河南省名校大联考2024-2025学年高一上学期12月月考英语试题（含答案，无听力音频无听力原文）
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| 名称 | 河南省名校大联考2024-2025学年高一上学期12月月考英语试题（含答案，无听力音频无听力原文） |  | |
| 格式 | docx | ||
| 文件大小 | 41.0KB | ||
| 资源类型 | 教案 | ||
| 版本资源 | 人教版（2019） | ||
| 科目 | 英语 | ||
| 更新时间 | 2024-12-29 15:50:01 | ||
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文档简介
绝密★启用前
大联考
2024—2025学年高一年级阶段性测试（二）
英语
考生注意：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. How will Lily go to the airport
A. By car. B. By taxi. C. By bus.
2. What does the woman think of the art festival
A. Formal. B. Terrible. C. Interesting.
3. What was the weather like yesterday
A. Rainy. B. Cloudy. C. Sunny.
4. What will the man do after having coffee
A. Have a rest. B. Visit a museum. C. Have some apple pie.
5. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Doctor and patient. B. Teacher and student. C. Father and daughter.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. When is Lisa’s birthday
A. On June 24. B. On June 25. C. On June 26.
7. What will Lisa take to the class party
A. Balloons. B. Fried chicken. C. Paper cups.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What is the man
A. A student. B. A guide. C. A ticket seller.
9. How much will the woman pay for the ticket tomorrow
A. $10. B. $9. C. $6.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What did Helen do in the morning
A. She went for exercise.
B. She played with some kids.
C. She visited a friend.
11. Why does Helen call the man
A. To return a lost baseball.
B. To introduce a repairman.
C. To report a broken window.
12. Who will pay the bill
A. The manager. B. The kids. C. Helen.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Who will go camping with Peter
A. His parents. B. Dave. C. Tom.
14. How long will Peter stay at camp
A. Three nights. B. Two nights. C. One night.
15. How will Peter deal with breakfast
A. He will order it from restaurants.
B. He will eat what he takes.
C. He will cook it by himself.
16. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. The place for a picnic. B. The food they like. C. The plan for the weekend.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How does the speaker know what movies are showing
A. By asking her friends.
B. By checking the newspaper.
C. By calling the movie theater.
18. Why does the speaker arrive at the cinema early
A. To get a better seat.
B. To buy popcorn and drinks.
C. To avoid waiting in line for tickets.
19. Where does the speaker like sitting best
A. In the middle rows. B. In the front rows. C. In the back rows.
20. What may the speaker like doing in the cinema
A. Talking with her friends. B. Having something to eat. C. Putting her feet on the back of the seat.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Want to take part in a running and an adventure Here’s our guide to the best marathons (马拉松) in the world next year.
Great Welsh Marathon
Where: Carmarthenshire, Wales
When:16 March, 2025
Offering sea views and salty fresh air along Millennium Coastal Path, the Great Welsh Marathon shows the beautiful southern coastline of Wales. The country’s oldest marathon starts and finishes at Pembrey Country Park and follows an out-and-back route (路线). It’s a piece of cake. However, since it is located along the coast, it is likely to be influenced by the wind.
Angkor Empire Marathon
Where: Siem Reap, Cambodia
When:4 August, 2025
Head to Cambodia to take part in a marathon set in a World Heritage (遗产) site of great historical importance. The route starts and finishes in front of the Central Sanctuary of Angkor Wat. Along the way, you’ ll pass some temples. Former runners have described the experience as “unforgettable”.
Rimi Vilnius Marathon
Where: Vilnius, Lithuania
When: 8 September, 2025 First introduced in 2001, the Rimi Vilnius Marathon is one of the fastest growing marathons in the Baltics and the biggest running event in Lithuania. The route spreads through the World Heritage-listed old town, which has a collection of classical buildings, and passes green parks and the riverbank of Neris. Your trip won’t be short of scenery (风景).
Walt Disney World Marathon
Where: Orlando, Florida
When: 12 January, 2025 Covering 26.2 miles through all four Disney Parks, the Walt Disney World Marathon gives you a chance to see Disney characters and the castle. Such elements of the Disney World Parks make for a great, supportive running environment.
1. What may be a disadvantage of the Great Welsh Marathon
A. The salty air. B. The sea wind.
C. Its old dirt road. D. Its out-and-back route.
2. What does the text say about the Rimi Vilnius Marathon
A. It offers runners views of the sea.
B. Its starting point is the riverbank of Neris.
C. It is the biggest running event in Orlando.
D. Its route passes through a World Heritage-listed area.
3. Which marathon takes place the earliest
A. Rimi Vilnius Marathon. B. Great Welsh Marathon.
C. Walt Disney World Marathon. D. Angkor Empire Marathon.
B
Three weeks ago, I started a movement. It all began with a usual conversation with my friend Clare one day, where we railed (抱怨) against the terrible situation we found ourselves in.
As mothers of kids on the brink of (在……的边缘) smartphone age, we either give our children right to get something that opens the door to social media filled with bad things, or make them feel alienated for not keeping up with others at their ages.
So, Clare and I decided to start a WhatsApp group named Parents United for a Smartphone Free Childhood to support each other on the lonely road of smartphone refusal, which we felt we had to take for our kids. For two days, it was just the two of us, mostly silent. I posted about our group on Instagram. When I woke up in the morning, the group had already reached its maximum limit (最大限度). So, we then started a second group, but that one also reached its limit soon. We were not alone, far from it.
