’s popular neighborhoods can 62 (explore) on foot, and the skyline can be viewed from the water. 63 (particular), you will have a chance 64 (taste) different kinds of snacks and the city doesn’t shy away from a good happy hour. Give yourself some days to enjoy the 65 (amaze) sights of Auckland, and check out some of your favorite things to do in this city. Auckland, you shouldn’t miss it!
第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节 (满分15分)
假定你是高一学生李华，你的英国笔友 Jim在给你的邮件中提到他最近因过度使用手机，日常生活受到了影响，他为此感到苦恼。请你给他回复邮件，内容包括：
1.表示理解；
2.你的建议及理由。
注意：
1.词数80左右;
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
参考词汇:过度使用 overuse
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节 (满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
In the quiet town, Ethan and his parents lived a peaceful life. His father. John, a hard-working architect, and his mother Sarah, a great teacher, had always struggled to provide the best for Ethan.
As Ethan entered high school, something began to change their once harmonious home. School grades were the first battleground. While John believed in traditional hard work, Ethan, a creative boy, found himself crazy about art. Every time he painted well, his mother Sarah would praise and encourage him, but John only thought it was a waste of time. So Ethan often argued with his father.
One stormy night, the conflict(矛盾) came to a head. John, reviewing Ethan’s report card, frowned(皱眉) at the grades. “Ethan, you must focus more on your studies. These grades won’t help you become an engineer. Stop painting!”
Ethan couldn’t bear the disappointment in his father’s eyes, and argued back, “Dad, I want to be a painter, not an engineer.” Sarah, trying to stop the argument, quickly said, “John, maybe we should let Ethan have a try. It could be his true calling.” However, John stuck to his belief and replied, “Art won’t put food on the table or pay the bills. He needs a stable job.” Sarah was between her husband and son and tried to settle the argument.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150 左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Sarah, who often helped solve problems between John and Ethan, saw their pain. __________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________
As the storm outside got calmer, there was newfound understanding among them. ___________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________
2024~2025学年度第一学期高一期中考试·英语
参考答案、提示及评分细则
听力(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 A B B A A B C B B A C C A B C B C A C A
阅读(共20小题；每小题2.5分，满分50分)
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
答案 C B D C D A B D A C A C D D B E F A B C
完形填空(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
题号 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
答案 A C B D D C B A A C B D A B D
21. C 细节理解题。根据 Australia 部分中“On Chinese New Year, many people across Australia come to, Sydney’s Chinatown. They enjoy fireworks, lion dances, dragon boat races and many other traditional. activities.”可知，在澳大利亚的中国人在春节时候的活动没有提到打牌。
22. B 细节理解题。根据 Singapore部分中“They usually have it at home because having it in a restaurant takes. away the meaning of the tradition.”可知,他们在家吃年夜饭是为了保持中国的传统。
23. D 细节理解题。根据第一段中“The traditional holiday is the most important to Chinese both at home and abroad.”和下文对四个国家的中国人庆祝春节的介绍可知，遍布在世界各地的中国人对春节都有强烈的感情。
