河南省九师联盟2024-2025学年高二上学期12月月考英语试题（含答案，无听力原文及音频）
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| 名称 | 河南省九师联盟2024-2025学年高二上学期12月月考英语试题（含答案，无听力原文及音频） |  | |
| 格式 | docx | ||
| 文件大小 | 40.1KB | ||
| 资源类型 | 教案 | ||
| 版本资源 | 人教版（2019） | ||
| 科目 | 英语 | ||
| 更新时间 | 2025-01-01 12:28:51 | ||
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文档简介
高二英语
考生注意:
1. 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分 150 分, 考试时间 120 分钟。
2. 答题前, 考生务必用直径 0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3. 考生作答时, 请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后, 用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑; 非选择题请用直径 0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答, 超出答题区域书写的答案无效, 在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共 5 小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后, 你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What will the weather probably be like at the weekend
A. Rainy. B. Windy. C. Snowy.
2. How much did the toy cars cost in total
A. 30. B. 50. C. 150.
3. What animal did the speakers get last month
A. A cat. B. A little pig. C. A rabbit.
4. What will the man do before going into town
A. Buy a textbook. B. Have his hair cut. C. Have breakfast.
5. What are the speakers talking about
A. Skin care. B. Health problems. C. Eating habits.
第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。对话或独白读两遍。
听第6 段材料, 回答第6、7题。
6 What gift does the girl want
A. A dictionary. B. A mobile phone. C. A coat.
7. How does the girl sound at the end of the conversation
A. Pleased. B. Puzzled. C. Annoyed.
听第7段材料, 回答第8至10题。
8. What does the woman say about the man
A He is talented. B. He will be regretful. C. He is always helpful.
9. What does the man promise to do
A. Greet the judges. B. Keep writing poems. C. Enter the competition.
10. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Classmates. B. Coworkers. C. Teacher and student.
听第8段材料, 回答第11至13题。
11. What is the man’s attitude to the woman’s recommendation
A. Doubtful. B. Uncaring. C. Positive.
12. What do we know about the woman
A. She is a newcomer.
B. She is good at cooking.
C. She is the man’s neighbor.
13. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At a ticket office. B. At a coffee shop. C. At a clothing store.
听第9段材料, 回答第14至16题。
14. Which language can the man speak
A. French. B. Portuguese. C. Arabic.
15. When has the man lived in the US
A Since college. B. Since high school. C. Since primary school.
16. Which country would the woman like to visit
A. Britain. B. Italy. C. Congo.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the speaker most likely talking to
A. His friends. B. His customers. C. His children.
18. When will the flight leave tomorrow
A. At 5:00 am. B. At 9:00 am. C. At 10:00 pm.
19. What will the speaker need to collect
A. ID cards. B. Passports. C. Tickets.
20. What is the speaker most eager to do
A. Play golf. B. Visit beaches. C. Climb mountains.
第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Four Books to Read for Students
Essentialism: The Disciplined Pursuit of Less — by Greg McKeown
Publication date: 2014
The reality is that we cannot have it all, and we need to commit to our goals. McKeown advocates for the essentialist mindset — focusing on what truly matters and ruling out non-essential tasks, decisions and commitments. By applying a more selective criteria (标准) for what is essential, we are empowered to reclaim control over our own choices and get the right things done.
Surrounded by Idiots — by Thomas Erikson
Publication date: 2014
Erikson introduces the concept that there are four personality types (Red, Blue, Green and Yellow). Reds are powerful, yellows are social, greens are laid back and blues are analytical. Through this theory, Erikson shows the readers how to identify a friend’s or a coworker’s colour and thus adjust how to speak and work with then.
The Productivity Project — by Chris Bailey
Publication date: 2016
After turning down a profitable job offer, Bailey spent a year learning more about how to improve productivity (效率). The year-long experiment includes living alone, giving up coffee and sugar, working 90 hours a week, getting up at 5:30 am every day, and gaining muscle mass so that the readers can learn more about what truly makes them more productive. In order to write the book, he also interviewed some of the world’s well-known experts. The book records these experiences and his interviews in order to offer practical tips and insights backed by research to help the readers achieve more with less effort.
The 5 AM Club — by Robin Sharma
Publication date; 2018
In The 5 AM Club, Sharma presents a fictional story combined with practical advice on personal development, time management and the benefits of waking up at 5:00 am. With humour and light-heartedness, Sharma shows the readers how great business minds start their day, offers advice on how to instantly wake up feeling inspired and focused, and generates a step-by-step method to protect those quiet hours of the morning so that the readers can make the most out of being in the 5 AM club.
1. What is the theme of Surrounded by Idiots
A. Loneliness. B. Duty. C. Relationship. D. Power.
2. What preparation did Chris Bailey make for writing his book
A. Drinking coffee. B. Interviewing experts.
C. Living with other writers. D. Getting up at 5:00 am every day.
3. Which of the following is the latest published book
A. The 5 AM Club. B. Surrounded by Idiots.
C. The Productivity Project. D. Essentialism: The Disciplined Pursuit of Less.
B
On Wednesday, Brazilian artist Mundano presented a massive street mural (壁画) in Sao Paulo that used ash (灰烬) from wildfires and mud (泥土) from floods to highlight extreme weather events across the country as well as their causes.
Over 30 meters high and 48 meters wide, the mural showed deforestation and severe drought in the Amazon Rainforest with its dry brown earth and gray tree stumps (树桩). It featured the native activist Alessandra Korap holding a sign that said, “Stop the destruction. Keep your promise.”
It was a call to the Minnesota-based soy giant Cargill, according to Mundano. Soy farming is one of the biggest drivers of deforestation in the Amazon. Cargill said on its website that it would stop deforestation from its supply chain in Brazil, Argentina and Uruguay by 2025. But Mundano wished the company to stop cutting trees immediately.
