广东省部分学校2024-2025学年高二上学期期末英语试题（含答案）

广东省2024—2025学年上学期期末考试
高二英语试卷
试卷共8页，47小题，满分120分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1．考查范围：选择性必修第一册～选择性必修第二册Unit3。
2．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡指定位置上。
3．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。
第一部分 阅读(共两节，满分50 分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
If your family is begging for a theme park getaway, look no further than a trip to the city of Orlando.
Universal Volcano Bay Water Park
You can’t miss the volcano at the center of Universal’s Volcano Bay Water Park. Attractions include a coaster with four-person canoes (独木舟), high-speed body slides and a lazy river with rapids and waves. An especially unique feature is the park’s virtual lines. For a quick walk to the park, stay at Universal’s Aventura Hotel.
Legoland Water Park
When you want a break from the bricks, head for Legoland Water Park. Families will find more than a dozen waterslides, a wave pool and a lazy river. At Creative Cove, visitors can build their own boats and race them against others, as well as test out their engineering skills by creating their own rafts (筏子) to float down the lazy river. Nearby accommodations include the Courtyard Winter Haven.
SeaWorld Orlando
SeaWorld Orlando has a mix of thrilling and more relaxed family-friendly rides. Younger kids can play around Sesame Street Land, which offers gentler rides like Elmo’s Choo Choo Train and Abby’s Flower Tower, complete with great views of the park. The Homewood Suites, the nearest hotel, offers a free hot breakfast daily, as well as a pool.
Fun Spot America
Located southwest of the city center Fun Spot America features classic theme park rides such as the only wooden coaster in Orlando. You’ll also find thrilling rides like the SkyCoaster. At about $60 per ticket, Fun Spot America is a great value for some thrills, and much more affordable than the huge Disney and Universal parks.
1. What can visitors do in Legoland Water Park
A. Play with brick games. B. Learn skills from engineers.
C. Create their own waterslides. D. Challenge others in boating.
2. In which park can visitors ride a unique coaster
A. Fun Spot America. B. Legoland Water Park.
C. SeaWorld Orlando. D. Universal Volcano Bay Water Park.
3. What do these theme parks have in common
A. They are all water parks.
B. They have volcanoes in the park.
C. They are located in the same city.
D. They offer hands-on experience.
B
On Sunday, attendees had been trapped after storms turned Nevada’s Black Rock Desert into a mud bath. Close to an inch of rainfall starting on Friday flooded the area and forced event organizers to close access to the Burning Man Festival until vehicles could safely pass and to warn campers to save food and water.
Despite reports of stuck vehicles and spotty Wi-Fi service, several attendees who spoke to NPR said the wet weather hadn’t lowered their spirits. “I would say honestly, walking around the city, spirits are pretty high,” attendee Anya Kamenetz said on Sunday.
The challenging conditions are testing a community of so-called “burners” which regards self-support and common effort as its main principles. Event volunteer Josh Lease said that in true Burning Man spirit, people are sharing warm clothes and phone chargers.
“It’s like any other Burning Man, just muddy,” Josh Lease told NPR on Saturday evening. “The warnings do sound very terrible, and of course, the organization has to tell people to take care,” said Claudia Peschiutta, an editor who attended the event, “but I haven’t seen one person who seems worried about it at all.”
Sense of loss and upset, however, started to affect some attendees by Sunday. In rainy Burning Mans past, longtime “burner” Joe Bamberg said he’s seen carpets and clothes eventually dry out. But this time, all was wet and seemed to never dry up. He expressed he would have no plan to come again.
At the same time, officials were investigating a death at the site. They said on Saturday that a person died during the event but offered few details, including whether the death was weather-related.
The muddy road is expected to dry up starting Monday, which is forecast to see clear skies, promising long waits in traffic on the final day of the annual event. But event organizers have yet to give detailed information of when gates will open to cars.
