河南省郑州市中牟县2024-2025学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题（含答案，无听力原文及音频）

中牟县2024--2025学年上学期期末教学质量监测
八年级英语试卷
温馨提示：
1．本试卷共10页，六大题，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2．请将答案直接答在答题卡上。
3．答卷前请将答题卡密封线内的项目填写清楚。
一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1．Where was Ben last night
A．In a factory. B．In a museum. C．In a theater.
2．Who will go to the beach with Li Ping tomorrow
A．Julie. B．Lucy. C．Lily.
3．Where can we order food according to this dialogue
A．At Douyin APP. B．At Meituan APP. C．At Tianmao APP.
4．When is the man’s father’s birthday
A．March 21st. B．March 22nd. C．March 23rd.
5．How does the man go to the airport
A．By riding a bike. B．By taking a taxi. C．By taking a bus.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6．What are the two speakers talking about
A．Outer space. B．Life on Mars. C．Life in the spaceship.
7．How will the two speakers go to other planets according to the conversation
A．By plane. B．By rocket. C．By spaceship.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
8．Where is Jane going to run tomorrow morning
A．In the park. B．In the gym. C．On the playground.
9．How often does Jane run
A．Every Sunday. B．Twice a week. C．Every morning.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10．How old is Liz
A．She is 15． B．She is 14． C．She is 13.
11．What is Liz’s mother doing for the party
A．Making a fruit cake. B．Making a chocolate cake. C．Buying a cake from the store.
12．Why can’t some of Liz’s friends come to the party
A．Because they are ill.
B．Because they are at school.
C．Because they are away on the holiday.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。
13．How often does Betty use the Internet
A．Never. B．Sometimes. C．Very often.
14．What does Michael often do on the Internet
A．Find some information about places and jobs.
B．Watch movies, chat with his pen pals and learn to play the violin.
C．Listen to music, play games and find some information about study.
15．When will Michael teach Betty to use the Internet
A．After school. B．On Sunday. C．After supper.
第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
A．B．C．D．E．
16．_______ 17．_______ 18．_______ 19．_______ 20．_______
二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按要求答题。
A
How does the world spend its free time Let’s have a look.
Internet People from Canada spend about 43.5 hours online every week, 8 hours longer than Americans. Canada has long cold winters so people spend lots of time at home.
Outdoors（户外） People from New Zealand spend most of their free time outdoors. The countryside is great for mountain climbing and water sports.
Bars（酒吧） Spain has a lot of bars. In Spain, a bar is for families, not just drinkers. It’s a meeting place and often an eating place. When none of your family or friends are available, you can still go to a bar by yourself. People around you in the bar may ask you to join them.
Museums The UK has six of the top 20 most visited museums in the world, such as the National Gallery, the British Museum and Tate Modern.
Parties As for parties, most people will think of Brazil. Its carnival（狂欢节）is famous all around the world. Bangkok and Berlin are two of the best cities for partying. In Bangkok, you can meet friendly people and visit great night clubs. In Berlin, you can enjoy beautiful music on the streets.
Exercising In Greece and Estonia, over 80% of people exercise every day. The Olympic sports are very popular in these two countries, but Estonia has a very special game: ice cricket（冰上板球）!
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
21．How long do Americans spend online every week
A．About 35.5 hours. B．About 43.5 hours. C．About 51.5 hours. D．About 59.5 hours.
22．How do people from New Zealand spend most of their free time
A．Having parties. B．Visiting museums.
C．Using the Internet. D．Doing outdoor activities.
23．In Spain, a bar is _______.
A．only for drinking B．for families and can be a place to eat
C．only for single people D．a place for business meetings
24．More than 80 percent of people from _______ exercise every day.
A．Spain B．the UK C．Greece D．Canada
25．What do we know from the passage
A．The weather in Canada is terrible.
B．Tate Modern is a museum in the UK.
C．People from Brazil often play ice cricket.
D．People can enjoy music on the streets in Bangkok.
B
Jeff and Joe are brothers. They are thinking about their futures. In ten years, they will be twenty-four and have their own jobs. Jeff wants to be a soccer coach（教练）and Joe wants to be a jazz musician.
First, Jeff will finish college. At college, he will take classes in science, health and education. He will not take art or history lessons. Jeff may play soccer on the college team. He will be busy, but he will enjoy the classes. After college, Jeff will work in a soccer club. He will teach soccer there. His soccer team will work hard and practice four times a week. They will have fun and maybe they will win a lot of games.
Joe will start a jazz band（乐队）. He will play the drums. The band will practice every day and write their own songs. Joe’s band will probably play in clubs in New York. Joe hopes the band can become successful and famous. Then Joe and the band can travel around the world by car. Joe will not forget his family. He will find time to visit them.
