第四部分 写作（共两节 满分40分）
第一节：应用文写作（15分）
Dear Tom,
Last Friday, I participated in our school’s cross-country running race. ____________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
宁德市2024-2025学年度第一学期期末高二质量检测
英 语 答 题 卡
学校___________________班级_______________
姓名___________座号_________考场号 ______
贴条形码区域
准考证号:
注 意 事 项
1.答题前，考生先将自己的学校、班级、姓名、座号、考场号和准考证号填写清楚。
2.考生作答时，请将正确答案填写在答题卡上；选择题部分用2B铅笔把相应题号的正确选项涂黑；非选择题部分用0.5毫米黑色中性（签字）笔或碳素笔在各题的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效。
3.注意字体工整、笔迹清楚，保持卡面整洁。
51 [A] [B] [C] [D]
52 [A] [B] [C] [D]
53 [A] [B] [C] [D]
54 [A] [B] [C] [D]
55 [A] [B] [C] [D]
46 [A] [B] [C] [D]
47 [A] [B] [C] [D]
48 [A] [B] [C] [D]
49 [A] [B] [C] [D]
50 [A] [B] [C] [D]
36 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
37 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
38 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
39 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
40 [A] [B] [C] [D] [E] [F] [G]
67 [A] [B] [C] [D]
68 [A] [B] [C] [D]
69 [A] [B] [C] [D]
70 [A] [B] [C] [D]
21 [A] [B] [C] [D]
22 [A] [B] [C] [D]
23 [A] [B] [C] [D]
24 [A] [B] [C] [D]
25 [A] [B] [C] [D]
16 [A] [B] [C]
17 [A] [B] [C]
18 [A] [B] [C]
19 [A] [B] [C]
20 [A] [B] [C]
11 [A] [B] [C]
12 [A] [B] [C]
13 [A] [B] [C]
14 [A] [B] [C]
15 [A] [B] [C]
06 [A] [B] [C]
07 [A] [B] [C]
08 [A] [B] [C]
09 [A] [B] [C]
10 [A] [B] [C]
26 [A] [B] [C] [D]
27 [A] [B] [C] [D]
28 [A] [B] [C] [D]
29 [A] [B] [C] [D]
30 [A] [B] [C] [D]
01 [A] [B] [C]
02 [A] [B] [C]
03 [A] [B] [C]
04 [A] [B] [C]
05 [A] [B] [C]
31 [A] [B] [C] [D]
32 [A] [B] [C] [D]
33 [A] [B] [C] [D]
34 [A] [B] [C] [D]
35 [A] [B] [C] [D]
41 [A] [B] [C] [D]
42 [A] [B] [C] [D]
43 [A] [B] [C] [D]
44 [A] [B] [C] [D]
45 [A] [B] [C] [D]
第三部分 第二节 语法填空 (15分)：
56. _________________ 57. _________________
58. _________________ 59. _________________
60. _________________ 61. _________________
62. _________________ 63. _________________
64._________________ 65. _________________
请
勿
在
此
区
域
内
作
答
第二节 读后续写（共25分）
She decided to approach the wolf slowly, speaking in a soft, peaceful voice. __________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
When knowing she came to help, the wolf seemed to understand. ___________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________2024-2025学年第一学期期末高二质量检测
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共20小题, 每小题1.5分, 满分30分）
1-5 CACBC 6-10 CBACB 11-15 BACCA 16-20 CBBCA
第二部分 阅读理解
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分）
21-23 CBD 24-27 DADA 28-31 BDDA 32-35 ABAC
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36-40 ECGAF
第三部分 英语知识运用
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分, 满分15分）
41-45 BACDA 46-50 BACDC 51-55 DCADB
第二节（共10个空；每空1.5分, 满分15分；与参考答案不符的不得分。）
56. expressions 57. adding 58. dates 59. older 60. opened/was opened
61. Though/Although/While (小写不给分） 62. and 63. officially
64. a 65. to provide
第四部分 写作（共两节 满分40分）
第一节
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60词，酌情扣分；多写不扣分。
4. 评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
内容要点:
比赛情况；
意义和收获。
各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档 (13—15)分 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 覆盖所有内容要点。 根据文章需要应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力表达良好语用所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑，完全达到了预期的写作目的。完全完成了试题规定的任务。
第四档 (10—12分) 完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试表达良好语用所致。 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 (7—9分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 (4—6分) 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档 1—3分 未完成试题规定的任务。 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判； 写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
