宁德市2024—2025学年度第一学期期末高一质量检测
英语试题答案
第一部分听力（共20小题, 每小题1.5分, 满分30分）
1-5 ACBAB 6-10 CBBAC 11-15CABAB 16-20ACBCC
第二部分阅读理解
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分）
21-23CDB 24-27DCDA 28-31CADA 32-35BCDB
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36-40 DBGFC
第三部分英语知识运用
第一节完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分, 满分15分）
41-45CBBAB 46-50CDACD 51-55DBAAC
第二节 选词填空（共5小题；每小题2分, 满分10分）
56-60BGEDF
第三节 语法填空（共10个空；每空1.5分, 满分15分）
61. factors 62. dates 63. be seen 64. a 65. into
66. importance 67. its 68. that/ which 69. greater 70. to appreciate
第四部分写作（共两节满分30分）
写作部分阅卷前，请老师们仔细阅读评分原则和各档次的给分范围和要求。
第一节：内容要点: 1. 写信目的；2. 讲座内容; 3. 你的感想。
第二节：内容要点：1. 演出过程; 2. 演出成功; 3. 感悟/收获。
写作第一节评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60词，从总分中扣除2分；多写不扣分。
4. 评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
写作第一节 各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档 (13—15)分 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 覆盖所有内容要点。 根据文章需要应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力表达良好语用所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑，完全达到了预期的写作目的。完全完成了试题规定的任务。
第四档 (10—12分) 完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试表达良好语用所致。 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 (7—9分) 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 (4—6分) 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档 1—3分 未完成试题规定的任务。 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判； 写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
写作第一节评分细则
1、先按照5个档次的给分范围对号入座，依据要点、行文、词汇、语法、词数、书写等酌情确定分数。
2、写作共3内容要点，要点一3分;要点二6分;要点三3分，共12分，语言准确性（包括行文通顺、流畅、可读性强，语法结构，语句间的连接成分等）3分，合计15分。漏掉一个要点扣除相应要点的分数。
3、出现两三个小错误，根据文章需要使用了较高级词汇、较复杂结构，有效使用了语句间的连接成分，全文结构紧凑，可读性强，也可以评高分(13分),评卷教师要敢于评高分。
4、确定档次后，时态错误较多，在本档内扣2-3分，时态错误较少扣1分。
5、要点齐全，错误相对较多，但不影响理解，可评（7-9分）。要点齐全，错误很多，但不影响理解，可评（4-6分）。
6、拼写错误、词汇错误只出现一个，不影响意思表达，不扣分。错2-3个扣1分，5个以上扣2分。
7、时态错误一个扣1分，多个时态错误扣分不超过3分。
8、要点认定：
考生须用比较完整的句子表达出要点。如只写出关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为表达出该要点。在表达要点的句子中，如果考生写出主谓结构及关键信息，但主谓结构有严重语言错误（如时态、语态，动词或只写出情态动词而无主语），酌情扣分。
在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定分值：1-2个错误，取该档次分值的高线；3-4个错误，取该档次分值的中线；5个错误，取该档次分值的低线；6个以上错误，可以降一档，取降档后该档分值的中高线。10个左右错误，取其降档后的低线。
Possible version
Dear Jack,
I’m writing to share with you a lecture on earthquakes held in our school last Friday.
The lecturer began with some shocking videos. Then he introduced the science behind the earthquake, making us better understand its causes and effects. He also showed us how to survive in an earthquake, like seeking shelter under a strong table or in a corner, which I think is of great importance to us.