The groups were pretty disordered, so we encouraged people to start their own regional groups. Before our eyes, 50 were set up across the country. We suggested people start their own school- specific groups, as the real power in reducing children’s pressure lies within their own school and class. Three weeks later, there was a Smartphone Free Childhood WhatsApp community in every county in the UK, and thousands of local school groups within those.
It’s a divisive (有争议的) problem, and one that troubles some parents who have already got their kids smartphones because they want to keep their kid safe on the journey to and from school. But an old phone with only call and text functions (功能) does exactly the same job. We want parents to have this discussion without awkwardness, judgement or division to get together and change the norm, because childhood is too short to spend on a smartphone.
4. What caused the author to start her movement
A. Small talk with her friend. B. Her child’s addiction to smartphones.
C. A famous speech. D. Her friend’s challenges in life.
5. What does the underlined word “alienated” in paragraph 2 mean
A. Attracted. B. Amazed. C. Separated. D. Prepared.
6. Why did the author suggest starting school-specific groups
A. Groups can be easily managed this way.
B. Schools play a key role in solving the problem.
C. It can attract more teachers to join in the movement.
D It is necessary for schools to learn about their students.
7. What’s the author’s purpose in starting the movement
A. To teach children to learn about the harm of smartphones.
B. To make parents buy phones with few functions for their children.
C. To ask schools to take strict measures on children using smartphones.
D. To encourage parents to have an open discussion on kids and smartphones.
C
A small Greek island, Tilos, got the title of a national park and can now make enough energy for itself. Now it has become the world’s first zero-waste island.
The island no longer has any rubbish bins (垃圾箱) and the place where they used to put rubbish (the landfill site) is closed completely. In their place is the Center for Creative Upeycling, where things can either be repaired, reused, or be turned into art supplies or building materials.
They began by setting up an information center so people could learn about how to sort (分类) their waste into three kinds: recyclable (可回收的) materials (paper, plastic, and glass); organic waste (food, fruit, stones and bones); and non-recyclable materials (soiled paper and personal things). Each family was then given its own zero-waste equipment, including boxes for recyclable and non-recyclable waste, a bag for organic waste, and a box for cigarette ends. A smartphone app watched real-time information to show how much had been recycled.
Waste management and recycling measures have been improved, leading to a reduction in plastic and other non-biodegradable (不可生物降解的) waste. This has not only made the island beautiful but also protected its environment and ocean life. As a protected national park, the 63km island is an important site for falcons, long-legged buzzards and a number of migratory birds that use Tilos as a stopover between Africa and Europe. Any visitors to the island have to take part in the schedule as well. Hotels have special equipment for separating rubbish and tourists can pick up cloth bags for shopping from the Zero Point Information Center.
“In the beginning, it was fun but cost time and energy,” says Fotaras, one of 745 residents (居民). “But we all helped each other until we could do it well. I was amazed how old people welcomed the idea of no rubbish like the good old days— and that gave me hope and courage to do it.”
8 What makes Tilos special according to the text
A. It has smart rubbish bins. B. It is the smallest island in the world.
C. It has the best energy production system. D. It is the world’s first zero-waste island.
9. What can residents learn from the information center
A. Their duty to collect waste. B. Methods of grouping their waste.
C. Information on smartphone apps. D. Ways to make zero-waste equipment.
10. What is the benefit of improving waste management on Tilos
A. It has increased the number of tourists.
B It has made the residents’ lives easier.
C. It has beautified the island and protected its nature.
D. It has cut the cost in running hotels on the island.
11. What may be the residents’ attitude towards the waste management now
A. Supportive. B. Uncaring. C. Doubtful. D. Unclear.
D
The ancient ritual(仪式的) meaning of Stonehenge is still unknown, but researchers are one step closer to understanding how the famous stone circle was created.
The special stone lying flat at the center of Stonehenge was brought to the site in southern England from near the tip of northeast Scotland, researchers reported Wednesday in the journal Nature. It’s not clear whether the 5-meter stone was carried by boat or across land — a journey of more than 740 kilometers. For more than a hundred years, scientists believed that Stonehenge’s central sandstone — long called the “altar stone” — came from much closer Wales. But a study last year by some of the same researchers showed that the stone didn’t match the geology (地质) of Wales’ sandstone formations. The actual source (来源) of the stone remained unknown.
Although the team was not allowed to take the rocks from the site for the study, they studied the minerals (矿物质) in small pieces of rocks that were collected in past digs, some from as far back as the 1840s. They found a match in the sandstone formations of Orcadian Basin in northeast Scotland, a place that includes parts of the tip of the Scottish peninsula as well as the Orkney Islands. The difficult work of moving the stone such a long way shows a high level of teamwork and cultural connection between these two places of ancient Britain.
Stonehenge was built around 5,000 years ago, with stones forming different circles brought to the site at different times. The placement of stones allows for the sun to rise through a stone “window” during summer solstice. The ancient purpose of the altar stone — which lies flat at the heart of Stonehenge, now under other rocks — remains unknown to us.
Former research has shown cultural connections — such as similarities in pottery (陶器) styles — between the area around Stonehenge and Scotland’ s Orkney Islands. Other stones at Stonehenge came from western Wales. While Britain is full of other Neolithic stone circles, the thing that’s special about Stonehenge is the distance the stones traveled.
12. What is the researchers’ new finding about Stonehenge
A The ritual meaning Stonehenge has.