Drought has caused a critical situation nationwide, and forecasts indicate it will persist in much of the country through at least the rest of the month, according to a Sunday report from Cemaden, Brazil’s disaster warning center.
The depth of the Amazon’s Negro River was 12. 46 meters on Tuesday, a slight increase from 10 days earlier, when it registered its lowest level since measurements started 122 years ago. Tuesday’s depth was still around 6 meters less than usual for the same date in prior years, according to data from the Manaus port. Rivers in Brazil’s Amazon always rise and fall with its rainy and dry seasons. But the dry season this year is much worse than usual.
Earlier this year, a flood in the southern state of Rio Grande do Sul killed more than 180 people, affected over 2 million people and destroyed urban communities.
“From droughts to floods, everything is connected!” Mundano said in a post on Tuesday, accompanied by a video showing the mural in Sao Paulo, which the artist said was his biggest ever.
4. What is paragraph 2 mainly about
A. The harm of climate change. B. The access to the Amazon Rainforest.
C. The introduction of n painting. D. The achievement of Alessandra Korap.
5. What did Mundano think of Cargill’s online statement
A. Boring B. Entertaining. C. Demanding. D. Unsatisfying.
6. What does the underlined word “persist” in paragraph 4 probably mean
A. Continue. B. Disappear. C. Work. D. Shine.
7. What can we infer from the text
A. People should keep their promises. B. Natural disasters cannot be ignored.
C. Learning drawing is a difficult process. D. People should adapt to the environment.
C
The Australian government announced a world-leading law on Thursday that it would set an age limit of 16 years for children to start using social media. The law was introduced in a national meeting this year. The age limit will take effect 12 months after the law is passed. The platforms will need to use that year to work out how to exclude Australian children younger than 16. Social media companies will be fined for breaking the age limit, but under-age children and their parents will not.
The proposal came as governments around the world have been working to address how to police young people’s use of technologies like smartphones and social media.
The Digital Industry Group Inc.(DIGI), an advocate for the digital industry in Australia, described the age limit as a “20th-century response to 21st-century challenges”. “Rather than blocking access through bans (禁令), we need to take a balanced approach to create age-appropriate spaces, and protect young people from online harm,” DIGI managing director Sunita Bose said in a statement.
More than 140 Australian and international academics with expertise in fields related to technology and child welfare signed an open letter to the government last month, opposing a social media age limit as it was too foolish to address risks effectively. Jackie Hallan, a director at the youth mental health service ReachOut, strongly disagreed with the ban. She said 73% of young people across Australia got mental health support through social media.
Child psychologist Philip Tam said a minimum age of 12 or 13 would have been more enforceable. “My real fear honestly is that the problem of social media will simply be driven underground,” Tam said.
Antigone Davis, head of safety at Meta, said the company would respect any age limitations the government wanted to introduce. “However, what’s missing is a deeper discussion on how we carry out protections, otherwise we risk making ourselves feel better, because we have taken action, but teens and parents will not find themselves in a better place,” Davis said.
8. Who will be punished if a 13-year-old boy is found using social media according to the law
A. Related companies. B. His parents.
C. He himself. D. His teachers.
9. Which statement will Jackie Hallan probably agree with
A. Many kids develop mental health problems. B. Using social media is not all bad for children.
C. Children will download online apps secretly. D. Writing a letter to the government is foolish.
10. What does the author want to tell us in the last two paragraphs
A. It is high time to introduce strict polices.
B Parents worry about the problem of social media.
C App stores oppose age limitations on their users.
D. The proposed law may not lead to desirable results.
11. What is the best title for the text
A. Why Technology Has Changed the World
B. Social Media Brings Benefits and Risks to Teenagers
C. How Australia Built Impressive Education Environment
D. Australia Plans a Social Media Ban for Children Under 16
D
For the past eight years, farmers and fishermen along northern India’s Gandak River have raised and reintroduced more than 600 eggs and babies of the critically endangered gharial (恒河鳄).
Now found only in India and Nepal, these crocodile relatives once lived in over 30,000 square miles of South Asian rivers. Due to habitat loss, illegal hunting and accidental fishing deaths, the species’ population reduced from 10,000 in 1946 to fewer than 250 in 2006, according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature.
In an effort to save the unique animal, the Indian government and nonprofits have made great efforts. One of their programs is the Gandak Gharial Recovery Project, which has empowered people in 35 villages on the floodplains of the Gandak to protect the gharial.
Usually in April, community members celebrate the first sighting of a gharial laying her eggs with picnics by the river bank, says Jitendra Gautam, a nest (巢穴) protector from Chilwania village. The communities then begin monitoring each nest, which houses about 35 to 50 eggs. If they’re at the risk of being washed away, trained volunteers will switch the nests to the nearest safe location, usually about 700 feet from the original site. During the removal, volunteers mark the eggs to make sure which nest they came from. Their new nest is then gently covered with sand and a net to safeguard them from cattle and other potential threats. Once the babies grow to a foot long, around mid-June, they’re carefully released into the river next to their mothers, which remain at their original nest sites.
The farmers and fishermen living along the river also look out for illegal activities, such as electrofishing or using passive fishing equipment, which can harm or kill gharials. Based on their reporting of such activities, authorities can take immediate legal action if needed.
“The role of the local communities in protecting the gharials and effortlessly co-existing with them has set an ideal example for saving other endangered species,” says B. C. Choudhury, member and former chair of the Crocodile Specialist Group of the International Union for Conservation of Nature.
