福建省福州市福清市2024-2025学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题（含答案，无听力音频及原文）

2024-2025学年第一学期八年级校内期末质量检测
英语学科试卷
（满分：150分考试时间：120分钟）
友情提示：所有答案都必须填写在答题卡相应的位置
Ⅰ.听力（共三节，20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相关的选项。（每个句子读两遍）
( )1. A. B. C.
( )2. A. B. C.
( )3. A. B. C.
( )4. A. B. C.
( )5. A. B. C.
第二节 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。（每段对话读两遍）
听第1段对话，回答第6小题。
( )6. What is Sam going to do this afternoon
A. Go shopping. B. Play games. C. Have a lesson.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
( )7. What does the woman look like now
A. Shorter. B. Fatter. C. Taller.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
( )8. When will the meeting start
A. At 2:00 p. m. B. At 3:00 p. m. C. At 5:00 p. m.
听第4段对话， 回答第9小题。
( )9. What kind of music does Lucy like now
A. Pop music. B. Rock music. C. Folk music.
听第5段对话， 回答第10、11小题。
( )10. Where are the speakers probably
A. At a restaurant. B. At home. C. At a store.
( )11. What kind of meat will they buy
A. Beef. B. Chicken. C. Fish.
听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。
( )12. How will the woman go to London
A. By train. B. By plane. C. By ship.
( )13. How much does she need to spend on the tickets
A. 20 dollars. B. 40 dollars. C. 60 dollars.
听第7段对话， 回答第14、15小题。
( )14. What's Mary doing
A. She is reading a book. B. She is writing a letter. C. She is listening to music.
( )15. What does Mary advise the boy to do
A. Watch English movies.
B. Listen to some English songs.
C. Read some easier English stories.
第三节 听短文 根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍）
Self Introduction
Name Yang Ming
Date of birth I was born on 16 11th, 1991.
Hobbies I 17 music and football.
Workplace It's a nice and 18 farm.
Pets I have four birds and two 19 .
Information My QQ number is 20 .
Ⅱ.选择填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
( )21. What ________ amazing music it is! I almost lose myself in it.
A. an B. the C./
( )22. Which of the underlined parts is different in pronunciation (发音)
A. bread B. cheap C. peace
( )23. Chinese celebrate the 25th anniversary (周年) of the return Macao ________ the evening of December 20th, 2024.
A. in B. on C, at
( )24. — The internet is not perfect, so we ________ use it safely.
— You are right, and we ________ use the internet to hurt others.
A. may, can't B. should, mustn't C. can, needn't
( )25. — The exam is coming tomorrow. ________, I can't fall asleep tonight.
— Take it easy. Maybe you can listen to soft music.
A. Instead B. Finally C. However
( )26. — Remember to ________ the light when you leave the room.
—OK, I will.
A. turn on B. turn off C. turn down
( )27. He is ________ to carry the heavy box.
A. strong enough B. so strong C. too strong
( )28. After years of hard work, the man becomes a ________ musician and he is popular with young people.
A. careful B. useful C. successful
( )29. We need to read the ________ carefully before we use the new machine.
A. information B. instruction C. instrument
( )30. People always wear hats to protect ________ from the hot sun in summer.
A. ourselves B. yourselves C. themselves
( )31. John is the ________ in the family. He never does any housework.
A. hardest B. laziest C. funniest
( )32. I'd like to share my ________ with my friends. I want to be a pilot in the future.
A. dream B. hobby C. habit
( )33. — I don't think keeping a cat is a good idea. Cats always ________ a lot of trouble.
— Not really. I think it can help you become a better person.
A. cover B. cause C. control
( )34. — I just got home ________ the rainstorm came yesterday.
— How lucky you are!
A. whether B. when C. while
( )35. — ________ ! I get the ticket to Jay Chou's concert this Sunday.
— Great! Have fun.