Jeff and Joe will work hard on their plans. Their parents are sure about Jeff’s plan, but they have doubts about Joe’s plan because being a successful musician is a very difficult thing.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26．How old are Jeff and Joe now
A．10． B．12． C．14． D．26.
27．What classes will Jeff have in the college
a. Art b. Health c. History d. Education e. Science
A．a. b. c. B．c. d. e. C．a. c. d. D．b. d. e.
28．From the passage, we can know that ________.
A．Jeff is not good at history
B．Joe’s band will play in clubs in London
C．Joe loves traveling around the world by bike
D．Jeff’s soccer team will practice four times a week
29．Which of the following best shows the structure（结构）of the passage
A．①//②③④ B．①②//③④ C．①//②③//④ D．①②③//④
30．The passage is mainly about Jeff’s and Joe’s ________.
A．future plans B．dream vacations C．school parties D．favorite subjects
C
Lee Newton was sitting at a train station under an old blanket（毯子）when he saw a woman and a man talking. They missed the last train, and they seemed upset. It was a cold night in January, and they were really cold. Lee asked them if they wanted to share his blanket. The three of them started talking, and Lee learned that their names were Karen and Mark.
Lee told them that he had lost his job and then he couldn’t pay the rent（租金）for his apartment. He had no family to help him, and nowhere to go. He had to sleep at the train station. Karen and Mark felt sorry for him. As they spent their night at the station talking to Lee, they learned that anyone might meet with the same problems. They felt very lucky to have jobs and a home.
When morning came, Karen and Mark bought a train ticket for Lee and invited him to come home with them. Lee accepted and moved into Karen and Mark’s home. Lee soon found work in a factory. He made money to buy a small motorbike（轻型摩托车）and then delivered pizzas（披萨）in the evening. After a few months, Lee had enough money to rent a small apartment.
“When times get tough, you need friends and family,” said Lee. “Karen and Mark became that for me.”
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31．Why did Karen and Mark look upset
A．They lost their jobs. B．They were too hungry.
C．They missed the last train. D．They had no money to buy tickets.
32．What do we know about Lee from Paragraph 2
A．What his last job was. B．How he lost his family.
C．How much his rent was. D．Why he slept at the station.
33．What did Karen and Mark do for Lee
A．They gave him a job. B．They bought him a motorbike.
C．They let him stay at their home. D．They rented an apartment for him.
34．The underlined word “tough” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to “________”.
A．boring B．difficult C．dangerous D．meaningless
35．What’s the best title for the passage
A．A big family B．A new train station
C．A helping hand D．A hard - working man
D
Today, children spend more and more time playing video games（电子游戏）.
For many children, video games are fun and educational. 36 ________ Video games also make children think in a creative way. And children have to move their hands and eyes quickly. This can make children think fast. Video games are also a good way to teach children about computers. 37 ________
However, a study shows that video games can be bad for children.38 ________ Also if children spend too much time on the computer instead of（而不是）doing their homework, they will have problems at school and they can get bad grades. Video games do no good to children’s social skills, either. Playing and working with friends is very important to children.39 ________ If children spend too much time playing by themselves online, they can’t learn how to get along with their friends.
All in all, it seems clear that video games can be both good and bad.40 ________
根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使短文意思通顺、内容完整。
A．They can learn about how computers work.
B．They have beautiful pictures and exciting stories.
C．It teaches them how to get on with（与...相处）other people.
D．Spending too much time playing games on the computer is bad for children’s health.
E．Children can play video games, but they should learn to balance（平衡）it with other things in life.
三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。并将其标号涂在答题卡上。
Dear Su Mei,
I’m really glad to receive your e-mail. You said you were learning to 41 ________. It is interesting, isn’t it If you want to keep healthy, 42 ________ is very important. You’ ll be in good health 43 ________ you eat all kinds of healthy food, especially（尤其）44 ________ and fruit. I eat them every day.
You asked me 45 ________ to make a milk shake. In fact, it is 46 ________ to make it, and everyone can learn it. You will learn to make it 47 ________.
There are different kinds of milk shakes, 48 ________ apple milk shake, banana milk shake and watermelon milk shake. The apple milk shake is my favorite, because 49 ________ apples and milk are good for our health. Before 50 ________, we need an apple, a cup of milk, some yogurt and two spoons of honey. Of course, you need a blender.
Here are four steps（步骤）. First, peel an apple and 51 ________. Next, put the apple, milk, some yogurt and two spoons of honey into the blender. Then,52 ________ the blender. Keep it going for only one minute. Finally, pour the apple milk shake into a glass and 53 ________ it. It’s delicious!