12. What do the data in paragraph 2 show
A. Water problems facing the globe. B. The large size of India’s Gandak River.
C. The decrease of the gharial population. D. A dramatic change in India’s birth rate.
13. Why do volunteers mark the gharial eggs
A. To sell them at a good price. B. To keep track of their numbers.
C. To return the babies to the original nests later. D. To send them to different labs.
14. What does the author want to indicate by mentioning electrofishing
A. Different ways of fishing. B. Possible dangers to gharials.
C. Methods of feeding gharials. D. Threats from other animals.
15. What can be learned about the Gandak Gharial Recovery Project
A. It has achieved initial success. B. It sets an example for raising cattle.
C. It asks villagers to receive education. D. It is organized by the government of Nepal.
第二节(共5小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分)
阅读下而短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Doing something challenging takes courage, commitment and willpower. ___16___ ! Whether it’s finding your dream job, learning a new skill or starting a new wellness routine, you’ll grow and learn along the way. So, step outside of your comfort zone and face the challenge. You’ll learn lessons that can transform your life.
It builds your resilience (适应力).
When you face something difficult, you can build your resilience. Resilience isn’t just a fixed quality that you’re born with. ___17___ The key: set small, attainable goals that push you a little outside of your comfort zone but still within reach. You’ll gradually see progress and maintain motivation as you work toward self-improvement.
___18___ .
You may not realize how incredible you are until you overcome something difficult. Dealing with a challenge shows your strengths, maybe some you didn’t even know that you had! This self-awareness helps develop a sense of purpose. It also helps improve performance and leads to better decision-making.
It teaches you self-confidence.
Completing a challenge shows you do have the capability to succeed. In other words, when things get difficult, you have the strength to continue forward, giving you a newfound sense of self-worth. ___19___ .
It helps you learn new skills.
If you want to improve your fitness, you challenge your body to become stronger, right ___20___ ! Challenging yourself helps you learn new skills that you improve over time with commitment and practice. So find a goal that you feel crazy about. You’ll expand your mind as you learn new information and experience new situations.
A. But it’s well worth it
B. It develops self-awareness
C. It helps you manage stress
D. You can also train yourself to become resilient
E. That same approach applies to just about anything
F. You’ll experience a bad meal in an unfamiliar place
G. You’ll carry that confidence as you face future challenges
第三部分 语言运用(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Xiao Ma was just eight years old when his parents were involved in a terrible car accident. It ___21___ his father’s life and left his mother ___22___ to move. He and his older sister were ___23___ to take care of themselves as well as their ___24___ , who later developed cerebral atrophy (脑萎缩) as a consequence of the car accident.
Growing up, Xiao Ma opened his own restaurant in Xinjiang. Most of the money he made went towards his mother’s ___25___ , and his hard work seemed to ___26___ . His mother was slowly able to leave the bed to ___27___ in a wheelchair and even take a few small steps. However, a few years later, Xiao Ma got the ___28___ news that his mother’s cerebral atrophy was not only incurable but ___29___ continuously. That’s when he decided to make the best of the ___30___ she left with him.
___31___ focusing on his business, Xiao Ma ___32___ to sell his house and his car so that he could take his mother on trips around China. They have ___33___ Tianshan Mountain, Tianchi Lake and other places in Xinjiang, as well as Beijing’s Tiananmen Square and the Great Wall. The elderly woman could no longer speak, but she always ___34___ when they traveled, which was good enough for her ___35___ son.
21. A. ruled B. claimed C. wasted D. risked
22. A. ashamed B. unwilling C. scared D. unable
23. A. forced B. excited C. employed D. moved
24. A. brother B. father C. mother D. sister
25. A. career B. recovery C. house D. growth
26. A. go away B. speed up C. come back D. pay off
27. A. sit B. lie C. live D. stand
28. A. priceless B. terrible C. useless D. false
29. A. working B. changing C. worsening D. approaching
30. A. gift B. time C. job D. opportunity
31. A. Instead of B. In addition to C. Regardless of D. By comparison with
32. A. happened B. learned C. pretended D. decided
33. A. drawn B. imagined C. visited D. designed
34. A. smiled B. listened C. waved D. won
35. A. humorous B. curious C. dishonest D. loving
第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Wanzy Lo, Sign Language Officer of the Hong Kong Society for the Deaf, ___36___ (participate) in teaching the public to create their own names in sign language during an activity to promote the communication method late last month. “Hello! My name is Wanzy. I’m a cat lover,” Lo said, ___37___ (place) three fingers on her face when introducing herself.
This April, Lo and one of her coworkers were invited ___38___ (serve) as sign language interpreters at the Hong Kong Film Awards. “Film is ___39___ art. Interpreting films is not just about passing on information ___40___ the audience but also expressing the emotions, ” Lo said. When handling singing performances and touching speeches, she would use her facial expressions to make the deaf audience more ___41___ (engage).
Nearly 10 years ago, the Hong Kong Special Administrative Region government and the Legislative Council began introducing instant sign language interpretation for important ___42___ (meeting), with the Hong Kong Society for the Deaf playing a pioneering role.
Sign language interpretation is challenging, especially in live programs ___43___ require quick responses and rapid delivery. Interpreters must pay attention to various information in their ___44___ (day) lives. According to the “List of Sign Language Interpreters in Hong Kong” set up by local welfare organizations, there are ____45____ (current) more than 50 sign language interpreters in Hong Kong who meet the basic requirements.
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 你校将举办英语演讲比赛。请你以How English Songs Help Us Students with English Learning为题写一篇发言稿参赛。
注意:1. 写作词数应为80个左右
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
How English Songs Help Us Students with English Learning
Hello, everyone! I’m honored to stand here to talk about how English songs help us students with English learning.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all. Thank you!