A. Guess what! B. What a pity! C. Sounds good!
Ⅲ.完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
The twenty-seventh of July, 2002, was the worst day in Janek Mel's life. The Polish boy had a(n) 36 and lost half his left leg and half his right arm. Janek spent a long time in the 37 and was very sad.
Then his most important journey 38 . Marek Kaminski, a famous Polish explorer (探险家) , visited Janek and 39 him to go to the North and South Poles with him. Janek gave the best answer of his life.
Janek prepared for the trips for a few months. First, he learned to use his artificial (人造的)leg. Then he trained 40 for the expeditions (考察) .
Their first expedition was to the North Pole. Janek and the team had to be 41 . There were animals, dangerous ice and terrible weather. It was really difficult, 42 things got better. They got to the pole on April 24th, 2004. Janek was 15.
In December, the team started the expedition to the South Pole. The weather was 43 this time. This made the expedition even more difficult. They 44 arrived at the South Pole on December 31st, 2004.
Janek is the youngest explorer to go to the North and South Poles because he was 45 and never gave up.
( )36. A. dream B. accident C. chance
( )37. A. school B. trip C. hospital
( )38. A. began B. ended C. held
( )39. A. forced B. invited C. ordered
( )40. A. easily B. hardly C. hard
( )41. A. helpful B. careful C. useful
( )42. A. and B. but C. while
( )43. A. worse B. better C. nicer
( )44. A. really B. quickly C. finally
( )45. A. strong B. brave C. lucky
Ⅳ.阅读理解（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 阅读以下A、B、C、D四篇短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
A
International Youth ArchiDesign Competition 2024 Age: Open to all students of 6-17 years old Junior: 6-10 years old Senior: 11-17 years old Challenge (挑战): Design (设计)a small home for children. They can enjoy their daily activities and study there. Necessary design: ◆2 beds ◆A writing desk(about 60 cm*90 cm*75 cm) ◆A bathroom area ◆A reading area with a bookshelf Your design must be sent to: https://3DWOW.org/youth-archivesign-2024 Prizes: ◆Top 10 design solutions (方案) will be chosen in each group: junior and senior ◆1,000 HKD for each winner Tel: Call at 961 - 31137 for more information. Address: 23/F, Marina 8, No. 8 Heung Yip Road Wong Chuk Hang, Hong Kong, China
( )46. Who can join the junior group
A. Mary, five years old. B. Sam, ten years old.
C. Tina, fourteen years old. D. John, sixteen years old.
( )47. The necessary design should include (包含) ________.
A. ①②③ B.①②④ C.②③④ D.①②③④
( )48. How many people can get prizes in the competition
A. 10. B. 20. C. 30. D. 40.
( )49. Which of the following about designers is TRUE according to the passage
A. They can study in the home.
B. They should design a big home.
C. They can get more information by making a call.
D. They should go to Hong Kong to take part in the competition.
( )50. The passage is ________.
A. a kid's diary B. a school report C. a travel guide D. a competition poster
B
The red panda mainly lives in the Eastern Himalayas in places like China, Nepal and Bhutan. It belongs (属于) to the family Ailuridae (熊猫科) . People thought that it was a member of the bear family at first. But researchers finally grouped the red panda into its own family according to DNA research (调查) results. The research also showed that the red panda is a close relative (近亲) to the raccoon (浣熊), but it is not closely related to the giant panda, which belongs to the bear family.
Red pandas are in danger of dying out. Half of red pandas around the world have disappeared in the last twenty years. The biggest challenge for red pandas is that they are losing their homes because people are cutting down trees for wood and clearing land for farming. What's more, some people even catch red pandas to make clothes like hats with their special fur.
There are some events around the world to protect red pandas, but they still need more help. To protect red pandas better, it's necessary to draw more public attention to them. International Red Panda Day was set up for this reason. It is on the third Saturday of September every year.
There are many things we can do for red pandas. You can read a book or watch a video about these amazing animals, join an International Red Panda Day activity near you, see red pandas at your local zoo and share articles and pictures about red pandas on the internet.