24. C 细节理解题。根据第一段中的“As I was burning off last night’s wrong decision—a big meal, I spotted a poster about a gym’s 21-day workout challenge”可知,昨晚作者做了一个错误的决定:吃了一顿大餐。
25. D 段落大意题。根据第二段中的“It was easy to promise on paper, but three weeks of recommended exercise routines and diet restrictions(限制) wouldn’t be easy.”可知,将承诺写在纸上是很容易的,但是坚持三个星期的锻炼和饮食限制并不容易。因此该段的主要内容是作者坚持锻炼计划的困难。
26. A 词义猜测题。根据第三段中的“Throughout the 21 days, I often told myself that the challenge was menningless and tried to sabotage myself from exercising.”中的 and 前后两句是承接关系, and 前面说的是.“在这21 天里,我经常告诉自己,挑战是没有意义的。”由“However, finally I overcame that negative thought and kept working out.”可知,作者终于克服了这种消极的想法继续锻炼。 however前后的内容是转t.折关系。因此可以推断出 and后面的内容是“不想再锻炼下去”。
27. B细节理解题。根据第四段内容可知，作者感受到了克服运动挑战能给他带来好心情。
28. D 细节理解题。根据第二段中“So there are a lot more Velib stations than the 298 subway stations!”可知。
29. A 细节理解题。根据第二段中“The first half-hour... But it’s only?1 a day or?29 a year!”可知,半小时内是免费的，超过半小时需要付费，骑自行车40分钟需要付费1欧元。
30. C 推理判断题。根据第三段中“These bicycles are only for short journeys.”推断可知,自行车不适用长途旅行。
31. A 态度判断题。通读文章的最后一段,并根据该段最后一句话“The bikes might help people to lead a healthier life, too.”可知, spokesman对自行车的骑行的态度是积极的。
32. C 细节理解题。根据第二段中的“which uses a camera fixed in a pair of glasses and a tiny computer to send signals directly to the nerves(神经) controlling sight”可知, Argus Ⅱ由一部摄像机、一副眼镜和一台微型电脑构成。
33. D推理判断题。根据第三段 Hayman所说的话可知，他在黑暗中度过了半辈子，术后的他现在可以看见自己的孙子以及灯光,尤其根据该段最后一句话中的“they make all the difference to me”可以推断出,这一技术对他的生活起到重要作用。
34. D 细节理解题。根据最后一段中的“10 patients will be carefully followed, to gather data on their progress and assess how much the bionic eye improves their daily lives”可知,紧密追踪这10位患者的目的是收集他们的进展数据以及评估该技术对他们的日常生活有多大改善，以得知准确的治疗效果。
35. B标题判断题。通读全文可知，文章第一段点明主题，即英国国民医疗服务体系将为10名患者支付植入“仿生眼”的费用，后文对这一主题展开详细说明。故B项作为文章标题最合适。
36. E 根据空前内容“Whether you're a fitness coach or a beginner, making fitness part of your daily life definitely benefits your health and well-being(无论你是健身教练还是初学者,让健身成为你日常生活的一部分绝对有益于你的健康和幸福。)”可知,健身有益于身心健康。选项E“Here I share some of the best fitness tips to get you covered(在这里,我分享一些最好的健身技巧)”承上启下,承接上文的健身,引出下文具体的健身建议。故选 E。
37. F 根据上文内容“It means identifying your deeper reason for getting healthy. For example, do you want to be able to keep up with your workout partners or friends Are you sick of being tired all the time in the classroom Do you want more energy and confidence (这意味着找出你保持健康的深层原因。例如,你想跟上你的健身伙伴或朋友吗 你是否厌倦了在教室里一直感到疲倦 你想要更多的能量和自信吗 )”可知,本段主要讲述的是要找出保持健康的原因。选项F“Staying in touch with a reason for exercise gives you a sense of purpose(找一个锻炼的理由会让你有一种目标感)”是上文内容的总结，指出找到锻炼的理由会让我们有一种目标感。故选 F。
38. A 根据本段小标题“Pay attention to your thoughts(注意你的想法)”可知,本段讲述的是想法的重要性。选项 A“Thoughts are powerful(思想是强大的)”中的“thoughts”与空后的“They can push you forward when things get tough(当事情变得艰难时，它们可以推动你前进。)”中的“they”保持一致，指的是想法很重要。故选A。
39. B 设空处为本段小标题,为本段主要内容。根据本段内容“Make sure you have at least 150 minutes of physical activity each week to keep yourself healthy! Break it down to 40 minutes 4 days a week,30 minutes5 days a week, or whatever you’d like. Choose what works best for your lifestyle, whether it’s yoga, walking, or anything else that gets your heart rate up.(确保你每周至少有150分钟的体育活动来保持你的健康！把它分成每周四天40分钟，每周五天30分钟，或者任何你喜欢的时间。选择最适合你的生活方式，无论是瑜伽、散步，还是其他任何能让你心跳加快的运动。)”可知，本段讲述的是每周要至少有150分钟的体育活动。选项B“Take exercise for at least 150 minutes per week(每周至少锻炼150分钟)”与本段内容相符。故选B。
40. C 根据空前内容“Writing down your progress helps you stay connected with yourself during moments of doubt.(写下你的进步有助于你在怀疑的时候与自己保持联系。)”可知，健身日记可以让我们在怀疑自我的时候与内心的自我保持联系。选项C“Moreover, it allows you to reflect on your progress(此外,它可以让你反思你的进步)”延续上文内容，指出健身日记还可以让我们反思自己的进步。故选C。