应用文写作评分细则
1、先按照5个档次的给分范围对号入座，依据要点、行文、词汇、语法、词数、书写等酌情确定分数。
2、书面表达共2个内容要点，每个内容要点6分，共12分，语言准确性（包括行文通顺、流畅、可读性强，语法结构，语句间的连接成分等）3分，合计15分。漏掉一个要点扣6分。
3、出现两三个小错误，根据文章需要使用了较高级词汇、较复杂结构，有效使用了语句间的连接成分，全文结构紧凑，可读性强，也可以评高分(13分),评卷教师要敢于评高分。
4、确定档次后，时态错误较多，在本档内扣2-3分，时态错误较少扣1分。
5、要点齐全，错误相对较多，但不影响理解，可评（7-9分）。要点齐全，错误很多，但不影响理解，可评（4-6分）。
6、拼写错误、词汇错误只出现一个，不影响意思表达，不扣分。错2-3个扣1分，5个以上扣2分。
7、时态错误一个扣1分，多个时态错误扣分不超过3分。
8、要点认定：
考生须用比较完整的句子表达出要点。如只写出关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为表达出该要点。在表达要点的句子中，如果考生写出主谓结构及关键信息，但主谓结构有严重语言错误（如时态、语态，动词或只写出情态动词而无主语），酌情扣分。
在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定分值：1-2个错误，取该档次分值的高线；3-4个错误，取该档次分值的中线；5个错误，取该档次分值的低线；6个以上错误，可以降一档，取降档后该档分值的中高线。10个左右错误，取其降档后的低线。
Possible version
Dear Tom,
Last Friday, I participated in our school’s cross-country running race. It was a challenging yet rewarding experience.
The race took place on a rough path, surrounded by breathtaking natural scenery. I did whatever I could to finish the whole course, with my classmates cheering for me and offering necessary help as well as encouragement. At last, I managed to reach the finishing line, receiving applause and cheers from people present.
Not only did the race strengthened our mental and physical health, but also helped us realize the meaning of perseverance.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 评分原则:
本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分。
评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
(2)内容的丰富性；
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
(4)上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6. 如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 (21-25分) 1. 与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。 2. 内容丰富。 3. 所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不会影响意义表达。 4. 有效的使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档 (16-20分) 1. 与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。 2. 内容比较丰富。 3. 所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 4. 比较有效的使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档 (11-15分) 1. 与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度衔接。 2. 写出了若干有关内容。 3. 应用语法结构和词汇能满足任务要求，虽有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 4. 运用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档 (6-10分) 1. 与所给短文有一定关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度衔接。 2. 写出了一些有关内容。 3. 语法结构简单和词汇项目有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义表达。 4 较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档 (1-5分) 1. 与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。 2. 产出内容太少。 3. 3.语法结构简单，词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义表达。 4. 缺少语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯性。
0 白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
要点：
Paragraph 1
Katie与狼交流——狼的反应——Katie“提出”施救想法；
Paragraph 2
Katie成功施救——狼的感激——人与动物和谐共生。
说明：情节构建合理，合乎逻辑，言之有理，协同原文写作风格。宁德市2024—2025学年度第一学期期末高二质量检测
英 语 试 题
注意事项：
1、本试卷共12页。满分150分。答题时间120分钟。
2、答题前，考生务必将自己的班级、姓名填写在试卷的相应位置。
3、全部答案在答题卡上完成，答在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where does the conversation take place
A. In the hotel. B. On the plane. C. At the airport.
2. What is the woman probably doing
A. Taking a job interview. B. Chatting with a friend. C. Making a speech.
3. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Chemical experiments. B. Italian culture. C. Cooking.