This is really an eye-opening experience, through which we have learned a lot. (82 words)
Yours,
Li Hua
写作第二节 评分原则:
本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
词数少于60的，从总分中减去2分。
评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
(2)内容的丰富性；
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
(4)上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6. 如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
写作第二节 各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档 (13-15分) 1. 与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。 2. 内容丰富。 3. 所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不会影响意义表达。 4. 有效的使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档 (10-12分) 1. 与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。 2. 内容比较丰富。 3. 所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 4. 比较有效的使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档 (7-9分) 1. 与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度衔接。 2. 写出了若干有关内容。 3. 应用语法结构和词汇能满足任务要求，虽有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。 4. 运用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档 (4-6分) 1. 与所给短文有一定关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度衔接。 2. 写出了一些有关内容。 3. 语法结构简单和词汇项目有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义表达。 4 较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档 (1-3分) 1. 与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。 2. 产出内容太少。 3. 3.语法结构简单，词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义表达。 4. 缺少语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯性。
0 白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。宁德市2024—2025学年度第一学期期末高一质量检测
英 语 试 题
（考试时间：120分钟 满分150分）
温馨提示：请将全部答案填写在答题卡上。
第一部分 听力（共两节，共30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，共7.5分）
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How will the speakers go to the park
A. By bike. B. By bus. C. By taxi.
2. What’s the weather like now
A. It’s sunny. B. It’s rainy. C. It’s cloudy.
3. When did the man learn to cook Chinese food
A. Last year. B. Last month. C. Last week.
4. Why did the woman leave early
A. She didn’t feel well.
B. She found the movie terrible.
C. She had to pick her mother up.
5. Where is the man
A. At home. B. In his office. C. In the hospital.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，共22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7小题。
6. What are they talking about
A. Seasons. B.Weather. C. Holidays.
7. How long will they stay in Italy
A. Ten days. B. Three weeks. C. A month.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9小题。
8. What kind of pizza is the man ordering
A. A tomato pizza B. A seafood pizza. C. A cheese pizza.
9. How soon will the pizza be ready
A. In about 10 minutes. B. In about 20 minutes. C. In about 30 minutes.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What’s wrong with the man
A. He gets tired easily in winter.
B. He has been busy for a week.
C. He has got a cold again.
11. What will the man begin to try
A. Riding a bike. B. Going to the gym. C. Climbing the stairs.
12. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Workmates. B. Husband and wife. C. Doctor and patient.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Why didn’t the woman answer the phone
A. She didn’t hear the phone ringing.
B. She didn’t take her phone with her.
C. There was something wrong with her phone.
14. What day is it today
A. Wednesday. B. Thursday. C. Friday.
15. What has the man prepared for Ann’s birthday
A. A new CD. B. A special surprise. C. A fun party.
16. What will Ann’s cousin do
A. Come to see Ann.
B. Go to France tomorrow.
C. Buy Ann a plane ticket.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Where are the visitors from
A. China. B. England. C. America.
18. Where will the students meet the visitors
A. In the garden. B. At the school gate. C. At the school factory.
19. What activity will be held on the playground
A. A welcome party.
B. An English lecture.
C. A basketball match.
20. When will the visitors leave the school
A. At 9:00. B. At 11:00. C. At 12:00.
第二部分 阅读理解 （共两节，共50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，共37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳答案。
A
There are plenty of amazing places to visit in Thailand, and here are four popular ones that are worth a visit.
Bangkok, capital of Thailand, is a must-see city. Here you can explore temples, royal palaces, one of the craziest nightlife scenes in the world, and eat all the amazing Thai food. Here you can see the Grand Palace’s beautiful artwork, and shop at Chatuchak Weekend Market. Bangkok is an onion that requires time to peel（剥） back.
Ko Lanta is a wonderful place to visit. It’s less crowded than some other developed islands, making it feel like a hidden treasure. It has wide, white beaches, beautiful sunsets, and great water activities like snorkeling and diving. It’s a relaxed place where you can still feel the old Thailand.
Ko Phi Phi is one of the most popular tourist islands in Thailand. It’s known for Maya Bay, which was in the movie “The Beach” with Leonardo DiCaprio. People also come for the diving and nightlife. Destroyed by the tsunami in 2004, the island has been rebuilt and developed better than before.
Chiang Mai is a city filled with many temples and night markets. It’s a good place for forest tours, adventure activities, or visits to the nearby elephant shelters where you can volunteer to help rescued elephants. Chiang Mai is also considered one of the foodie capitals of the country, so be sure to get your fill of food.
21. What can tourists experience in Bangkok
A.Peel onions. B. Visit beaches.
C.Try local food. D. Explore islands.