41. A 根据下文“and the patients are happy to have them”可知,此处指 Love把鲜花送给病人。
42. C 根据上文“collect after-wedding bouquets(花束)”和下文“The flowers are still in good shape, and the patients are happy to have them.”可知,此处指许多病人没有访客更不用说鲜花了。
43. B 根据上文“the patients are happy to have them”和下文“who was recovering from a heart problem when Love walked into her room with a bouquet in early 2020”可知,收到鲜花的病人 Connie Melzer感动得哭了。
44. D 根据上文“worked at the Virginia Commonwealth University Hospital”和下文“as a student doctor”可知, Love是学习医学的学生。
45. D 根据语境和下文“the patients’ suffering”可知,作为医学生, Love除了学习如何治疗病人还想要帮助减轻患者的痛苦。
46. C 根据下文“that it can be very difficult to 47 to the care team”可知,此处指作为一名医学生所遇到的挑战。
47. B 根据下文“You are there as a learner, who doesn’t have as much knowledge as doctors. But you want to 48 your patients.”可知，作为一名医学生， Love也想为护理团队做贡献，但是作为医生的知识有限。
48. A 根据第一段的讲述和本段中“You are there as a learner, who doesn’t have as much knowledge as doctors.”可知，作为一名医学生， Love虽然作为医生的知识有限，但是也想帮助病人。
49. A作为一名医学生， Love自知作为医生的知识有限，但是也想帮助病人，因此，她在这个实习阶段想为病人做些事情，对他们产生影响。
50. C 根据上文“That means more opportunities for her to collect after-wedding bouquets(花束) and give them to her lonely hospital 41 ”可知, Love 创立的这个活动项目是给患者送花。
51. B 根据上文“She brought fellow students and other people into her project”可知,此处指参加这个项目的志愿者。
52. D 根据上文“she called businesses such as wedding venues(场馆) and florists and asked them what events were scheduled”可知， Love在征求新郎新娘的意见，问他们是否有在婚礼之后处理那些花的打算。
53. A 根据下文“the flowers when the party was over and then carried them to individual patients”可知, Love。组织一个八人的团队去收集(捡拾)鲜花。
54. B 根据上文“People beyond the VCU community have heard about Love’s project and become part of it.”可知，人们开始联系 Love她们，并加入她们。
55. D 根据上文“You are there as a learner, who doesn’t have as much knowledge as doctors. But you want to 48 your patients. How can I at this stage in my training make a(n) 49 for them ”可知,帮助病人正是 Love所想做的，所以看到病人们收到她们送的花时，她感到很满足。
语法填空(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
56. planning 57. themselves 58. has visited 59. where 60. for 61. satisfaction 62. be explored
63. Particularly 64. to taste 65. amazing
应用文写作(满分15分)
参考范文
Dear Jim,
I am sorry to know you are troubled by cellphone overuse. As a heavy cellphone user myself, I totally understand the stress and frustration you are feeling.
Fortunately, we can do a few things about it. For instance, we can set certain hours of the day as “cellphone time” and only pick up the phone during those hours. By doing so, we can reduce our screen time. We may also participate in group activities where we meet people face to face and thus don’t need to rely on the phone all the time to contact others.
I hope my suggestions can help and I’m sure you will get through this. Let me know if I can help in any way.
Yours,
Li Hua
读后续写(满分25分)
参考范文
Sarah, who often helped solve problems between John and Ethan, saw their pain. She understood John’s desire to protect their son from unstable life, but also recognized Ethan’s passion and talent. After a while, Sarah suggested that she and John find a way to keep a balance between Ethan’s love for art and his schoolwork. John, though still worried, agreed to think it again. He gradually understood Ethan’s talent and happiness. He also realized he had been so focused on the grades that he missed seeing Ethan’s true passion.