B. The place the altar stone came from.
C. The way the famous stone circle was created.
D. The reason why the altar stone was carried to England.
13. How did the researchers study the source of the altar stone
A. By researching the geology of Wales.
B. By carrying away some rocks from the site.
C. By studying minerals in rock pieces collected in the past.
D. By comparing the stone with other stones in nearby places.
14. What can we learn about Stonehenge from the text
A. It was built through great teamwork.
B. It still has an important ritual meaning now.
C. The stone lying at the center of it was carried by boat.
D. The circle has remained unchanged since it was created.
15. What is the best title for the text
A. The Exact Source of the Altar Stone
B. A Journey of More Than 740 Kilometers
C. The Ancient Ritual Meaning of Stonehenge
D. Cultural Connections Between Two Places in Britain
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Thrifting (淘二手货) is more popular than ever these days — it’s a great way to save money, and be kind to the environment. ___16___. Here are things you should know when you’re out thrifting for furniture (家具).
* ___17___.
Kate Zamprioli, a thrift lover, says it’s important to carefully have a look at a piece before buying it. She advises double-checking the quality, weight, markings, materials, and age. “If you’re not knowledgeable about a piece, do as much research as you can at the moment,” she added.
* Don’t buy things you can’t repair.
___18___, it’s important to be honest and realistic about your DIY skills. “If it’s very complicated (复杂的) and you’ re a green hand or you don’t really have the time, leave it for the next person,” thrifter Jessie Read says.
* Don’t walk away if you really love it.
Did you see something you love but aren’t quite sure of ___19___. “Avoid putting it down or walking away if you love it! Especially if it’s rare (稀有的) or one of a kind,” explains thrifter Zamprioli. “Chances are someone else will love it too and you’ll miss out.”
* Don’t shop on the weekend.
While it might not be possible for everyone, Zamprioli recommends shopping during the week. “Avoid going to thrift shops on the weekend if you can help it.” she says. “They are much more crowded on the weekend and typically they have certain days during the week when they restock (上货). ___20___.”
A. Don’t buy something you haven’t checked
B. Though repairing things needs professional skills
C. Don’t buy things you have never met before
D. Don’t think too much unless you are prepared to lose it
E. However, finding great furniture from thrift shops isn’t easy
F. It will give you the best chance of finding something then
G. While it’s possible to repaint a wood desk or fix a broken bottle
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
The moving car, packed full, slowly pulled away from my dream home. I watched the familiar white fence (栅栏) disappear from view. I felt ___21___ when thinking about my best friends.
I drove towards the ___22___ place. The farther I drove, the sadder I became. I thought it would take me a long time to ___23___ it.
Within a few days after we ___24___, I took my daughter to her new school. She was a little ___25___, holding my hand tightly. But the friendly teachers and the other kids soon relaxed her, which made me feel happy for the first time.
One day, I was installing (安装) a new ___26___ I had all the parts laid out, but the instructions seemed difficult to me. Just as I was about to ___27___, Mr. Smith from across the street knocked on our door. He had ___28___ my problem through the window.
With a kind smile he came in and ___29___ to help. He patiently sorted through the parts and started putting them together. He worked ____30____, and within just an hour, the bookshelf was standing tall. I ____31____ him, but he just waved it off, saying that was what neighbors were for.
That evening, as I ____32____ our books on the shelf, I realized how lucky we were to have such wonderful neighbors. The past ____33____, those valuable moments with my family and friends back home, will never be ____34____. They are part of me. The new ones we are creating here don’t take the place of the old ones; instead, they add ____35____ to my life.
21. A. sad B. excited C. awkward D. proud
22. A. uncommon B. unknown C. safe D. beautiful
23. A. learn from B. cheer for C. get over D. think of
24. A. arrived B. met C. returned D. survived
25. A. confident B. moved C. regretful D. nervous
26. A. door B. bookshelf C. table D. bike
27. A. change B. join C. help D. quit
28. A. noticed B. recorded C. reported D. explained
29. A. agreed B. remembered C. offered D. happened
30. A. secretly B. slowly C. shyly D. skillfully
31. A. followed B. thanked C. invited D. understood
32. A. placed B. copied C. cleaned D. counted
33. A. challenges B. memories C. promises D. goals
34. A. weighed B. mentioned C. shared D. removed
35. A. balance B. creativity C. richness D. knowledge
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案填写在答题卡上。
The 2024 Tianfu Book Fair, which just came to an end in Chengdu, has got both record sales and ___36___ record number of young visitors this year. More than 58 million people visited the four- day event online and offline. Many young readers carrying bags and notebooks ___37___ (see) at the fair. They went through stands ___38___ chose books carefully.
Shi Haoran went straight to a stand for the special edition (版本) of Romance of the Three Kingdoms. This edition cleverly includes a lot of things ___39___ catch today’s young people’s attention. He bought five sets of books. He said that although the prices were high, he felt they were worth buying, adding that good books could be read ___40___ (repeated).
Young people’s interest in books has changed much. “We have found that young people are very interested in ___41___ (tradition) Chinese culture. The market demand (需求) for that kind of book has got great ___42___ (grow),” says Yuan Ziqi, manager of a major Chinese publisher.
“Many readers now not only buy books but also enjoy ___43___ (collect) related cultural products,” says Yuan Zizhan, a book editor.
___44___ the same time, anime (动漫) culture is also influencing young people’s reading habits. ____45____ (attract) more young readers, some publishers introduce anime series.