( )51. What can we learn about red pandas
A. Red pandas only live in China.
B. Red pandas are in danger because of less food.
C. Grouping them into a family isn't an easy job.
D. There are many more red pandas than giant pandas in the wild.
( )52. Which of the following is the closest in DNA to the red panda
A. The raccoon. B. The fox. C. The giant panda. D. The bear.
( )53. _______ of red pandas have disappeared in the last 20 years.
A. 30%. B. 40%. C. 50%. D. 60%.
( )54. Why was International Red Panda Day set up
A. To study red pandas more easily. B. To celebrate the discovery of red pandas.
C. To make red pandas more popular in zoos. D. To draw public attention to red panda protection.
( )55. In which part of a magazine can we probably find the passage
A. SOCIETY. B. NATURE. C. LIFESTYLE. D. CULTURE.
C
You probably know you should say “please” and “thank you” at restaurants. You probably know the rules of a library. You know you should respect and be nice to your classmates. But do you have music manners(礼貌)
Keep It Down! You have to notice (注意) the volume of your music. You should not play your music so loud that everyone around you can hear it. Some people might even get angry. Usually, when you play the music loud on a music player, other people can't hear the words of the song. They just hear a loud sound. No one wants to listen to this. Very loud music can also be bad for your ears. So even if you are alone when listening to your music player, you shouldn't turn it up too high.
Take Them Off! You need to know when to turn your music off and put it away. Libraries, and schools don't allow (允许) music players. There are other places, like museums, that don't have rules, but it would be rude (无理的) to have your music player on. Sometimes, it is meaningless to listen on your music player at event. Why would you listen to music at a play, a movie or a sporting event You would miss what is going on and others would wonder why you came.
Take One Out! Sometimes it's okay just to take out one earphone and not other. Imagine you are listening on your music player when someone asks you the way. It would not be rude to take out one earphone, tell him the way, and put back the earphone and continue listening. You can also do this when you order food at a fast-food restaurant.
________ There are times when you need to decide what is best. For example, some people can listen to music on their music players when reading books, while others think it is disturbing(干扰) themselves. When this happens, you need to choose what would be suitable for you.
( )56. The underlined word “volume” in Paragraph Two probably means “________” in Chinese.
A. 音量 B. 时长 C. 类型 D. 数量
( )57. No one wants to listen to ________ from others' music players.
A. a loud sound B. sad stories C. a long movie D. the words of a song
( )58. If we listen to our music player at a play, _____________________.
A. the theatre won't allow it B. the actors will get angry
C. others won't hear the play well D. we will miss part of the play
( )59. We can take one earphone out when we _________________.
A. show others the way B. talk to friends on the phone
C. watch a sporting event D. have dinner with our parents
( )60. Which sentence can be put in “________”
A. Don't disturb. B. What is best C. Reading while Listening. D. Choose by yourself!
D
Known as Earth’s “kidneys” (肾), wetlands play an important part in the ecosystem (生态系统). However, about 35% of natural wetlands have been lost in the past 50 years, said the UN. Hoping to do their part in wetland protection, Lyu Haoyan and Cui Luoyao, two 14-year-old girls from Beijing made a mudskipper amphibious robot(弹涂鱼两栖机器人).
They won the Gold Award of the 19th Soong Chingling Award for Children's Invention on Aug 17.
“We wanted to make a simple robot to help collect data (数据), but traditional robots faced problems in wetlands,” Cui told Teens.
As an amphibious fish, mudskippers are small and can move freely in wetlands. Inspired (启发) by the little creature, they added a special chest (胸腔) and tail fin (鳍) to their robot. The fin can help the robot move freely on land and swim underwater. They also learned coding (编程) to control the robot with their phones from far away, up to 300 meters. What's more, they put in different sensors (传感器) to see plants and check water cleanness.