I want to learn how to make some 54 ________ food, such as dumplings, noodles and zongzi. Could you 55 ________ me
Write soon!
Yours,
Kate
41．A．swim B．cook C．run D．exercise
42．A．money B．news C．food D．time
43．A．although B．if C．unless D．so that
44．A．vegetables B．apples C．hamburgers D．oranges
45．A．what B．how C．when D．why
46．A．expensive B．cheap C．easy D．difficult
47．A．clearly B．quietly C．loudly D．quickly
48．A．as for B．after all C．for example D．such as
49．A．both B．either C．neither D．none
50．A．finishing B．starting C．deciding D．studying
51．A．put it up B．put them down C．cut it up D．cut them down
52．A．turn off B．turn on C．turn in D．turn into
53．A．wash B．clean C．drink D．eat
54．A．Chinese B．American C．French D．Indian
55．A．give B．touch C．learn D．teach
四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
第一节：阅读短文，从下面方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。并将答案写在答题卡上。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
they, year, spend, enjoyable, but, grows, health, really, try, Internet
He Lin,53, is a nursery engineer（苗圃工程师）on a forest farm in Yongchuan, Chongqing. He has worked here for thirty 56 _________.
Every morning at 6 o’ clock, He Lin gets up on time, runs for half an hour, and then he has breakfast. He thinks it is good for his 57 _________. Then he goes to work at 7o’ clock.
He Lin 58 _________ a lot of time on a kind of tree called Zhennan in Chinese. Zhennan trees are very precious（珍贵的）59 _________ they were in danger years ago. In 2013, in order to save Zhennan, He Lin 60 _________ growing the first batch（批次）of Zhennan trees here. He looked after these trees as his children. He took training classes and he also learned on the 61_________. Now, these trees are 62 _________ high. He Lin still works hard every day, and he is so happy to see 63 _________ grow up.
Thanks to He Lin and many other people like him, the number of Zhennan trees in Yongchuan 64 _________ quickly. And because of them, the mountains here look so green now. “For me, it is so 65 _________ to see the change.” He Lin said.
第二节：阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
There will be more and more robots in the future. Now robots can already do many things such as building cars 66 _________ sweeping floors. Now some scientists are starting to develop new robots.
The new robots will 67 _________ able to show different feelings on their faces, just like humans. They will smile, make eye contact and speak. They 68 _________ do housework at home like cooking and cleaning. They will even take care 69 _________ children and old people.
The new robots will be friendlier and wiser. People will feel much 70 _________ comfortable if they stay with the new robots in their houses.
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hello, Tina! I sent WeChat messages yesterday afternoon, but you didn’t reply.71．_________
B: Oh, I went to have the piano lesson yesterday afternoon.
A:72．_________
B: Three times a week.
A: I know you play very well. I think you will be a musician when you grow up.
B: I hope so. I like music. What about you
A: 73．_________. I am going to study medicine at a university.
B: Sounds great. Tomorrow I’ ll have my birthday party at home.74．_________
A: Sure. And I will play a piece of music for you. See you tomorrow.
B:75．_________.
六、书面表达（共20分）
假如你是Andy，就读于外国语学校八年级。学校英语报的“写作天地”专栏正在征稿，请你以“My New Year’s Resolution”为题写一篇短文，向该专栏投稿。
要点提示：1．What is your new year’s resolution Why 2．How are you going to do that
写作要求：词数80左右；不出现真实姓名、学校。
My New Year’s Resolution
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
中牟县2024--2025学年上学期期末教学质量监测
八年级英语参考答案
一、听力（每小题1分，共20分）
1-5 CABAB 6-10 BCACC 11-15 BCACA 16-20 DBEAC
二、阅读理解（每小题2分，共40分）
21-25ADBCB 26-30CDDCA 31-35CDCBC 36-40BADCE
三、完形填空（每小题1分，共15分）
41-45 BCBAB 46-50 CDDAB 51-55 CBCAD
四、语篇填空（每小题1分，共10分）
56.years 57.health 58.spends 59.but 60.tried 61.Internet 62.really 63.them 64.grows 65.enjoyable
66.and 67.be 68.will 69.of 70.more
五、补全对话（每小题2分，共10分）
只要句子符合英语表达习惯，且上下文意思连贯、无错误，均为正确答案。
66．What did you do（ yesterday afternoon ） 67．How often do you have the piano lesson/it
68．I want to be a doctor
69．Can you come to my birthday party / Would you like / love to come to my birthday party /...
70．See you（tomorrow）/ ...
六、书面表达（20分） 略