4. What does the woman want to do
A. Go home. B. Attend a class. C. Email her professor.
5. When is the confirmed appointment for the man’s eye test
A. At 10:00. B. At 10:30. C. At 11:30.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. What is the man thinking about
A. The meeting schedule.
B. The tourist destination.
C. The overseas study destination.
7. What is the woman going to do
A. Talk with her teacher.
B. Pick up her daughter.
C. Have a dance lesson.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. When did the man start to live in America
A. In 2011. B. In 2013. C. In 2016.
9. What challenge did the man face when he returned to Japan
A. Language barriers. B. His nationality. C. Culture shock.
10. Why does the man adapt to Japanese culture now
A. Japanese people like making friends.
B. Japanese people respect others’ opinions.
C. Japanese people don’t have different opinions.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Social media. B. A wearable device. C. Sports and fitness.
12. What does the study about Fitkit focus on
A. Accuracy of Fitkit. B. Sleeping heart rate. C. Physical activities.
13. How does the man find his Fitkit
A. Cheap.
B. Uncomfortable.
C. Recommendable.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What does the woman’s job involve
A. Cooking meals.
B. Making clothes.
C. Booking photographers.
15. Why do some people hire a wedding planner
A. To save time.
B. To lower the costs.
C. To attend the party.
16. What did the woman do before she became a wedding planner
A. She ran a restaurant.
B. She hosted the open-air event.
C. She volunteered for an organization.
17. How did the woman attract customers
A. By taking training.
B. By presenting beautiful pictures.
C. By showing them written references.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What is the speaker’s future occupation choice
A. An author. B. An interpreter. C. A teacher.
19. Which subject can expand cultural background knowledge
A. Math. B. English. C. Literature.
20. What is the speaker’s family’s attitude toward his choice
A. Favorable. B. Doubtful. C. Opposed.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
This is the Heritage Open Days, which largely happens outside London. All are free, some need booking in advance, otherwise, just turn up on the day.
Parndon Hall Open Days
The Princess Alexandra Hospital NHS Trust, Hamstel Road, Harlow, Essex
The former home of Loftus & Elizabeth Arkwright, Parndon Hall was built in 1867. Elizabeth decorated rooms with paintings, as was the fashion at the time, but now the house is used by the hospital and the original rooms have new purposes.
Saturday 18 September: 11:00; 12:30; 14:00; 15:00
Sunday 19 September: 11:00; 12:30; 14:00; 15:00
BOOKING NEEDED
High Lighthouse Open Days
High Lighthouse, West Street, Harwich, Essex
The High Lighthouse was built in 1818 to line up with the Low Lighthouse, now the Maritime Museum, which is also a heritage. Together they operated as leading lights for shipping. It was last used as a lighthouse in 1863. It has been in use as a radio museum and as a council house. Climb to the top for a dramatic view of the Harwich area.
Saturday 11 September: 10:00-16:00
Sunday 12 September: 10:00-16:00
Captain Jones House Open Days
Captain Jones House, 21, Kings Head Street, Harwich, Essex
This is the home of the master of the Mayflower, a majority of which is still in original condition. This house has been maintained as historically accurate as possible subject to modernisation such as electricity.
Saturday 11 September: 11:00 – 15:00
Sunday 12 September: 11:00 – 15:00
21. What can we know about Parndon Hall
A. You can see Elizabeth’s paintings there. B. It can be visited the whole Saturday.
C. You have to make a reservation to visit it. D. Its decorations are still fashionable.
22. How many heritages can you visit in Harwich
A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. D. 5.
23. What do these open days have in common
A. They happen in early September. B. They all last five hours.
C. They are held in Harwich. D. They are open at a specific time.
B
The “Father of the National Park System,” John Muir was an influential writer, naturalist, and environmentalist during the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Born in 1838 in Dunbar, Scotland, he moved to the United States with his family and was attracted by the land. He was a prize-winning inventor, but it’s his love for wild places and absolute devotion to protecting them that we remember him for.