4. How did Anya Kamenetz feel when trapped
A. Inspired. B. Positive. C. Upset. D. Puzzled.
5. Why did people come to Nevada’s Black Rock Desert
A. They just passed by this area. B. They were on a sightseeing tour.
C. They came to join in an activity. D. They were learning survival skills.
6. What can we infer from Joe Bamberg’s words
A. It seldom rains at this time. B. He wouldn’t come any longer.
C. He felt frightened at the bad news. D. People should prepare more goods.
7. What is this passage
A. A diary. B. A scientific article.
C. A novel. D. A news report.
C
Like many fans, Jerad Castillo has a box full of tickets from the games and concerts he’s attended. There are some great memories — like a ticket for the U. S. Open Golf Tournament in 2019. And painful ones — like one from when his beloved Texas Rangers lost in Game 5 of the World Series in 2010．
But Castillo hasn’t added to his collection for a while. Tickets are digital now, but the 40-year-old Fort Worth resident still misses his treasured stubs (票根). “You have your digital ticket, but as soon as you enter the event and that day goes, you have nothing to look back on that, you know ” he says.
But there’s good news for fans like Castillo. Some sports teams and concert promoters are starting to sell physical tickets again. Not the ones from the past, with the bar codes and the tear-off stubs. These are much higher quality, usually with a nice photo or art design. Typically, they are issued to mark a big game or moment.
They are becoming a bit of a hit, according to Weldon, Williams & Lick (WW&L), a printing company that is working to produce the tickets. “There’s still always that connection to an actual ticket,” says Evan Gitomer, the company’s chief revenue officer. “It reminds you, and it takes you back, just like the sense of smell.”
WW&L has been producing tickets for over a century. Today, they’ve found a niche producing paper souvenir tickets for big events. These tickets usually sell for $15 to $20. They’re not included in the game’s actual admission price, so some fans resent having to pay more money later for a ticket to a game or event they already attended. But they are selling and the company’s income has more than doubled in the last couple of years.
“There’s probably some type of limit to where this can actually get to,” Gitomer says. But he adds that every time he thinks that, he bumps into a fan who appreciates the chance to own a physical reminder of a game or a concert from a favorite artist.
8. What differs the new physical tickets from the previous ones
A. They are made of plastic. B. They are sweet to smell.
C. They have photos on them. D. They can be obtained online.
9. What does the underlined word “resent” in paragraph 5 probably mean
A. Admit. B. Hate. C. Consider. D. Suggest.
10. What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A Some fans like souvenir tickets.
B. Gitomer has some fans of his own.
C. There is a limit to buying paper tickets.
D. Not all have the chance to get souvenir tickets.
11 What can be a suitable title for the passage
A. Many People Miss Paper Tickets B. Why Are Paper Tickets Disappearing
C Digital Tickets Are Being Resisted D. Who Are Fond of Physical Tickets
D
Extreme weather events like heatwaves, heavy rain, and droughts stress plants, which can reduce crop yields and threaten the long-term health of our farms, forests, and biodiversity. There is an unmet need to monitor precisely how plants respond to these changes. While drones and aircraft have improved plant monitoring from above, they only capture (捕获) surface-level information. They also need adjustments to be able to track plants accurately over time. Other small sensors that can capture changes at the individual plant level are inconvenient since they often require on-site personnel to install and manually check each sensor.
“The traditional methods may work well for some purposes, but they are difficult to operate and quite expensive,” explains Kaori Kohzuma, the developer of sensors, “In order to continuously monitor small changes, we needed a new solution.”
To address these issues, a team of researchers developed a novel sensor that attaches directly to the underside of plant leaves. This small device uses a spectroscopic (光谱的) sensor and light source to measure leaf color without blocking sunlight, and it can track changes in the same spot over time. Powered by a battery, with Wi-Fi data transfer and waterproofing, the sensor can work outdoors for over a month, allowing for extended data collection.
This sensor performed well when compared with a commercial spectrometer on about 90 leaves from 30 different plant species. It accurately distinguished colors across seven out of its eight detectable wavelengths.
In an outdoor trial to test performance under real life conditions, they attached the sensor to tree leaves to track changes in leaf color during autumn, leaf fall, and aging over two weeks. They were able to observe a decrease in chlorophyll (叶绿素) — an indicator of plant stress — and how the plant’s response varied with sunlight intensity.
“This sensor can accurately monitor plant health and stress through leaf color and light reflection data. Its low cost makes it possible to place multiple sensors across various locations,” summarizes Kohzuma.