第二节(满分 25 分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
In order to play softball well and safely, players should prepare the proper equipment. The most important pieces of equipment are the bat, gloves, helmet and the ball. The bat is made of metal or wood and meets the size in the rules. The gloves worn by all players on the field are of the appropriate size for the individual players.
A softball game was held recently between two high schools in Mason City. When everything was ready, the game began. However, during the game, a terrible accident took place.
A player named Seth Abate was up to bat, and he was struck in the chest by a softball. At first, it seemed like a routine fly ball. Unfortunately, that wasn’t the case. As Seth immediately fell to the ground, his parents, who were watching from the stands, rushed onto the field to check on him. The game had to be stopped.
At the same time, a nurse called Megan Siefkas who was watching the game stepped up, too. She was on duty near the field at a medical tent with her husband and her medical bag. The bag contained oxygen and other first-aid supplies. When she saw that Seth was struggling to breathe and turned pale, she knew it was a serious situation and didn’t hesitate to act. She immediately began to perform first aid and asked her husband to bring her the medical bag quickly. Seth’s father realized how serious the situation was and called the ambulance at once.
Then Siefkas put an oxygen mask (面罩) on Seth and monitored his vital signs while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. She also asked the people on the spot to clear the area, giving Seth space to breathe and keep calm. The crowd, including Seth’s friends and parents who couldn’t help but feel anxious, followed the nurse’s advice.
注意：1. 续写词数应为150个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Soon the ambulance came.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
After Seth was discharged from the hospital, the Abates wanted to thank Siefkas.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1~5 АСВСС 6~10 ВААВС 11~15 САВАВ 16~20 ВСВАА
高二英语
考生注意:
1. 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分 150 分, 考试时间 120 分钟。
2. 答题前, 考生务必用直径 0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3. 考生作答时, 请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后, 用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑; 非选择题请用直径 0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答, 超出答题区域书写的答案无效, 在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共 5 小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后, 你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What will the weather probably be like at the weekend
A. Rainy. B. Windy. C. Snowy.
2. How much did the toy cars cost in total
A. 30. B. 50. C. 150.
3. What animal did the speakers get last month
A. A cat. B. A little pig. C. A rabbit.
4. What will the man do before going into town
A. Buy a textbook. B. Have his hair cut. C. Have breakfast.
5. What are the speakers talking about
A. Skin care. B. Health problems. C. Eating habits.
第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。对话或独白读两遍。
听第6 段材料, 回答第6、7题。
6. What gift does the girl want
A. A dictionary. B. A mobile phone. C. A coat.
7. How does the girl sound at the end of the conversation
A. Pleased. B. Puzzled. C. Annoyed.
听第7段材料, 回答第8至10题。
8. What does the woman say about the man
A. He is talented. B. He will be regretful. C. He is always helpful.
9. What does the man promise to do
A. Greet the judges. B. Keep writing poems. C. Enter the competition.
10. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Classmates. B. Coworkers. C. Teacher and student.
听第8段材料, 回答第11至13题。
11. What is the man’s attitude to the woman’s recommendation
A. Doubtful. B. Uncaring. C. Positive.
12. What do we know about the woman
A. She is a newcomer.
B. She is good at cooking.
C. She is the man’s neighbor.
13. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At a ticket office. B. At a coffee shop. C. At a clothing store.
听第9段材料, 回答第14至16题。
14. Which language can the man speak
A. French. B. Portuguese. C. Arabic.
15. When has the man lived in the US
A. Since college. B. Since high school. C. Since primary school.
16. Which country would the woman like to visit
A. Britain. B. Italy. C. Congo.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the speaker most likely talking to
A. His friends. B. His customers. C. His children.
18. When will the flight leave tomorrow
A. At 5:00 am. B. At 9:00 am. C. At 10:00 pm.
19. What will the speaker need to collect
A. ID cards. B. Passports. C. Tickets.
20. What is the speaker most eager to do
A. Play golf. B. Visit beaches. C. Climb mountains.
第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. C 2. B 3. A
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. A 9. B 10. D 11. D
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. C 14. B 15. A
第二节(共5小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分)
阅读下而短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. A 17. D 18. B 19. G 20. E
第三部分 语言运用(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. B 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. D
第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. participated
37. placing
38. to serve
39. an 40. to
41. engaged
42. meetings
43. which##that
44. daily 45. currently
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】How English Songs Help Us Students with English Learning
Hello, everyone! I’m honored to stand here to talk about how English songs help us students with English learning.
When we hear a beautiful English song, we will unconsciously sing along with it. This can improve our pronunciation and oral expression. English songs can also help us expand our vocabulary. Songs often contain words and expressions that are not commonly used in everyday conversation. By memorizing the lyrics, we can naturally learn and master these new words. Besides, English songs can help us understand Western culture. Many English songs contain rich cultural expressions, which are excellent materials for us to explore the culture of English speaking countries.
Let’s feel the charm of English in the beautiful melody and make progress together!
That’s all. Thank you!
第二节(满分 25 分)
【47题答案】
【答案】范文
Soon the ambulance came. Seth was taken to the hospital where he received treatment. The doctor told his parents that in this situation, the nurse’s presence and quick response were critical in preventing a tragedy. Without her urgent treatment. Seth would probably lose his life. Hearing the doctor’s words, Seth’s parents felt very fortunate and grateful. They wanted to say thanks to Sicfkas for what she had done, but found out that she had already left.
After Seth was discharged from the hospital the Abates wanted to thank Siefkas. They found the nurse’s contact information via the school. Seth expressed his gratitude to Siefkas and said he was lucky to have had her nearby. He described the experience as scary, but said he was recovering well. His parents also admired Siefkas’s heroic actions and thanked her for being there when their son needed her. More importantly, through this accident- they all realized the importance of having medical professionals available at sporting events, especially those involving high school students.