But things didn't always go well. How to keep the main electronics (电子元件) dry when the robot went underwater was a big problem during testing. “The 3D printed parts we used couldn't seal (密封) well,” Lyu told Teens. After trying different methods, they found that placing rubber (橡胶) rings in the gaps (缝隙) worked well to stop water from getting in.
After successfully controlling their robotic mudskipper on land and underwater, they were happy with their success. “I feel so proud because our robot can help look into the places that people cannot reach,” said Cui.
( )61. Why did Cui Luoyao and Lyu Haoyan made the robot
A. To protect wetlands. B. To finish their schoolwork.
C. Todeal with water pollution (污染). D. To learn more about amphibious fish.
( )62. What does “the little creature” in Paragraph 4 refer to
A. Mudskippers. B. The inventors. C. The robot fish. D. Wetlands.
( )63. Why did the girls choose to make the robot based on (基于) a mudskipper
A. Because mudskippers can clean the water.
B. Because mudskippers can talk on the phones far away.
C. Because mudskippers would make the robot look cool.
D. Because mudskippres can move freely on land and in water.
( )64. How did the girls keep the electronics dry when it was underwater
A. By sealing the robot with tape. B. By adding a special cover to it.
C. By using more 3D printed parts. D. By putting rubber rings in the gaps.
( )65. What would be the best title for the passage
A. The Importance of Wetlands. B. How Sensors Help in Wetlands.
C. Difficulties in Studying Wetlands. D. Students Build Robot to Save Wetlands
第二节 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺，连贯，意思完整。（每小题1分，满分5分）
E
Yi Qunlin is a 58-year-old construction (建筑) worker. 66 He has worked in Shenzhen, Guangdong Province for about 20 years. In the summer of 2023, his son shared a video online. 67 The video soon became popular. Many people were moved by his attitude (态度) toward life and long-lasting love for music after learning his story.
“At first, I was worried about being looked down upon (看不起), as I was a construction worker wearing dirty clothes,” Yi said with a shy smile. “ 68 I was really excited about that.”
Yi's love for music started when he was around 14 year old. He taught himself the piano and other instruments. 69 But he still tried to give time to play instruments after work.
Yi was invited to take part in the 2024 CCTV Dragon Year Spring Festival Gala (春晚). “ 70 ” Yi said. “It is my pleasure to see such a big stage. I am a builder and I like playing the piano. I hope everyone can realize their dreams!”
A. However, I received huge applause (掌声) from the crowd. B. As a worker, I never dreamed of having such a moment in my life! C. In it, Yi played more than 10 songs on a public piano. D. He comes from Yueyang, Hunan Province. E. When he grew up, he was busy with work.
Ⅴ.情景交际（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据情景提示，完成下列各题。
71.朋友认为昨晚的电影很无聊，你表示不认同，可以说：
____________________________________________________________________________________________
72.参加完福州马拉松比赛后，Mike兴奋地感叹：
____________________________________________________________________________ marathon race!
73.看到 Tom在大太阳下阅读，你建议他：
You shouldn't ________________________________________________________________________________.
74. 同学问你“Would you mind closing the window ”,你表示不介意, 可以这样说:
____________________________________________________________________________________________
75.你想知道 Mary 过去有什么爱好，可以这样问：
What hobbies ______________________________________________________________________, Mary
Ⅵ.看图写话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。
76. yestetrday morning 77. fond
78. make 79. much, thin
80. while
Ⅶ.短文填词（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
Picture book First Man tells the story of Yang Liwei and 81 (he) trip to space. As we all know, Yang is China's 82 (one) astronaut flying into space. 83 he was 38 years old, he took Shenzhou-5 spaceship to space.
To help people get to know the Chinese space hero better, the picture book was born. It is based on Yang's autobiography (自传) Long March to Space. In 2021, One Day in Space, 84 passage from Yang's book, was included (收录)in the seventh-grade textbook in Chinese middle schools.