12. What is mainly talked about in paragraph 1
A. The effect of extreme weather on plants.
B. The importance of aircraft in agriculture.
C. The disadvantages of some small sensors.
D. The necessity of precise plant monitoring.
13. How does the author introduce the novel sensor in paragraph 3
A. By giving examples. B. By listing figures.
C. By raising questions. D. By making statements.
14. Why is chlorophyll mentioned in the text
A. To stress its importance to plants. B. To compare different plant species.
C. To show the accuracy of the sensor. D. To introduce the principle of the sensor.
15. What does Kohzuma think of the new sensor
A. It is adjustable. B. It is affordable.
C. It is remote-controlled. D. It is power-free.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
It’s now been 10 years since I sold everything and left the United States to travel the world. Here are some of my best travel planning tips to help you have a great trip.
____16____ I don’t know how to answer when readers ask how many days they should spend traveling in a particular country or city. The truth is that I have no idea what you’ll enjoy or who you’ll meet. My advice is to pick a starting point, 1 or 2 must-do activities, and an ending point(or not). ____17____ Be open to changing your plans if you learn about something along the way!
Learn a few foreign words. There’s no need to be fluent in order to visit a foreign country. However, mastering a few phrases in the local language can improve your travel experience.____18____ But remember that this is your problem, not theirs. Raising your voice doesn’t magically help Mexicans understand English. Try hand signals, images on your phone, or Google Translate!
Write down the address of your hotel. Sometimes, after a long flight playing games on your smartphone, your battery could end up dead. And if you didn’t write down where you’re staying, how will you tell the taxi driver ____19____
Read a book about the country. Before you travel to a new country, I recommend reading a good book about it to learn more about its history and culture before you arrive. ____20____ Your travel experience will be different if you already know about your destination.
A. Pick a starting point.
B. Be flexible and don’t over plan.
C. Then just let the universe determine the rest.
D. You are sure to benefit from these simple images.
E. This could be as simple as a popular novel by a local author.
F. Not being able to communicate while traveling can be frustrating.
G. I also recommend noting down your room number after you check in.
第二部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15 小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I was at work on a customer’s house when I fell off. Laid up the hospital bed, I was ____21____, my thoughts a mess of ____22____. What about my family I was the bread-earner, but ____23____, I was the one needing support.
I came home in a wheelchair. It was like waking up in a house after a storm, everything familiar yet ____24____ in some way. I was left not being able to ____25____, with constant dizziness, problems with my hands. Thankfully, my family was my ____26____, ready to rebuild with me.
With their help, I relearned to walk and use my hands. We ____27____ a house. I wanted to be sure my family had a home if I wasn’t here. As I learned to deal with my ____28____, we slowly repaired the house. This wasn’t just a project — it was our path to healing (治愈), our own ____29____ project.
I set up a page called Making a Home to _____30_____ our journey. People, once strangers, started _____31_____ us. More than 2,000 of them! Some donated money to _____32_____ us to repair the run-down house we bought. I faced many challenges but I learned to have faith in myself and total _____33_____ and learned never to quit.
So whatever things are put in your way, they are not _____34_____, just places where you have to change your path. Your path might change, but don’t _____35_____.
21. A. surprised B. embarrassed C. annoyed D. depressed
22. A. confusion B. regret C. worry D. shock
23. A. initially B. suddenly C. equally D. mostly
24. A. broken B. distant C. peaceful D. complex
25. A. express B. participate C. shift D. walk
26. A. joy B. example C. rock D. pride
27. A. rented B. purchased C. built D. designed
28. A. appetite B. identity C. disabilities D. faults
29. A. rebuilding B. managing C. developing D. researching
30. A. continue B. plan C. recall D. document
31. A. following B. choosing C. blaming D. suspecting
32. A. allow B. help C. watch D. teach
33. A. customers B. strangers C. doctors D. families
34. A. boundaries B. objectives C. labels D. ends
35. A. step away B. switch off C. give up D. go back
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Fourteen-year-old Nsajigwa Michael is learning Chinese calligraphy and painting at the Chinese Cultural Center. The center ____36____ (consist) of 25 Chinese and Tanzanian children and 4 educators lies in the port city of Dar es Salaam.
In addition to learning Chinese painting, Nsajigwa is also studying the Chinese language. “The ____37____ (expose) to the Chinese calligraphy and painting has given me a much ____38____ (deep) understanding of Chinese culture,” he said.
The Chinese Cultural Center in Tanzania, established in 2013, hosts children twice ____39____ week. The center aims to inspire young learners’ critical thinking, emotional intelligence, and artistic expression. Feng Yingqiao, an ____40____ (exceptional) ambitious Chinese teacher in charge of the center explained her approach in an interview. “My classes help the Tanzanian children better understand Chinese traditional culture,” she said. “These art forms are not just skills ____41____windows into China’s rich cultural heritage.”