1~5 АСВСС 6~10 ВААВС 11~15 САВАВ 16~20 ВСВАА
考生注意:
1. 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分 150 分, 考试时间 120 分钟。
2. 答题前, 考生务必用直径 0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3. 考生作答时, 请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后, 用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑; 非选择题请用直径 0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答, 超出答题区域书写的答案无效, 在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共 5 小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后, 你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What will the weather probably be like at the weekend
A. Rainy. B. Windy. C. Snowy.
2. How much did the toy cars cost in total
A. 30. B. 50. C. 150.
3. What animal did the speakers get last month
A. A cat. B. A little pig. C. A rabbit.
4. What will the man do before going into town
A. Buy a textbook. B. Have his hair cut. C. Have breakfast.
5. What are the speakers talking about
A. Skin care. B. Health problems. C. Eating habits.
第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。对话或独白读两遍。
听第6 段材料, 回答第6、7题。
6 What gift does the girl want
A. A dictionary. B. A mobile phone. C. A coat.
7. How does the girl sound at the end of the conversation
A. Pleased. B. Puzzled. C. Annoyed.
听第7段材料, 回答第8至10题。
8. What does the woman say about the man
A He is talented. B. He will be regretful. C. He is always helpful.
9. What does the man promise to do
A. Greet the judges. B. Keep writing poems. C. Enter the competition.
10. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Classmates. B. Coworkers. C. Teacher and student.
听第8段材料, 回答第11至13题。
11. What is the man’s attitude to the woman’s recommendation
A. Doubtful. B. Uncaring. C. Positive.
12. What do we know about the woman
A. She is a newcomer.
B. She is good at cooking.
C. She is the man’s neighbor.
13. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At a ticket office. B. At a coffee shop. C. At a clothing store.
听第9段材料, 回答第14至16题。
14. Which language can the man speak
A. French. B. Portuguese. C. Arabic.
15. When has the man lived in the US
A Since college. B. Since high school. C. Since primary school.
16. Which country would the woman like to visit
A. Britain. B. Italy. C. Congo.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the speaker most likely talking to
A. His friends. B. His customers. C. His children.
18. When will the flight leave tomorrow
A. At 5:00 am. B. At 9:00 am. C. At 10:00 pm.
19. What will the speaker need to collect
A. ID cards. B. Passports. C. Tickets.
20. What is the speaker most eager to do
A. Play golf. B. Visit beaches. C. Climb mountains.
第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Four Books to Read for Students
Essentialism: The Disciplined Pursuit of Less — by Greg McKeown
Publication date: 2014
The reality is that we cannot have it all, and we need to commit to our goals. McKeown advocates for the essentialist mindset — focusing on what truly matters and ruling out non-essential tasks, decisions and commitments. By applying a more selective criteria (标准) for what is essential, we are empowered to reclaim control over our own choices and get the right things done.
Surrounded by Idiots — by Thomas Erikson
Publication date: 2014
Erikson introduces the concept that there are four personality types (Red, Blue, Green and Yellow). Reds are powerful, yellows are social, greens are laid back and blues are analytical. Through this theory, Erikson shows the readers how to identify a friend’s or a coworker’s colour and thus adjust how to speak and work with then.
The Productivity Project — by Chris Bailey
Publication date: 2016
After turning down a profitable job offer, Bailey spent a year learning more about how to improve productivity (效率). The year-long experiment includes living alone, giving up coffee and sugar, working 90 hours a week, getting up at 5:30 am every day, and gaining muscle mass so that the readers can learn more about what truly makes them more productive. In order to write the book, he also interviewed some of the world’s well-known experts. The book records these experiences and his interviews in order to offer practical tips and insights backed by research to help the readers achieve more with less effort.
The 5 AM Club — by Robin Sharma
Publication date; 2018
In The 5 AM Club, Sharma presents a fictional story combined with practical advice on personal development, time management and the benefits of waking up at 5:00 am. With humour and light-heartedness, Sharma shows the readers how great business minds start their day, offers advice on how to instantly wake up feeling inspired and focused, and generates a step-by-step method to protect those quiet hours of the morning so that the readers can make the most out of being in the 5 AM club.
1. What is the theme of Surrounded by Idiots
A. Loneliness. B. Duty. C. Relationship. D. Power.
2. What preparation did Chris Bailey make for writing his book
A. Drinking coffee. B. Interviewing experts.
C. Living with other writers. D. Getting up at 5:00 am every day.
3. Which of the following is the latest published book
A. The 5 AM Club. B. Surrounded by Idiots.
C. The Productivity Project. D. Essentialism: The Disciplined Pursuit of Less.
B
On Wednesday, Brazilian artist Mundano presented a massive street mural (壁画) in Sao Paulo that used ash (灰烬) from wildfires and mud (泥土) from floods to highlight extreme weather events across the country as well as their causes.
Over 30 meters high and 48 meters wide, the mural showed deforestation and severe drought in the Amazon Rainforest with its dry brown earth and gray tree stumps (树桩). It featured the native activist Alessandra Korap holding a sign that said, “Stop the destruction. Keep your promise.”
It was a call to the Minnesota-based soy giant Cargill, according to Mundano. Soy farming is one of the biggest drivers of deforestation in the Amazon. Cargill said on its website that it would stop deforestation from its supply chain in Brazil, Argentina and Uruguay by 2025. But Mundano wished the company to stop cutting trees immediately.
Drought has caused a critical situation nationwide, and forecasts indicate it will persist in much of the country through at least the rest of the month, according to a Sunday report from Cemaden, Brazil’s disaster warning center.