As a young man, he explored the North American continent by foot, walking thousands of miles until he eventually settled in California. There, he fell in love with Yosemite Valley and the Sierra Nevada Mountains. His article series, “Studies in the Sierra,” put his name on the map and launched a prolific writing career, with over 300 articles and 10 books published. A true mountain man, he encouraged everyone to “climb the mountains and get their good tidings”.
His writings inspired presidents, congressmen, and average citizens to care about nature. In 1890, due in large part to a series of articles he published in Century magazine, U.S. Congress created Yosemite National Park. Muir was also involved in the creation of the Sequoia, Mount Rainier, Petrified Forest, and Grand Canyon National Parks, thus earning his title.
But his work didn’t stop there: in 1892, Muir and his supporters founded the Sierra Club to “do something for wildness and make the mountains glad.” In 1901, he published the book “Our National Parks” and caught the attention of President Theodore Roosevelt, who visited him at Yosemite. During that visit, they laid the foundation of Roosevelt’s groundbreaking protection programs.
Muir died in 1914, but his memory lives on, continuing to inspire new generations of environmentalist everywhere.
24. Which can best explain the underlined word “prolific” in Paragraph 2
A. High-paying. B. Normal. C. Full-time. D. Productive.
25. What contributed to Muir’s writing career
A. His love for wild places. B. His work as an environmentalist.
C. His devotion to national parks. D. His exploration of American continents.
26. What can we know from paragraph 3
A. Muir’s articles earned him his title.
B. Muir appealed for the protection of national parks.
C. Muir inspired people to visit national parks.
D. Muir’s articles had an influence on official decision.
27. Which words can best describe Muir
A. Adventurous and committed. B. Determined and humorous.
C. Honest and courageous. D. Generous and inspirational.
C
An experimental pair of gloves isn’t particularly fashionable or useful for keeping anyone’s hands warm. Instead the gloves use tactile(触觉的) sensors woven into its fabric to serve an entirely different purpose: teaching piano and other hands-on skills.
Massachusetts Institute of Technology graduate student Yiyue Luo and her colleagues created these “smart gloves” using tactile technology, which includes physical sensations such as vibrations(震动) or force to help with tactile activities. Researchers used the gloves to record one pianist’s hand movements while playing a song. They then relayed those movements to a student through fingertip vibrations, helping the learner build muscle memory and perform the piece with greater accuracy. “Hand-based movements like piano playing are normally really subjective and difficult to record and transfer,” Luo says. “But with these gloves we are actually able to track one person’s touch experience and share it with another person to improve their tactile learning process.”
Using a computerized embroidery(刺绣) machine, the team fixed small wires linked to a pressure-sensing material in the gloves to detect hand motions. When a piano teacher wearing the gloves repeatedly performed a tune, a machine-learning algorithm(运算法则) processed their movement on the keys and translated it into instructional vibrations. Students wearing their own gloves then attempted to play the same tune, with the fingertip vibrations guiding them through proper movements. By the trials’ end, students who had practiced with the gloves could play more accurately than those who had not.
The team also tested the gloves’ ability to aid people playing online games with a mouse and keyboard, recording motions from experienced players to guide green hands. People who gamed with the gloves’ guidance scored better on average than those who did not.
Playing piano or video games is often just for fun, but Luo adds that with an improved algorithm, coded to identify and catch finer hand movements, the new glove technology could someday help to teach crucial practices such as medical operations.
In which practice can the smart gloves be unavailable
A. Playing the guitar. B. Singing songs.
C. Teaching sign language. D. Typing on a keyboard.
What is the function of the pressure-sensing material
To record songs.
To translate tunes.
To keep hands warm.
To monitor hand movements.
What can be inferred from the last paragraph
The gloves are designed for fun.
The gloves have been put into use.
The gloves can be used to identify codes.
The gloves will be used in more fields.
What is the text mainly about
An introduction to a promising technology.
An advertisement of a new product.
An approach to teaching piano.
An instruction for a computerized machine.
D
In an era when online misinformation is seemingly everywhere and objective facts are often in argument, UC Berkeley psychologists in a new study have presented a somewhat contradictory partial solution: Expose young children to more misinformation online—not less.