This year’s fair hosted over 1,000 cultural events, covering various aspects such as reading sharing and author signings.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
46. 假定你是学生会主席李华，你校图书馆正在招募（recruit）志愿者以提升学生阅览体验。请你写一则通知发表在校英文报上，内容包括：
1. 招募对象和要求；
2. 服务内容；
3. 报名方式。
注意：1. 写作词数应为80个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Notice
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The Student Union
第二节（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
In the days at school, disagreement would come up like small stones on the path of friendship among classmates from time to time.
It was during the preparation for a painting competition organized by the class. The teacher asked us to form groups on our own, so Lucy, my deskmate, and I became a group. We were excitedly discussing the painting theme (主题). I suggested painting a forest with all kinds of wonderful animals and shining magical lights. But Lucy immediately objected (反对). With dissatisfaction in her eyes, she said, “No, this theme is too common. We should paint the night view of the city. That would be special.” I was a little angry right away and raised my voice, “The fantasy forest allows for a lot of creative space. We can show all our imagination. What’s so good about the night view It’s just dark.” Lucy was so angry that her face turned red. She threw her paintbrush and said, “You don’t listen to my opinions at all. I don’t want to be in a group with you anymore.” “Fine, if you don’t want to work together, then so be it,” I shouted. So, in the following time, we were each busy with our own paintings and didn’t talk to each other anymore.
The time to submit (提交) the painting works was drawing near. The classmates in other groups were all preparing for the final touches, but in our group, we still hadn’t decided on a theme. I became more and more anxious.
On Saturday night, Mom noticed that something was on my mind and asked me what had happened. I told her about the event with Lucy. Mom said, “Everyone has their own ideas. Teamwork requires both sides to make compromises (妥协) and try hard to find a solution that everyone can accept.” After hearing what Mom said, I seemed to understand something.
注意：1. 续写词数应为150个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
On Monday morning, I decided to talk to Lucy.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The result came out, and our names were on the list of award winners.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
听力1—5 ACBAB 6—10 CAACA 11—15 CACBB 16—20 CBCAB
绝密★启用前
大联考
2024—2025学年高一年级阶段性测试（二）
英语
考生注意：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. How will Lily go to the airport
A. By car. B. By taxi. C. By bus.
2. What does the woman think of the art festival
A. Formal. B. Terrible. C. Interesting.
3. What was the weather like yesterday
A. Rainy. B. Cloudy. C. Sunny.
4. What will the man do after having coffee
A. Have a rest. B. Visit a museum. C. Have some apple pie.
5. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Doctor and patient. B. Teacher and student. C. Father and daughter.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. When is Lisa’s birthday
A. On June 24. B. On June 25. C. On June 26.
7. What will Lisa take to the class party
A. Balloons. B. Fried chicken. C. Paper cups.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What is the man
A. A student. B. A guide. C. A ticket seller.
9. How much will the woman pay for the ticket tomorrow
A. $10. B. $9. C. $6.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What did Helen do in the morning
A. She went for exercise.
B. She played with some kids.
C. She visited a friend.
11. Why does Helen call the man
A. To return a lost baseball.
B. To introduce a repairman.
C. To report a broken window.
12. Who will pay the bill
A. The manager. B. The kids. C. Helen.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Who will go camping with Peter
A. His parents. B. Dave. C. Tom.
14. How long will Peter stay at camp
A. Three nights. B. Two nights. C. One night.
15. How will Peter deal with breakfast
A. He will order it from restaurants.
B. He will eat what he takes.
C. He will cook it by himself.
16. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. The place for a picnic. B. The food they like. C. The plan for the weekend.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How does the speaker know what movies are showing
A. By asking her friends.
B. By checking the newspaper.
C. By calling the movie theater.
18. Why does the speaker arrive at the cinema early
A. To get a better seat.
B. To buy popcorn and drinks.
C. To avoid waiting in line for tickets.
19. Where does the speaker like sitting best
A. In the middle rows. B. In the front rows. C. In the back rows.
20. What may the speaker like doing in the cinema
A. Talking with her friends. B. Having something to eat. C. Putting her feet on the back of the seat.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. D 3. C
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. C 6. B 7. D
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. C 14. A 15. A
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. E 17. A 18. G 19. D 20. F
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. C
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. a 37. were seen
38. and 39. that##which
40. repeatedly
41. traditional
42. growth 43. collecting
44. At 45. To attract
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【46题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
Notice
To improve our reading experience, the school library is recruiting volunteers. We welcome enthusiastic and responsible students from all grades. Volunteers are expected to be punctual, friendly, and good at communication.
Your duties will include assisting in shelving books, guiding readers, and organizing events. This is a great opportunity to serve the school and improve your skills.
If you are interested, please sign up at the library’s service desk or send an email at libraryvolunteer@ourschool.edu. Don’t miss this chance!
The Student Union
第二节（满分25分）
【47题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
On Monday morning, I decided to talk to Lucy. I walked up to her with a bit of nervousness and said, “Lucy, I think we should give our group another chance. We both had good ideas, and we can make it work if we try.” Lucy looked at me with a little awkwardness, saying that she shouldn’t have talked like that. In the following days, we worked hard on the painting. This time, we both listened to each other more patiently. In the end, our painting was completed in time.
The result came out, and our names were on the list of award winners. We couldn’t believe our eyes until the classmates around us were clapping and cheering. Huge smiles spread across our faces. We realized that this experience had taught us more than just how to create a beautiful painting. It had taught us the value of friendship and cooperation. After that day, we no longer let little disagreements get in the way of our communication. Whenever we have different opinions, we will work together to find a middle ground, knowing that through compromise and communication, we can achieve great things.