The depth of the Amazon’s Negro River was 12. 46 meters on Tuesday, a slight increase from 10 days earlier, when it registered its lowest level since measurements started 122 years ago. Tuesday’s depth was still around 6 meters less than usual for the same date in prior years, according to data from the Manaus port. Rivers in Brazil’s Amazon always rise and fall with its rainy and dry seasons. But the dry season this year is much worse than usual.
Earlier this year, a flood in the southern state of Rio Grande do Sul killed more than 180 people, affected over 2 million people and destroyed urban communities.
“From droughts to floods, everything is connected!” Mundano said in a post on Tuesday, accompanied by a video showing the mural in Sao Paulo, which the artist said was his biggest ever.
4. What is paragraph 2 mainly about
A. The harm of climate change. B. The access to the Amazon Rainforest.
C. The introduction of n painting. D. The achievement of Alessandra Korap.
5. What did Mundano think of Cargill’s online statement
A. Boring B. Entertaining. C. Demanding. D. Unsatisfying.
6. What does the underlined word “persist” in paragraph 4 probably mean
A. Continue. B. Disappear. C. Work. D. Shine.
7. What can we infer from the text
A. People should keep their promises. B. Natural disasters cannot be ignored.
C. Learning drawing is a difficult process. D. People should adapt to the environment.
C
The Australian government announced a world-leading law on Thursday that it would set an age limit of 16 years for children to start using social media. The law was introduced in a national meeting this year. The age limit will take effect 12 months after the law is passed. The platforms will need to use that year to work out how to exclude Australian children younger than 16. Social media companies will be fined for breaking the age limit, but under-age children and their parents will not.
The proposal came as governments around the world have been working to address how to police young people’s use of technologies like smartphones and social media.
The Digital Industry Group Inc.(DIGI), an advocate for the digital industry in Australia, described the age limit as a “20th-century response to 21st-century challenges”. “Rather than blocking access through bans (禁令), we need to take a balanced approach to create age-appropriate spaces, and protect young people from online harm,” DIGI managing director Sunita Bose said in a statement.
More than 140 Australian and international academics with expertise in fields related to technology and child welfare signed an open letter to the government last month, opposing a social media age limit as it was too foolish to address risks effectively. Jackie Hallan, a director at the youth mental health service ReachOut, strongly disagreed with the ban. She said 73% of young people across Australia got mental health support through social media.
Child psychologist Philip Tam said a minimum age of 12 or 13 would have been more enforceable. “My real fear honestly is that the problem of social media will simply be driven underground,” Tam said.
Antigone Davis, head of safety at Meta, said the company would respect any age limitations the government wanted to introduce. “However, what’s missing is a deeper discussion on how we carry out protections, otherwise we risk making ourselves feel better, because we have taken action, but teens and parents will not find themselves in a better place,” Davis said.
8. Who will be punished if a 13-year-old boy is found using social media according to the law
A. Related companies. B. His parents.
C. He himself. D. His teachers.
9. Which statement will Jackie Hallan probably agree with
A. Many kids develop mental health problems. B. Using social media is not all bad for children.
C. Children will download online apps secretly. D. Writing a letter to the government is foolish.
10. What does the author want to tell us in the last two paragraphs
A. It is high time to introduce strict polices.
B Parents worry about the problem of social media.
C App stores oppose age limitations on their users.
D. The proposed law may not lead to desirable results.
11. What is the best title for the text
A. Why Technology Has Changed the World
B. Social Media Brings Benefits and Risks to Teenagers
C. How Australia Built Impressive Education Environment
D. Australia Plans a Social Media Ban for Children Under 16
D
For the past eight years, farmers and fishermen along northern India’s Gandak River have raised and reintroduced more than 600 eggs and babies of the critically endangered gharial (恒河鳄).
Now found only in India and Nepal, these crocodile relatives once lived in over 30,000 square miles of South Asian rivers. Due to habitat loss, illegal hunting and accidental fishing deaths, the species’ population reduced from 10,000 in 1946 to fewer than 250 in 2006, according to the International Union for Conservation of Nature.
In an effort to save the unique animal, the Indian government and nonprofits have made great efforts. One of their programs is the Gandak Gharial Recovery Project, which has empowered people in 35 villages on the floodplains of the Gandak to protect the gharial.
Usually in April, community members celebrate the first sighting of a gharial laying her eggs with picnics by the river bank, says Jitendra Gautam, a nest (巢穴) protector from Chilwania village. The communities then begin monitoring each nest, which houses about 35 to 50 eggs. If they’re at the risk of being washed away, trained volunteers will switch the nests to the nearest safe location, usually about 700 feet from the original site. During the removal, volunteers mark the eggs to make sure which nest they came from. Their new nest is then gently covered with sand and a net to safeguard them from cattle and other potential threats. Once the babies grow to a foot long, around mid-June, they’re carefully released into the river next to their mothers, which remain at their original nest sites.
The farmers and fishermen living along the river also look out for illegal activities, such as electrofishing or using passive fishing equipment, which can harm or kill gharials. Based on their reporting of such activities, authorities can take immediate legal action if needed.
“The role of the local communities in protecting the gharials and effortlessly co-existing with them has set an ideal example for saving other endangered species,” says B. C. Choudhury, member and former chair of the Crocodile Specialist Group of the International Union for Conservation of Nature.