Orticio, a Ph.D. student in UC Berkeley’s Department of Psychology, and his colleagues used a pair of experiments involving 122 children aged four to seven to test how their level of skepticism(怀疑) changed in different online environments.
The first study exposed them to an e-book with varying degrees of true and false statements about animals. Next to a picture of a zebra, for example, some children were shown truths like that zebras had black and white stripes. Others were shown falsehoods about zebras being red and green. Based on that information, they indicated whether the claims were true or false. A second study simulated(模拟) search engine results and posed similar animal facts and fictions.
Next, children evaluated the truth of a new claim within that same digital context, this time about an alien species called Zorpies. On a screen were images of 20 so-called Zorpies. One of the alien’s faces showed that it had three eyes; the rest of the Zorpies wore dark sunglasses that covered their eyes. Children were then asked to decide whether all Zorpies had three eyes. But before making their final decision, participants were allowed to fact-check the claim by tapping any number of the aliens, removing their sunglasses and revealing their eyes. Since children knew nothing about the aliens, their skepticism could only come from their assessment of how reliable this digital platform was.
Researchers found that the children who were the most hardworking about fact-checking the Zorpies claims were also the ones who saw more false claims about animals earlier in the study. Meanwhile, those who had more reliable environments with fewer false claims earlier in the study did almost no fact-checking. A computer simulation confirmed that the children in the more unreliable environments were more likely to reveal potential misinformation.
What do psychologists recommend to help children deal with online misinformation
A. To leave them in a less protected information environment.
B. To help them sort out different kinds of information.
C. To require them to collect some useful information.
D. To help them develop the ability of the critical thinking.
Who will be more likely to become a good fact-checker
The children working harder to make statements.
The children seeing more false claims.
The children exposed to more digital contexts.
The children exposed to more reliable environments.
How were the experiments conducted
By making comparisons.
By making questionnaires.
By analyzing documents.
By interviewing participants.
What can we learn from the experiments
They were carried out through the same online digital platform.
Participants can tap the number of Zorpies to get true information.
Participants can remove the sunglasses for reference.
They both presented false information to the participants.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Essays are an extended piece of writing that presents an argument or information on a topic. They can vary in purpose, style and type but they all involve questioning, assessing and discussing ideas or evidence. Here are four tips on how to write an essay: introducing your essay, focusing on it structure, using quotes and sources, and ending with a conclusion.
A good introduction explains the facts that the reader needs to know first. 36 Be clear about your aims and always write in the third person. It’s a good idea to begin your essay using the same style of language as the question, to show you are answering it directly.
37 Paragraphs can help. Start with a “topic sentence” that introduces what the paragraph is about. At the end, bring your topic to a close so the reader can move on to the next idea. 38 They connect it to the previous one.
If you used ideas from a book in your essay, you can include snippets(片段) from it to support your points. These are quotes and have speech marks around them to show they are not your words. 39 For example, “Dr Roberts says, ‘Climate change is...’”. At the end of the essay, you can list all the books that helped you.
In your final paragraph, you should conclude by summarising all your points to show how you have answered the essay question. You might begin this section with “In conclusion,” and your tone should be con dent. 40
You should also share who said it.
It helps readers improve their writing skills.
To help the reader follow your ideas, you need structure.
Writing essays is an unavoidable but fun part of studying lots of subjects.
It sums up what the essay will be about and what you are trying to prove.
Here you can write in the first person and give your own opinion on the topic.
You can use words such as “however” or “furthermore” to start a new paragraph.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
I’ve always wanted to do a long bike ride, and I longed for a huge adventure. I was 41 that this adventure would be sort of like a personal 42 . I also saw it as a(an) 43 to raise awareness about the Tongass National Forest. 44 , I wanted to ride my bike to Alaska alone, but then I 45 that it would be way more fun to do it with a friend, so I called Alex.