听力1—5 ACBAB 6—10 CAACA 11—15 CACBB 16—20 CBCAB
大联考
2024—2025学年高一年级阶段性测试（二）
英语
考生注意：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. How will Lily go to the airport
A. By car. B. By taxi. C. By bus.
2. What does the woman think of the art festival
A. Formal. B. Terrible. C. Interesting.
3. What was the weather like yesterday
A. Rainy. B. Cloudy. C. Sunny.
4. What will the man do after having coffee
A. Have a rest. B. Visit a museum. C. Have some apple pie.
5. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Doctor and patient. B. Teacher and student. C. Father and daughter.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. When is Lisa’s birthday
A. On June 24. B. On June 25. C. On June 26.
7. What will Lisa take to the class party
A. Balloons. B. Fried chicken. C. Paper cups.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What is the man
A. A student. B. A guide. C. A ticket seller.
9. How much will the woman pay for the ticket tomorrow
A. $10. B. $9. C. $6.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What did Helen do in the morning
A. She went for exercise.
B. She played with some kids.
C. She visited a friend.
11. Why does Helen call the man
A. To return a lost baseball.
B. To introduce a repairman.
C. To report a broken window.
12. Who will pay the bill
A. The manager. B. The kids. C. Helen.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Who will go camping with Peter
A. His parents. B. Dave. C. Tom.
14. How long will Peter stay at camp
A. Three nights. B. Two nights. C. One night.
15. How will Peter deal with breakfast
A. He will order it from restaurants.
B. He will eat what he takes.
C. He will cook it by himself.
16. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. The place for a picnic. B. The food they like. C. The plan for the weekend.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How does the speaker know what movies are showing
A. By asking her friends.
B. By checking the newspaper.
C. By calling the movie theater.
18. Why does the speaker arrive at the cinema early
A. To get a better seat.
B. To buy popcorn and drinks.
C. To avoid waiting in line for tickets.
19. Where does the speaker like sitting best
A. In the middle rows. B. In the front rows. C. In the back rows.
20. What may the speaker like doing in the cinema
A. Talking with her friends. B. Having something to eat. C. Putting her feet on the back of the seat.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Want to take part in a running and an adventure Here’s our guide to the best marathons (马拉松) in the world next year.
Great Welsh Marathon
Where: Carmarthenshire, Wales
When:16 March, 2025
Offering sea views and salty fresh air along Millennium Coastal Path, the Great Welsh Marathon shows the beautiful southern coastline of Wales. The country’s oldest marathon starts and finishes at Pembrey Country Park and follows an out-and-back route (路线). It’s a piece of cake. However, since it is located along the coast, it is likely to be influenced by the wind.
Angkor Empire Marathon
Where: Siem Reap, Cambodia
When:4 August, 2025
Head to Cambodia to take part in a marathon set in a World Heritage (遗产) site of great historical importance. The route starts and finishes in front of the Central Sanctuary of Angkor Wat. Along the way, you’ ll pass some temples. Former runners have described the experience as “unforgettable”.
Rimi Vilnius Marathon
Where: Vilnius, Lithuania
When: 8 September, 2025 First introduced in 2001, the Rimi Vilnius Marathon is one of the fastest growing marathons in the Baltics and the biggest running event in Lithuania. The route spreads through the World Heritage-listed old town, which has a collection of classical buildings, and passes green parks and the riverbank of Neris. Your trip won’t be short of scenery (风景).
Walt Disney World Marathon
Where: Orlando, Florida
When: 12 January, 2025 Covering 26.2 miles through all four Disney Parks, the Walt Disney World Marathon gives you a chance to see Disney characters and the castle. Such elements of the Disney World Parks make for a great, supportive running environment.
1. What may be a disadvantage of the Great Welsh Marathon
A. The salty air. B. The sea wind.
C. Its old dirt road. D. Its out-and-back route.
2. What does the text say about the Rimi Vilnius Marathon
A. It offers runners views of the sea.
B. Its starting point is the riverbank of Neris.
C. It is the biggest running event in Orlando.
D. Its route passes through a World Heritage-listed area.
3. Which marathon takes place the earliest
A. Rimi Vilnius Marathon. B. Great Welsh Marathon.
C. Walt Disney World Marathon. D. Angkor Empire Marathon.
B
Three weeks ago, I started a movement. It all began with a usual conversation with my friend Clare one day, where we railed (抱怨) against the terrible situation we found ourselves in.
As mothers of kids on the brink of (在……的边缘) smartphone age, we either give our children right to get something that opens the door to social media filled with bad things, or make them feel alienated for not keeping up with others at their ages.
So, Clare and I decided to start a WhatsApp group named Parents United for a Smartphone Free Childhood to support each other on the lonely road of smartphone refusal, which we felt we had to take for our kids. For two days, it was just the two of us, mostly silent. I posted about our group on Instagram. When I woke up in the morning, the group had already reached its maximum limit (最大限度). So, we then started a second group, but that one also reached its limit soon. We were not alone, far from it.
The groups were pretty disordered, so we encouraged people to start their own regional groups. Before our eyes, 50 were set up across the country. We suggested people start their own school- specific groups, as the real power in reducing children’s pressure lies within their own school and class. Three weeks later, there was a Smartphone Free Childhood WhatsApp community in every county in the UK, and thousands of local school groups within those.