12. What do the data in paragraph 2 show
A. Water problems facing the globe. B. The large size of India’s Gandak River.
C. The decrease of the gharial population. D. A dramatic change in India’s birth rate.
13. Why do volunteers mark the gharial eggs
A. To sell them at a good price. B. To keep track of their numbers.
C. To return the babies to the original nests later. D. To send them to different labs.
14. What does the author want to indicate by mentioning electrofishing
A. Different ways of fishing. B. Possible dangers to gharials.
C. Methods of feeding gharials. D. Threats from other animals.
15. What can be learned about the Gandak Gharial Recovery Project
A. It has achieved initial success. B. It sets an example for raising cattle.
C. It asks villagers to receive education. D. It is organized by the government of Nepal.
第二节(共5小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分)
阅读下而短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Doing something challenging takes courage, commitment and willpower. ___16___ ! Whether it’s finding your dream job, learning a new skill or starting a new wellness routine, you’ll grow and learn along the way. So, step outside of your comfort zone and face the challenge. You’ll learn lessons that can transform your life.
It builds your resilience (适应力).
When you face something difficult, you can build your resilience. Resilience isn’t just a fixed quality that you’re born with. ___17___ The key: set small, attainable goals that push you a little outside of your comfort zone but still within reach. You’ll gradually see progress and maintain motivation as you work toward self-improvement.
___18___ .
You may not realize how incredible you are until you overcome something difficult. Dealing with a challenge shows your strengths, maybe some you didn’t even know that you had! This self-awareness helps develop a sense of purpose. It also helps improve performance and leads to better decision-making.
It teaches you self-confidence.
Completing a challenge shows you do have the capability to succeed. In other words, when things get difficult, you have the strength to continue forward, giving you a newfound sense of self-worth. ___19___ .
It helps you learn new skills.
If you want to improve your fitness, you challenge your body to become stronger, right ___20___ ! Challenging yourself helps you learn new skills that you improve over time with commitment and practice. So find a goal that you feel crazy about. You’ll expand your mind as you learn new information and experience new situations.
A. But it’s well worth it
B. It develops self-awareness
C. It helps you manage stress
D. You can also train yourself to become resilient
E. That same approach applies to just about anything
F. You’ll experience a bad meal in an unfamiliar place
G. You’ll carry that confidence as you face future challenges
第三部分 语言运用(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Xiao Ma was just eight years old when his parents were involved in a terrible car accident. It ___21___ his father’s life and left his mother ___22___ to move. He and his older sister were ___23___ to take care of themselves as well as their ___24___ , who later developed cerebral atrophy (脑萎缩) as a consequence of the car accident.
Growing up, Xiao Ma opened his own restaurant in Xinjiang. Most of the money he made went towards his mother’s ___25___ , and his hard work seemed to ___26___ . His mother was slowly able to leave the bed to ___27___ in a wheelchair and even take a few small steps. However, a few years later, Xiao Ma got the ___28___ news that his mother’s cerebral atrophy was not only incurable but ___29___ continuously. That’s when he decided to make the best of the ___30___ she left with him.
___31___ focusing on his business, Xiao Ma ___32___ to sell his house and his car so that he could take his mother on trips around China. They have ___33___ Tianshan Mountain, Tianchi Lake and other places in Xinjiang, as well as Beijing’s Tiananmen Square and the Great Wall. The elderly woman could no longer speak, but she always ___34___ when they traveled, which was good enough for her ___35___ son.
21. A. ruled B. claimed C. wasted D. risked
22. A. ashamed B. unwilling C. scared D. unable
23. A. forced B. excited C. employed D. moved
24. A. brother B. father C. mother D. sister
25. A. career B. recovery C. house D. growth
26. A. go away B. speed up C. come back D. pay off
27. A. sit B. lie C. live D. stand
28. A. priceless B. terrible C. useless D. false
29. A. working B. changing C. worsening D. approaching
30. A. gift B. time C. job D. opportunity
31. A. Instead of B. In addition to C. Regardless of D. By comparison with
32. A. happened B. learned C. pretended D. decided
33. A. drawn B. imagined C. visited D. designed
34. A. smiled B. listened C. waved D. won
35. A. humorous B. curious C. dishonest D. loving
第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Wanzy Lo, Sign Language Officer of the Hong Kong Society for the Deaf, ___36___ (participate) in teaching the public to create their own names in sign language during an activity to promote the communication method late last month. “Hello! My name is Wanzy. I’m a cat lover,” Lo said, ___37___ (place) three fingers on her face when introducing herself.
This April, Lo and one of her coworkers were invited ___38___ (serve) as sign language interpreters at the Hong Kong Film Awards. “Film is ___39___ art. Interpreting films is not just about passing on information ___40___ the audience but also expressing the emotions, ” Lo said. When handling singing performances and touching speeches, she would use her facial expressions to make the deaf audience more ___41___ (engage).
Nearly 10 years ago, the Hong Kong Special Administrative Region government and the Legislative Council began introducing instant sign language interpretation for important ___42___ (meeting), with the Hong Kong Society for the Deaf playing a pioneering role.
Sign language interpretation is challenging, especially in live programs ___43___ require quick responses and rapid delivery. Interpreters must pay attention to various information in their ___44___ (day) lives. According to the “List of Sign Language Interpreters in Hong Kong” set up by local welfare organizations, there are ____45____ (current) more than 50 sign language interpreters in Hong Kong who meet the basic requirements.
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 你校将举办英语演讲比赛。请你以How English Songs Help Us Students with English Learning为题写一篇发言稿参赛。
注意:1. 写作词数应为80个左右
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
How English Songs Help Us Students with English Learning
Hello, everyone! I’m honored to stand here to talk about how English songs help us students with English learning.
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all. Thank you!
第二节(满分 25 分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
In order to play softball well and safely, players should prepare the proper equipment. The most important pieces of equipment are the bat, gloves, helmet and the ball. The bat is made of metal or wood and meets the size in the rules. The gloves worn by all players on the field are of the appropriate size for the individual players.
A softball game was held recently between two high schools in Mason City. When everything was ready, the game began. However, during the game, a terrible accident took place.