As the storm outside got calmer, there was newfound understanding among them. John decided to support Ethan’s art and studies. Ethan felt relieved and promised to work harder in both. Sarah happily saw the conflict was solved, knowing Ethan would fulfill his promise. From then on, Ethan often took part in various art shows and got great achievements. John and Sarah were always his biggest supporters. As he had promised, Ethan did well in balancing his studies and art, working hard to fulfill his dream.
附听力材料
(Text 1)
W: Mike is different today.
M: Yes. He has won a big prize.
W: No wonder he’s on top of the world now. I’m really happy for him.
(Text 2)
W: Why didn’t you go to Jimmy’s graduation party
M: Well, I could have gone. But I received a call on the way and a patient needed an examination as soon as possible.
(Text 3)
W: Hi, Ken. How do you usually go to work
M: I usually go to work by bus. What about you
W: By car, but I’m ready to walk to work. I need to take exercise.
(Text 4)
W: I want to go somewhere special this weekend. We always stay at home.
M: I like watching movies at home. But we can go out if you want. How about cating at the new French restaurant downtown
W: Great!
(Text 5)
W: Let’s study together, Shane!
M: What time I’m busy from six to eight.
W: OK. We can meet for a couple of hours before or after that.
M: Earlier is better.
(Text 6)
W: I’ve had enough of this story!
M: What’s wrong, Katie
W: After dinner, I’ve been working on the ending of the story for hours. I just can’t get a suitable ending. My teacher will be angry if I don’t finish this story by the deadline.
M: Do you want to tell me about the storyline Maybe I can help you think of a good ending.
W: That would be great!
(Text 7)
M: Jenny, thanks for telling me about the painting courses. I signed up for them yesterday.
W: You are welcome. So when will you take the courses
M: Every Tuesday night from next week. By the way, do you know where I can buy some paintbrushes
W: I usually go to a store on Washington Street next to the history museum. There is always a big sale on weekends.
M: Hmm. It’s kind of far from my house but I think I can get there this weekend.
W: With the special offer, the store is worth visiting.
M: I hope so.
(Text 8)
W: I hate looking for a new apartment.
M: I don’t like it, either. But I’m hopeful about this one.
W: Why
M: There are many advantages. It’s a corner apartment, which means we don’t need to share many walls with our neighbors.
W: Good. I don’t want them to tell me to turn down the music.
M: It’s also on the top floor, so we don’t have to listen to anyone walking above us.
W: OK. It seems that it’s a perfect apartment.
M: Well, it’s not big.
W: You know I don’t care about that. Where is the apartment Is it far from our company
M: No, it’s on Fifth Street, just a block away from our company.
W: Well, you should have told me that first. I’m ready to stop the search now.
(Text 9)
W: Oh, what terrible weather! The plane must be delayed. I can’t wait to get home.
M: I know. I’ve been traveling on business for a month. I really miss my family.
W: A month is a long time to be away. Well, do you have any children
M: I have two, a boy and a girl. Would you like to see a picture of them
W: Sure. Who’s this
M: It’s Jane, my daughter. She is twenty-four. She is studying engineering at the University of Cambridge and will graduate this June. She has already got a position with IBM.
W: What an excellent girl!
M: So she is. And this is my son, James. He is twenty-one. He’s in college now. That’s my wife, Beth, a college teacher.
W: Wow, you certainly have a lovely family.
M: Thank you. So, tell me about your family.
W: My husband and I have a daughter, Tina. She is a lovely girl and she likes playing the piano. But I don’t have a photo with me.
M: Well, it seems that you miss your daughter very much.
W: Yes. I haven’t seen her for nearly two weeks.
(Text 10)
M: Hi, everyone. My name is Randall Davis. I was born in Indiana, the United States. When I was 19 years old, I moved to Venezuela in South America, and later returned to the United States in 1993. I studied in Brigham Young University from 1993 to 1999. And I majored in Spanish education. I also studied Japanese as a second language. After graduating from university, I moved to Tokyo, Japan, in the spring of 1999. Then, in 2006, I moved to Nagoya, Japan. I have lived there since then. I like sports. In my spare time, I enjoy riding bikes and playing basketball.