It’s a divisive (有争议的) problem, and one that troubles some parents who have already got their kids smartphones because they want to keep their kid safe on the journey to and from school. But an old phone with only call and text functions (功能) does exactly the same job. We want parents to have this discussion without awkwardness, judgement or division to get together and change the norm, because childhood is too short to spend on a smartphone.
4. What caused the author to start her movement
A. Small talk with her friend. B. Her child’s addiction to smartphones.
C. A famous speech. D. Her friend’s challenges in life.
5. What does the underlined word “alienated” in paragraph 2 mean
A. Attracted. B. Amazed. C. Separated. D. Prepared.
6. Why did the author suggest starting school-specific groups
A. Groups can be easily managed this way.
B. Schools play a key role in solving the problem.
C. It can attract more teachers to join in the movement.
D It is necessary for schools to learn about their students.
7. What’s the author’s purpose in starting the movement
A. To teach children to learn about the harm of smartphones.
B. To make parents buy phones with few functions for their children.
C. To ask schools to take strict measures on children using smartphones.
D. To encourage parents to have an open discussion on kids and smartphones.
C
A small Greek island, Tilos, got the title of a national park and can now make enough energy for itself. Now it has become the world’s first zero-waste island.
The island no longer has any rubbish bins (垃圾箱) and the place where they used to put rubbish (the landfill site) is closed completely. In their place is the Center for Creative Upeycling, where things can either be repaired, reused, or be turned into art supplies or building materials.
They began by setting up an information center so people could learn about how to sort (分类) their waste into three kinds: recyclable (可回收的) materials (paper, plastic, and glass); organic waste (food, fruit, stones and bones); and non-recyclable materials (soiled paper and personal things). Each family was then given its own zero-waste equipment, including boxes for recyclable and non-recyclable waste, a bag for organic waste, and a box for cigarette ends. A smartphone app watched real-time information to show how much had been recycled.
Waste management and recycling measures have been improved, leading to a reduction in plastic and other non-biodegradable (不可生物降解的) waste. This has not only made the island beautiful but also protected its environment and ocean life. As a protected national park, the 63km island is an important site for falcons, long-legged buzzards and a number of migratory birds that use Tilos as a stopover between Africa and Europe. Any visitors to the island have to take part in the schedule as well. Hotels have special equipment for separating rubbish and tourists can pick up cloth bags for shopping from the Zero Point Information Center.
“In the beginning, it was fun but cost time and energy,” says Fotaras, one of 745 residents (居民). “But we all helped each other until we could do it well. I was amazed how old people welcomed the idea of no rubbish like the good old days— and that gave me hope and courage to do it.”
8 What makes Tilos special according to the text
A. It has smart rubbish bins. B. It is the smallest island in the world.
C. It has the best energy production system. D. It is the world’s first zero-waste island.
9. What can residents learn from the information center
A. Their duty to collect waste. B. Methods of grouping their waste.
C. Information on smartphone apps. D. Ways to make zero-waste equipment.
10. What is the benefit of improving waste management on Tilos
A. It has increased the number of tourists.
B It has made the residents’ lives easier.
C. It has beautified the island and protected its nature.
D. It has cut the cost in running hotels on the island.
11. What may be the residents’ attitude towards the waste management now
A. Supportive. B. Uncaring. C. Doubtful. D. Unclear.
D
The ancient ritual(仪式的) meaning of Stonehenge is still unknown, but researchers are one step closer to understanding how the famous stone circle was created.
The special stone lying flat at the center of Stonehenge was brought to the site in southern England from near the tip of northeast Scotland, researchers reported Wednesday in the journal Nature. It’s not clear whether the 5-meter stone was carried by boat or across land — a journey of more than 740 kilometers. For more than a hundred years, scientists believed that Stonehenge’s central sandstone — long called the “altar stone” — came from much closer Wales. But a study last year by some of the same researchers showed that the stone didn’t match the geology (地质) of Wales’ sandstone formations. The actual source (来源) of the stone remained unknown.
Although the team was not allowed to take the rocks from the site for the study, they studied the minerals (矿物质) in small pieces of rocks that were collected in past digs, some from as far back as the 1840s. They found a match in the sandstone formations of Orcadian Basin in northeast Scotland, a place that includes parts of the tip of the Scottish peninsula as well as the Orkney Islands. The difficult work of moving the stone such a long way shows a high level of teamwork and cultural connection between these two places of ancient Britain.
Stonehenge was built around 5,000 years ago, with stones forming different circles brought to the site at different times. The placement of stones allows for the sun to rise through a stone “window” during summer solstice. The ancient purpose of the altar stone — which lies flat at the heart of Stonehenge, now under other rocks — remains unknown to us.
Former research has shown cultural connections — such as similarities in pottery (陶器) styles — between the area around Stonehenge and Scotland’ s Orkney Islands. Other stones at Stonehenge came from western Wales. While Britain is full of other Neolithic stone circles, the thing that’s special about Stonehenge is the distance the stones traveled.
12. What is the researchers’ new finding about Stonehenge
A The ritual meaning Stonehenge has.