A player named Seth Abate was up to bat, and he was struck in the chest by a softball. At first, it seemed like a routine fly ball. Unfortunately, that wasn’t the case. As Seth immediately fell to the ground, his parents, who were watching from the stands, rushed onto the field to check on him. The game had to be stopped.
At the same time, a nurse called Megan Siefkas who was watching the game stepped up, too. She was on duty near the field at a medical tent with her husband and her medical bag. The bag contained oxygen and other first-aid supplies. When she saw that Seth was struggling to breathe and turned pale, she knew it was a serious situation and didn’t hesitate to act. She immediately began to perform first aid and asked her husband to bring her the medical bag quickly. Seth’s father realized how serious the situation was and called the ambulance at once.
Then Siefkas put an oxygen mask (面罩) on Seth and monitored his vital signs while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. She also asked the people on the spot to clear the area, giving Seth space to breathe and keep calm. The crowd, including Seth’s friends and parents who couldn’t help but feel anxious, followed the nurse’s advice.
注意：1. 续写词数应为150个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Soon the ambulance came.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
After Seth was discharged from the hospital, the Abates wanted to thank Siefkas.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
1~5 АСВСС 6~10 ВААВС 11~15 САВАВ 16~20 ВСВАА
高二英语
考生注意:
1. 本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分 150 分, 考试时间 120 分钟。
2. 答题前, 考生务必用直径 0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写清楚。
3. 考生作答时, 请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后, 用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑; 非选择题请用直径 0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答, 超出答题区域书写的答案无效, 在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
第一部分 听力(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共 5 小题; 每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后, 你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What will the weather probably be like at the weekend
A. Rainy. B. Windy. C. Snowy.
2. How much did the toy cars cost in total
A. 30. B. 50. C. 150.
3. What animal did the speakers get last month
A. A cat. B. A little pig. C. A rabbit.
4. What will the man do before going into town
A. Buy a textbook. B. Have his hair cut. C. Have breakfast.
5. What are the speakers talking about
A. Skin care. B. Health problems. C. Eating habits.
第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。对话或独白读两遍。
听第6 段材料, 回答第6、7题。
6. What gift does the girl want
A. A dictionary. B. A mobile phone. C. A coat.
7. How does the girl sound at the end of the conversation
A. Pleased. B. Puzzled. C. Annoyed.
听第7段材料, 回答第8至10题。
8. What does the woman say about the man
A. He is talented. B. He will be regretful. C. He is always helpful.
9. What does the man promise to do
A. Greet the judges. B. Keep writing poems. C. Enter the competition.
10. What is the relationship between the speakers
A. Classmates. B. Coworkers. C. Teacher and student.
听第8段材料, 回答第11至13题。
11. What is the man’s attitude to the woman’s recommendation
A. Doubtful. B. Uncaring. C. Positive.
12. What do we know about the woman
A. She is a newcomer.
B. She is good at cooking.
C. She is the man’s neighbor.
13. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At a ticket office. B. At a coffee shop. C. At a clothing store.
听第9段材料, 回答第14至16题。
14. Which language can the man speak
A. French. B. Portuguese. C. Arabic.
15. When has the man lived in the US
A. Since college. B. Since high school. C. Since primary school.
16. Which country would the woman like to visit
A. Britain. B. Italy. C. Congo.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the speaker most likely talking to
A. His friends. B. His customers. C. His children.
18. When will the flight leave tomorrow
A. At 5:00 am. B. At 9:00 am. C. At 10:00 pm.
19. What will the speaker need to collect
A. ID cards. B. Passports. C. Tickets.
20. What is the speaker most eager to do
A. Play golf. B. Visit beaches. C. Climb mountains.
第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. C 2. B 3. A
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. C 5. D 6. A 7. B
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. A 9. B 10. D 11. D
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. C 14. B 15. A
第二节(共5小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分)
阅读下而短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. A 17. D 18. B 19. G 20. E
第三部分 语言运用(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共15小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. B 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. D
第二节(共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. participated
37. placing
38. to serve
39. an 40. to
41. engaged
42. meetings
43. which##that
44. daily 45. currently
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】How English Songs Help Us Students with English Learning
Hello, everyone! I’m honored to stand here to talk about how English songs help us students with English learning.
When we hear a beautiful English song, we will unconsciously sing along with it. This can improve our pronunciation and oral expression. English songs can also help us expand our vocabulary. Songs often contain words and expressions that are not commonly used in everyday conversation. By memorizing the lyrics, we can naturally learn and master these new words. Besides, English songs can help us understand Western culture. Many English songs contain rich cultural expressions, which are excellent materials for us to explore the culture of English speaking countries.
Let’s feel the charm of English in the beautiful melody and make progress together!
That’s all. Thank you!
第二节(满分 25 分)
【47题答案】
【答案】范文
Soon the ambulance came. Seth was taken to the hospital where he received treatment. The doctor told his parents that in this situation, the nurse’s presence and quick response were critical in preventing a tragedy. Without her urgent treatment. Seth would probably lose his life. Hearing the doctor’s words, Seth’s parents felt very fortunate and grateful. They wanted to say thanks to Sicfkas for what she had done, but found out that she had already left.
After Seth was discharged from the hospital the Abates wanted to thank Siefkas. They found the nurse’s contact information via the school. Seth expressed his gratitude to Siefkas and said he was lucky to have had her nearby. He described the experience as scary, but said he was recovering well. His parents also admired Siefkas’s heroic actions and thanked her for being there when their son needed her. More importantly, through this accident- they all realized the importance of having medical professionals available at sporting events, especially those involving high school students.
1~5 АСВСС 6~10 ВААВС 11~15 САВАВ 16~20 ВСВАА