22. Where would you go if you’re interested in animal protection？
A. Bangkok. B. Ko Lanta. C. Ko Phi Phi. D. Chiang Mai.
23. In which section of a magazine can you read the text
A. Art. B. Travel.
C. Education. D. Environment.
B
My wood-shop teacher, Mr. August J. Bachmann, was the most important teacher I ever had.
I had got into trouble in his class: Another student had pushed me into a wood lathe, and I became angry and began to hit him. Mr. Bachmann stopped the fight, but instead of sending me to the office, he sat me down and asked a simple question, “Penna, why are you wasting your life Why aren’t you going to college ”
I knew nothing about colleges. I had never considered a fatherless boy from the poorest neighborhood had a future. That day, instead of rushing off for lunch, he stayed and explained possible education choices to me. At the end of our talk, he sent me to see a secretary who had a child at a state college. This was in 1962 at Emerson High School.
Well, 53 years have passed. I gained a doctor’s degree. I taught English and social studies. And I moved up from teacher to headmaster. I’ve won a number of educational awards now. But where would I be if a truly caring teacher had not taken the time out of his lunch period to speak to me It was without question only his confidence in me that propelled me forward.
I have repaid his kindness hundreds of times by encouraging misguided youngsters. If I have saved any children, it is because of him. If I have been a successful educator, it is because I had a great role model in Mr. Bachmann.
24. What can we learn about the author when he was a child
A. He was from a happy family.
B. He was punished by the teacher.
C. He was the poorest in his class.
D. He was not confident at first.
25. What does the underlined word “propelled” probably mean
A. Put. B. Delivered. C. Pushed. D. Called.
26. Which can best describe Mr. Bachmann
A. Honest and patient. B. Kind and humorous.
C. Brave and wise. D. Caring and responsible.
27. What is the author’s purpose of writing this text
A. To show his thanks. B. To show his confidence.
C. To repay the kindness. D. To encourage young people.
C
As the Arctic (北极) continues to warm because of climate change, polar bears are spending more time searching for food in rubbish cans, instead of hunting for seals (海豹) on sea ice. And as human activity in northern communities increases, the bears’ growing dependence on rubbish is leading to more human-bear conflict (冲突).
Polar bears spend much of the year walking around on sea ice looking for seals, their main source of food. But scientists say the Arctic Ocean is warming four times faster than the rest of the world and, as a result, Arctic sea ice is melting (融化) earlier each spring and forming later each fall, which means the bears are going hungry for longer and longer periods of time. With less sea ice, the bears are spending more time on land. And because of their curious nature, they’re finding their way to rubbish cans, which is dangerous for both bears and humans.
Scientists are also concerned because young polar bears still under the care of their mothers are learning rubbish is an easy source of food. The situation will likely get worse, unless governments take steps to improve waste management.
But dealing with rubbish has historically been a challenge for faraway northern communities, where the ground is often too frozen to bury rubbish and trucking the rubbish out is expensive. Still, the researchers call for immediate action, as food-related polar bear issues can quickly get out of control. Bears remember where they find food and will return again and again, often in greater numbers. In addition, human populations in the north are also growing, which will also mean more rubbish.
28. What is Paragraph 1 mainly about
A. Climate change. B. Rubbish problem.
C. Food issue of polar bears. D. human activities.
29. What makes polar bears go hungry for longer time
A. Less sea ice than normal.
B. Extreme weather conditions.
C. The drop in seal population.
D. Overuse of resources by humans.
30. What are scientists concerned about
A. Bear population will increase in great numbers.
B. Human waste in the Arctic is expensive to deal with.
C. Many governments refuse to take immediate action.
D. Little polar bears may develop a habit of eating rubbish.
31. What is the author’s attitude towards the polar bears’ future
A. Worried. B. Uncertain.
C. Positive. D. Hopeful.
D
Researchers at MIT have come up with the concept (概念) of “outdoor days”—the number of days per year in a given place when the temperature is not too hot or cold to enjoy normal outdoor activities. They used this method to measure how global warming affects different areas of the United States. They discovered that some states, particularly Florida and other parts of the Southeast, would see a big drop in outdoor days, while some states in the Northwest would see a small increase.