B. The place the altar stone came from.
C. The way the famous stone circle was created.
D. The reason why the altar stone was carried to England.
13. How did the researchers study the source of the altar stone
A. By researching the geology of Wales.
B. By carrying away some rocks from the site.
C. By studying minerals in rock pieces collected in the past.
D. By comparing the stone with other stones in nearby places.
14. What can we learn about Stonehenge from the text
A. It was built through great teamwork.
B. It still has an important ritual meaning now.
C. The stone lying at the center of it was carried by boat.
D. The circle has remained unchanged since it was created.
15. What is the best title for the text
A. The Exact Source of the Altar Stone
B. A Journey of More Than 740 Kilometers
C. The Ancient Ritual Meaning of Stonehenge
D. Cultural Connections Between Two Places in Britain
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Thrifting (淘二手货) is more popular than ever these days — it’s a great way to save money, and be kind to the environment. ___16___. Here are things you should know when you’re out thrifting for furniture (家具).
* ___17___.
Kate Zamprioli, a thrift lover, says it’s important to carefully have a look at a piece before buying it. She advises double-checking the quality, weight, markings, materials, and age. “If you’re not knowledgeable about a piece, do as much research as you can at the moment,” she added.
* Don’t buy things you can’t repair.
___18___, it’s important to be honest and realistic about your DIY skills. “If it’s very complicated (复杂的) and you’ re a green hand or you don’t really have the time, leave it for the next person,” thrifter Jessie Read says.
* Don’t walk away if you really love it.
Did you see something you love but aren’t quite sure of ___19___. “Avoid putting it down or walking away if you love it! Especially if it’s rare (稀有的) or one of a kind,” explains thrifter Zamprioli. “Chances are someone else will love it too and you’ll miss out.”
* Don’t shop on the weekend.
While it might not be possible for everyone, Zamprioli recommends shopping during the week. “Avoid going to thrift shops on the weekend if you can help it.” she says. “They are much more crowded on the weekend and typically they have certain days during the week when they restock (上货). ___20___.”
A. Don’t buy something you haven’t checked
B. Though repairing things needs professional skills
C. Don’t buy things you have never met before
D. Don’t think too much unless you are prepared to lose it
E. However, finding great furniture from thrift shops isn’t easy
F. It will give you the best chance of finding something then
G. While it’s possible to repaint a wood desk or fix a broken bottle
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
The moving car, packed full, slowly pulled away from my dream home. I watched the familiar white fence (栅栏) disappear from view. I felt ___21___ when thinking about my best friends.
I drove towards the ___22___ place. The farther I drove, the sadder I became. I thought it would take me a long time to ___23___ it.
Within a few days after we ___24___, I took my daughter to her new school. She was a little ___25___, holding my hand tightly. But the friendly teachers and the other kids soon relaxed her, which made me feel happy for the first time.
One day, I was installing (安装) a new ___26___ I had all the parts laid out, but the instructions seemed difficult to me. Just as I was about to ___27___, Mr. Smith from across the street knocked on our door. He had ___28___ my problem through the window.
With a kind smile he came in and ___29___ to help. He patiently sorted through the parts and started putting them together. He worked ____30____, and within just an hour, the bookshelf was standing tall. I ____31____ him, but he just waved it off, saying that was what neighbors were for.
That evening, as I ____32____ our books on the shelf, I realized how lucky we were to have such wonderful neighbors. The past ____33____, those valuable moments with my family and friends back home, will never be ____34____. They are part of me. The new ones we are creating here don’t take the place of the old ones; instead, they add ____35____ to my life.
21. A. sad B. excited C. awkward D. proud
22. A. uncommon B. unknown C. safe D. beautiful
23. A. learn from B. cheer for C. get over D. think of
24. A. arrived B. met C. returned D. survived
25. A. confident B. moved C. regretful D. nervous
26. A. door B. bookshelf C. table D. bike
27. A. change B. join C. help D. quit
28. A. noticed B. recorded C. reported D. explained
29. A. agreed B. remembered C. offered D. happened
30. A. secretly B. slowly C. shyly D. skillfully
31. A. followed B. thanked C. invited D. understood
32. A. placed B. copied C. cleaned D. counted
33. A. challenges B. memories C. promises D. goals
34. A. weighed B. mentioned C. shared D. removed
35. A. balance B. creativity C. richness D. knowledge
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案填写在答题卡上。
The 2024 Tianfu Book Fair, which just came to an end in Chengdu, has got both record sales and ___36___ record number of young visitors this year. More than 58 million people visited the four- day event online and offline. Many young readers carrying bags and notebooks ___37___ (see) at the fair. They went through stands ___38___ chose books carefully.
Shi Haoran went straight to a stand for the special edition (版本) of Romance of the Three Kingdoms. This edition cleverly includes a lot of things ___39___ catch today’s young people’s attention. He bought five sets of books. He said that although the prices were high, he felt they were worth buying, adding that good books could be read ___40___ (repeated).
Young people’s interest in books has changed much. “We have found that young people are very interested in ___41___ (tradition) Chinese culture. The market demand (需求) for that kind of book has got great ___42___ (grow),” says Yuan Ziqi, manager of a major Chinese publisher.
“Many readers now not only buy books but also enjoy ___43___ (collect) related cultural products,” says Yuan Zizhan, a book editor.
___44___ the same time, anime (动漫) culture is also influencing young people’s reading habits. ____45____ (attract) more young readers, some publishers introduce anime series.
This year’s fair hosted over 1,000 cultural events, covering various aspects such as reading sharing and author signings.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
46. 假定你是学生会主席李华，你校图书馆正在招募（recruit）志愿者以提升学生阅览体验。请你写一则通知发表在校英文报上，内容包括：
1. 招募对象和要求；
2. 服务内容；
3. 报名方式。
注意：1. 写作词数应为80个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Notice
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The Student Union
第二节（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
In the days at school, disagreement would come up like small stones on the path of friendship among classmates from time to time.