Yang 85 (leave) for space at nine on the morning of October 15th, 2003 and came back to the earth at 6:23 on the afternoon of October 16th. During the 21-hour stay in space, he flew around the earth fourteen 86 (time).
87 great pictures and simple words, the book tells space science in an interesting way. From the book, we know that it is 88 (real) hard for people to travel in space. Yang's story tells us that nothing is impossible for a willing (积极肯干的) heart.
Wu Xiaoxi from the BSTP came up with the idea of 89 (write) such a book. “The most 90 (surprise) thing in the book is a picture of a rabbit looking at the moon,” Wu says. “China plans to send people to the moon by 2030. We hope to write nice picture books at that time.”
Ⅷ. 书面表达（满分15分）
91.假如你是李华，你收到了笔友 Peter的一封信，告诉你关于他在使用手机上产生的困扰。请根据来信，给他写一封回信。词数80词左右。
注意事项：
1.开头已给出，不计入总词数；
2. 意思清楚，表达通顺，行文连贯，书写规范；
3.请勿在文中使用真实的姓名、校名和地名。
EMAIL
To: lihua4ever@
From: peter12345@
Dear Li Hua, How is everything I'm not happy these days because my mom is angry with me about using the mobile phone. She thinks it is bad for me. Do you think it is good or bad to use the mobile phone Why do you think so Can you give me some advice on using the mobile phone Look forward to hearing from you. Yours, Peter.
Dear Peter,
I understand how you feel. ________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
2024-2025学年第一学期八年级校内期末质量检测
英语学科试卷参考答案
听力部分（共30分）
第一节（每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
1-5 ACBCA
第二节（每小题1.5分，满分15分）
6-10 CCBCB 11-15 AACAC
第三节（每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
16. September/ Sept. 17. enjoy 18. quiet 19. cats 20. 6575290
笔试部分（共120分）
Ⅰ.选择填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
21-25 CABBC 26-30 BACBC 31-35 BABBA
Ⅱ.完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
36-40 BCABC 41-45 BBACB
Ⅲ.阅读理解（共两节，20小题；满分45分）
第一节（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
46-50 BDBCD 51-55 CACDB 56-60 AADAD 61-65 AADDD
第二节（共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分）
66-70 DCAEB
Ⅳ.情景交际（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
71. I don't think so. / I don't agree (with you).
0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 1
72. What an exciting/ amazing marathon race!
1 0.5 0.5
73. You shouldn't read (books) in the sun.
0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5
74. Certainly not. / Not at all. / Of course not.
1 1 1 1 0.5 0.5 1
75. What hobbies did you (use to) have, Mary
0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5
★ 评分标准：每小题能按照要求写出正确的内容，得2分；能写出主要句子结构，得1—1.5分; 能传递个别信息, 得0.5分。
Ⅴ.看图写话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
76. They were visiting the museum from 9:00 to 10:00 yesterday morning.
0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5
77. She is fond of planting/ growing flowers.
0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5
78. The books make them laugh./ Reading makes them happy.
0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5
79. John is much thinner than Tom.
0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5
80. He is/ was playing tennis while she is/ was playing the violin.
0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5
★评分标准：每小题能写出一个符合图意的完整、正确的句子，得2分；能基本说明图意，写出主要句子结构，得1—1.5分；能传递个别信息，得0.5分。
Ⅵ.短文填词（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
81. his 82. first 83. When 84. a 85. left
86. times 87. With 88. really 89. writing 90. surprising
Ⅶ.书面表达（满分15分）
91.范文仅供参考
Dear Peter,
I understand how you feel. I think using a mobile phone is useful. With mobile phones, we can search for information and share ideas with others. We can call our parents or police for help when we are in danger. However, spending too much time on the mobile phone can hurt your eyes.
My advice is to use your mobile phone less. You should turn it off when you are studying. Also, you had better only play games for a while on weekends.
I hope you can use the mobile phone correctly and your mom won't be angry again.
Yours,
Li Hua