This finding was published in Geophysical Research Letters by researchers Yeon-Woo Choi and Elfatih Eltahir. By collecting and examining temperature data (数据) since 1960, the researchers found that in recent years, the number of outdoor days in some places has changed compared to the past. “It seems like the Southeast is suffering major losses in the number of outdoor days,” says Choi. “This will affect people’s quality of life, and also the attractiveness of tourism and for people who want to settle here when they get old.”
The study also found that the seasonal pattern (模式) of outdoor days might change a lot. Although most areas now enjoy the most outdoor days in summer, spring and fall will become the preferred seasons for outdoor activities as summers get hotter. This change can be seen in Florida, where spring and fall are increasingly becoming the more enjoyable seasons for outdoor activities, while summer is no longer the best time of the year.
Eltahir explains, “We noticed that some people think climate change will happen later and will affect someone else. And this belief is part of the reason why people are not taking enough action now.” However, the idea of outdoor days connects climate change to personal daily activities. He adds, “We hope this idea would lead to the development of sound, science-based plans to fight climate change.”
32. What is the concept of “outdoor days” about
A. Weather report. B. Climate issue.
C. temperature data. D. Weather service.
33. What will fewer outdoor days lead to according to Choi
A. Growth in tourism industry.
B. Attractiveness for the old.
C. Lower quality of life.
D. Drop in indoor activities.
34. What can we learn from Eltahir’s words
A. Climate change will take place later.
B. “Outdoor days” leads to climate change.
C. “Outdoor days” prevents people taking action.
D. Effective plans are needed to fight climate change.
35. Which is the most suitable title for the text
A. Outdoor Days: A New Concept to Enjoy Life
B. Outdoor Days: A Measure on Climate Change
C. Outdoor Days: A Way to Explain Seasonal Pattern
D. Outdoor Days: A Method to Predict Tourism Direction
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，共12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有两项为多余选项。
School bullying(霸凌) is a common problem around the world. Read this article to understand more about bullying and find out what you can do to stop it.
What is bullying
Bullying is not just physical, like hitting or kicking someone. Bullying can also be with words—saying or writing unkind things. 36 It is like choosing not to include someone or telling other people not to be friends with them.
37
People who are bullied are more likely to suffer from stress and worry. They might lose interest in the activities they enjoy, avoid spending time with other people and not go to classes or school, which has a harmful effect on their learning.
What different roles do kids play
Bullying usually involves more people than you think. There are the people who bully and those who are bullied. Sometimes other people help the bully or join in. And some kids don’t bully directly but support it by watching. 38 To stop bullying, we need more people like them to step up.
How to help
Does your school do anything to prevent bullying 39 This group can do many things. A variety of activities can be carried out to help more people understand what bullying is and how to deal with it properly.
Bullying is a social problem and it needs a solution from society—in other words, everyone. The next time you see someone being cruel, take a stand. Don’t laugh or step back, but report to an adult immediately. 40
Why is stress and worry harmful
What are the influences of bullying
Your immediate action makes a difference.
Another type of bullying is social bullying.
Then there are kids who stay away from the situation.
Why not start a student group against bullying
However, there are also kids who want to help or defend the bullied.
第三部分 语言知识运用 （共三节，共40分）
第一节 完形填空 (共15小题；每小题1分，共15分)
阅读下面短文，从A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
When I was young, my mother was very much concerned for my happiness. And she was always there to 41 me when I was in need. But she never made decisions for me. We had proper boundaries (边界). When my own turn came for being a 42 , I was determined to do so. But as my daughter and I sat down to choose 43 for the seventh grade, I felt the boundaries begin to 44 . I tried to force my “practical wisdom” on her.
In her school, students were 45 three electives (选修课) each term. Several of these were year-long courses—band, yearbook and Spanish, while the rest—drama, leadership and PE were offered randomly (随机地). I hated 46 in my own school days.
We read the 47 for electives carefully and my worries went down. “You can 48 band, yearbook and Spanish, and you won’t have to take PE ever,” I told her. I settled back into my chair, a 49 taken off my shoulders. My daughter, 50 , disagreed. “But I’m not sure I want to take Spanish. And I want to do the leadership class... and 51 drama!” Finally, she still chose to take the chance and signed up for two year-long courses and one period of the 52 elective.