More often than not, ____42____ (motivate) students to develop a deep connection with the Chinese culture, Chinese history ____43____ (integrate) into the calligraphy and painting lessons in Feng’s class. “My classes have sparked (激发) a growing interest ____44____ China’s history and arts among the children,” she said. “Learning calligraphy and painting ____45____ (be) also about preserving their cultural identity.”
第三部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华，你的英国朋友Tom是一个美食爱好者，他来信希望你介绍一下你们当地的传统美食。请给他写一封邮件，内容包括：
1．介绍一种传统美食；
2．它的特点及你喜欢的原因；
3．邀请他前来中国亲自体验。
注意：1．写作词数应为80个左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
Dear Tom,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Kindergarten Grandma
Helen entered my life after a parent approached me and asked if I would consider having a grandparent volunteer in my kindergarten class. My answer was an immediate yes.
As a teacher, I tried to make the classroom feel like a family. Many children did not have grandparents or had ones who lived far away, so I thought this was a wonderful opportunity for children to be taken care of by an older adult. I introduced her to the class by the name Grandma Helen.
I was not quite certain what to expect when Helen first came to us. I had imagined a little old lady, possibly weak, who would read and spend time with the children. Little did I know that Helen would walk into the classroom with a spring in her step and light in her eyes. She said she was available up to three days a week for about four hours. She was anxious to help in any way she could.
Helen’s enthusiasm and energy level were so high that I would joke that if we ran a race, she would win. She was agile (敏捷的), getting up and down from those little kindergarten chairs even though “grown-up” chairs were available.
The children were attracted by her right away. It turned out that she did not want to read to groups of children, but really enjoyed sitting at learning stations while children were working. There they would talk and she would make note of their questions and concerns. Not all children were able to focus and finish their work on time, so she helped the ones who needed a little extra guidance. She had endless patience helping a child called Bob learn to cut with scissors.
Wintertime always brought the battle of the coats and boots. The children had about twenty to thirty minutes of outside activities but they always had trouble dealing with the zippers (拉链) on their jackets.
注意：
1．续写词数应为150个左右;
2．请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
Then Grandma Helen helped zip their jackets when they went out.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
When Grandma Helen was handling my zippers the children looked curiously.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
广东省2024—2025学年上学期期末考试
高二英语试卷
试卷共8页，47小题，满分120分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1．考查范围：选择性必修第一册～选择性必修第二册Unit3。
2．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡指定位置上。
3．回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
4．考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。
第一部分 阅读(共两节，满分50 分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. A 3. C
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. B 5. C 6. B 7. D
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. B 10. A 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. D 13. D 14. C 15. B
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. B 17. C 18. F 19. G 20. E
第二部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15 小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D 四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. D 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35. C
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. consisting
37. exposure
38. deeper 39. a
40. exceptionally
41. but 42. to motivate
43. is integrated
44. in 45. is
第三部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Tom,
I’m glad to receive your letter asking me about our traditional delicacies in my hometown. Now let me introduce dumplings to you.
Dumplings are an essential food during festivals and family gatherings. They have various fillings like pork, beef, vegetables and seafood. The wrappers are thin and chewy. What I like most about them is that they symbolize reunion and happiness. Every time I eat dumplings with my family, I feel a strong sense of warmth and love.
I sincerely invite you to come to China and taste the delicious dumplings yourself. I’m sure you will love them.
Looking forward to seeing you.
Best wishes,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】Then Grandma Helen helped zip their jackets when they went out. When they came inside, there were always a few stuck in their coats when their jackets got caught in their zippers. She would patiently lift the offending coats over their heads and work to loose the zippers. One day this even happened to me. After playing with the children in the open air, I went back to the classroom only to find my coat was caught in the zipper, too. Seeing this, some children as well as Grandma Helen came up to help.
When Grandma Helen was handling my zippers, the children looked curiously. Some wanted to help but didn’t know what to do. Then the boy with the name Bob walked away and when he returned, there was a pair of scissors in his hands, saying he could use them to cut out my zippers. Hearing this, we couldn’t help laughing. What a pleasant time we were having together! Then every day, I looked forward to Grandma Helen’s cheerful presence and the children eagerly waved to her from their tables when she walked through the door. The classroom really felt like a family.