It was an 46 adventure, and we did a lot of cool things. 47 , what I saw made me sad. We got to see the human 48 on nature in a way that I just hadn’t been exposed to before. I had a false 49 that there was still a lot of untouched nature out there. We biked 2,400 miles, and it turned out that basically the only places that felt 50 were the national parks. Everything else felt like it had been logged or mined or somehow extracted. The town we 51 through gets bigger at the expense of cutting down all the trees. 52 all this human impact, I strongly felt how much the world we’ve already 53 .
I guess that the only places on Earth that have not had 54 human impact are the places that are just too difficult to reach. I 55 a lot about it. It’s one of those things where you have to decide between doing something that’s totally green or you can tell an inspiring story.
41. pitiful hopeful grateful graceful
42. transformation freedom creation solution
43. dream B. advertisement C. opportunity D. experiment
44. Luckily Abnormally Gradually Originally
45. realized doubted denied recommended
46. identical B. incredible C. embarrassing D. academic
47. Meanwhile Therefore Perhaps Otherwise
48. dependence reflection impact affection
49. story interaction decision perception
50. unbalanced uncontrolled untouched unfinished
51. ran worked cut biked
52. Advocating Favoring Witnessing Approving
53. destroyed protected explored polluted
54. small meaningful positive massive
55. admired thought dreamed complained
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
Sign language uses hand movements, body language and facial 56 (expression) as a way to communicate, instead of speaking or writing.
There are around 300 sign languages in the world and the most common in the UK is British Sign Language (BSL). Like spoken languages, sign languages grow and change over time, often 57 (add) new words and phrases.
The first evidence of sign language 58 (date) back to the 5th century BC, but historians believe it may be even 59 (old) than spoken language. The earliest known use of sign language in the UK was recorded at a wedding in 1576, and the first school for deaf children 60 (open) in Scotland in 1760. 61 it was widely used, signing wasn’t encouraged until the 1970s and most deaf children were taught spoken 62 written language instead.
In 2003, the UK Government 63 (official) accepted that BSL was a language in its own right. Then, in 2022, the law was updated to make BSL 64 legally recognised language of England, Wales and Scotland. Giving BSL this status encourages schools and workplaces 65 (provide) more support for hearing-impaired(听力受损的) pupils, workers and customers.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
假定你是李华，上周五你参加了学校举办的越野跑比赛。请你给英国朋友Tom写一封邮件分享这次经历，内容包括：
（1）比赛情况；
（2）意义和收获。
注意：
（1）写作词数应为80个左右；
（2）首句已为你写好，不计入总词数。
第二节 读后续写 (满分25 分)
阅读下面短文，根据所给情节，使之构成一个完整的故事。
Late at night, the hospital was as quiet as a library. The soft hum of fluorescent lights(荧光灯) and the rhythmic beep of medical equipment created a quiet atmosphere. Nurses moved silently from room to room, attending to their patients with gentle care. But suddenly, a wild wolf burst through the doors, breaking the silence. The hallways, usually filled with soft talking and the beep-beep of machines, were now full of scared noises. People couldn’t believe their eyes as the wolf turned their safe place into a mess.
Katie, a brave nurse, was there too. She’s always calm in tough times, but even she was surprised to see a wolf in the hospital. While everyone else ran away, Katie stood still. Her heart was beating really fast, and her hands were shaking. She was so confused!
But then, Katie saw something strange. The wolf had something in its mouth—it looked like a tiny animal. This was very odd for a wolf. Katie’s curiosity made her forget her fear. She really wanted to know what was happening and how she could help.
As soon as people saw the wolf, the hospital’s security team jumped into action. They told everyone to leave the building calmly. “Go to the nearest exit, please!” they said loudly, but in a way that made people feel safe. They moved fast, helping everyone get out of the building without taking any risks. “Stay together and follow me!” they told the crowd, making sure nobody got lost.
Katie felt her heart beating even faster than before. The sight of the wolf made her want to find out why and help them. It was a very unusual situation, and she knew she had to do something.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1:
She decided to approach the wolf slowly, speaking in a soft, peaceful voice.
Paragraph 2:
When knowing she came to help, the wolf seemed to understand.