It was during the preparation for a painting competition organized by the class. The teacher asked us to form groups on our own, so Lucy, my deskmate, and I became a group. We were excitedly discussing the painting theme (主题). I suggested painting a forest with all kinds of wonderful animals and shining magical lights. But Lucy immediately objected (反对). With dissatisfaction in her eyes, she said, “No, this theme is too common. We should paint the night view of the city. That would be special.” I was a little angry right away and raised my voice, “The fantasy forest allows for a lot of creative space. We can show all our imagination. What’s so good about the night view It’s just dark.” Lucy was so angry that her face turned red. She threw her paintbrush and said, “You don’t listen to my opinions at all. I don’t want to be in a group with you anymore.” “Fine, if you don’t want to work together, then so be it,” I shouted. So, in the following time, we were each busy with our own paintings and didn’t talk to each other anymore.
The time to submit (提交) the painting works was drawing near. The classmates in other groups were all preparing for the final touches, but in our group, we still hadn’t decided on a theme. I became more and more anxious.
On Saturday night, Mom noticed that something was on my mind and asked me what had happened. I told her about the event with Lucy. Mom said, “Everyone has their own ideas. Teamwork requires both sides to make compromises (妥协) and try hard to find a solution that everyone can accept.” After hearing what Mom said, I seemed to understand something.
注意：1. 续写词数应为150个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
On Monday morning, I decided to talk to Lucy.
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The result came out, and our names were on the list of award winners.
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听力1—5 ACBAB 6—10 CAACA 11—15 CACBB 16—20 CBCAB
绝密★启用前
大联考
2024—2025学年高一年级阶段性测试（二）
英语
考生注意：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将考生号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有2分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. How will Lily go to the airport
A. By car. B. By taxi. C. By bus.
2. What does the woman think of the art festival
A. Formal. B. Terrible. C. Interesting.
3. What was the weather like yesterday
A. Rainy. B. Cloudy. C. Sunny.
4. What will the man do after having coffee
A. Have a rest. B. Visit a museum. C. Have some apple pie.
5. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Doctor and patient. B. Teacher and student. C. Father and daughter.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. When is Lisa’s birthday
A. On June 24. B. On June 25. C. On June 26.
7. What will Lisa take to the class party
A. Balloons. B. Fried chicken. C. Paper cups.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What is the man
A. A student. B. A guide. C. A ticket seller.
9. How much will the woman pay for the ticket tomorrow
A. $10. B. $9. C. $6.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What did Helen do in the morning
A. She went for exercise.
B. She played with some kids.
C. She visited a friend.
11. Why does Helen call the man
A. To return a lost baseball.
B. To introduce a repairman.
C. To report a broken window.
12. Who will pay the bill
A. The manager. B. The kids. C. Helen.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Who will go camping with Peter
A. His parents. B. Dave. C. Tom.
14. How long will Peter stay at camp
A. Three nights. B. Two nights. C. One night.
15. How will Peter deal with breakfast
A. He will order it from restaurants.
B. He will eat what he takes.
C. He will cook it by himself.
16. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. The place for a picnic. B. The food they like. C. The plan for the weekend.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How does the speaker know what movies are showing
A. By asking her friends.
B. By checking the newspaper.
C. By calling the movie theater.
18. Why does the speaker arrive at the cinema early
A. To get a better seat.
B. To buy popcorn and drinks.
C. To avoid waiting in line for tickets.
19. Where does the speaker like sitting best
A. In the middle rows. B. In the front rows. C. In the back rows.
20. What may the speaker like doing in the cinema
A. Talking with her friends. B. Having something to eat. C. Putting her feet on the back of the seat.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. D 3. C
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. C 6. B 7. D
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. B 13. C 14. A 15. A
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. E 17. A 18. G 19. D 20. F
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. C
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. a 37. were seen
38. and 39. that##which
40. repeatedly
41. traditional
42. growth 43. collecting
44. At 45. To attract
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【46题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
Notice
To improve our reading experience, the school library is recruiting volunteers. We welcome enthusiastic and responsible students from all grades. Volunteers are expected to be punctual, friendly, and good at communication.
Your duties will include assisting in shelving books, guiding readers, and organizing events. This is a great opportunity to serve the school and improve your skills.
If you are interested, please sign up at the library’s service desk or send an email at libraryvolunteer@ourschool.edu. Don’t miss this chance!
The Student Union
第二节（满分25分）
【47题答案】
【答案】One possible version:
On Monday morning, I decided to talk to Lucy. I walked up to her with a bit of nervousness and said, “Lucy, I think we should give our group another chance. We both had good ideas, and we can make it work if we try.” Lucy looked at me with a little awkwardness, saying that she shouldn’t have talked like that. In the following days, we worked hard on the painting. This time, we both listened to each other more patiently. In the end, our painting was completed in time.
The result came out, and our names were on the list of award winners. We couldn’t believe our eyes until the classmates around us were clapping and cheering. Huge smiles spread across our faces. We realized that this experience had taught us more than just how to create a beautiful painting. It had taught us the value of friendship and cooperation. After that day, we no longer let little disagreements get in the way of our communication. Whenever we have different opinions, we will work together to find a middle ground, knowing that through compromise and communication, we can achieve great things.
听力1—5 ACBAB 6—10 CAACA 11—15 CACBB 16—20 CBCAB