I suddenly 53 that it is my daughter’s 54 to go into the seventh grade, not me. She is her own person. The boundaries were 55 again.
41. A. teach B. admire C. support D. observe
42. A. teacher B. mother C. student D. guide
43. A. dictionaries B. courses C. references D. projects
44. A. fall B. form C. divide D. spread
45. A. shown B. allowed C. shared D. awarded
46. A. band B. drama C. PE D. leadership
47. A. news B. textbook C. paper D. guideline
48. A. sign up for B. set up C. make use of D. concentrate on
49. A. threat B. right C. weight D. doubt
50. A. finally B. therefore C. still D. however
51. A. manage B. review C. introduce D. try
52. A. excellent B. random C. difficult D. interesting
53. A. realized B. wondered C. announced D. pretended
54. A. turn B. way C. pleasure D. effort
55. A. different B. disappearing C. clear D. closed
第二节 选词填空（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据下列句子语境从所给词块中选择合适的填空，其中有两项为多余选项。注意，请在答题卡上把对应题目的答案标号涂黑，在横线上直接写出该单词不得分。
A. be addicted to B. apply for C. fall apart D. be aware of E. take part in F. lose heart G. make progress
56. She decided to _________ a job at an AI company.
57. If you put your mind to your study, you’re sure to _________.
58. Many countries will _________ the project and donate money to protect the cultural heritage of areas along the river.
59. You should _________ the fact that developing good study habits will do good to your high school life.
60. As a freshman in high school, it’s important not to _________ when faced with challenging subjects or difficult exams.
第三节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Although China has gone through many ups and downs in history, its civilisation has continued all the way through modern times. One of the main 61 (factor) why this has been possible is the Chinese writing system.
At the beginning, written Chinese was a picture-based language, which 62 (date) back several thousand years to the use of longgu. Some of the ancient symbols can still 63 (see) in today’s hanzi. By the Shang Dynasty, these symbols had become 64 well-developed writing system, and then the system developed 65 different forms over the years. But this changed under Emperor Qinshihuang of the Qin Dynasty. After he united the seven major states, the Chinese writing system began to develop in one direction. The writing system was of great 66 (important) in uniting the Chinese people and culture. By this means, China’s present is connected with 67 (it) past. Modern Chinese people can still read classic works 68 were written by ancient Chinese. Besides, Chinese calligraphy has become an important part of Chinese culture.
Today, with China playing a 69 (great) role in global affairs, more and more international students are beginning to learn this amazing language 70 (appreciate) China’s culture and history.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （满分15分）
假定你是李华，上周五你校开设了一场关于地震的讲座，请用英语给你的英国朋友Jack写一封邮件分享这场讲座，内容包括：
1.讲座内容；
2.你的感想。
注意：1. 写作词数应为80左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Jack,
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 （满分15分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写一段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I was once the quietest person you could imagine. Whenever teachers asked me to talk in class, I got so nervous that I could hardly breathe and couldn’t say a single word. Every question from the teacher made me feel like I was going to fail. Then, in Grade 10, my sister saw how much I was struggling and told me to try voice lessons. At first, the idea of taking voice lessons made me frightened, but I really wanted to change. So, I got brave and said yes.
Voice lessons were totally new to me. Each time I went, it felt like I was fighting against my worries and nervousness. Although the first few lessons seemed easy, it was hard for me. And as time went on, the lessons got even harder. We moved from just breathing and making sounds to more difficult voice training and practicing singing in front of people. There were times I wanted to quit because I was so afraid of failing. But when I was feeling down, my sister’s support was what kept me going.
One day, after a really bad practice where I just couldn’t get the new skill right no matter how hard I tried. I went home feeling very sad. I sat on the couch, almost crying.
My sister knew I was upset as soon as she saw me. She sat next to me and put her arm around my shoulders. “Hey,” she said gently, “I know it’s hard now, but remember, all the good singers started from nothing too.” Then she took out her phone and showed me videos of famous singers when they were just starting. They also made mistakes and had bad days, just like me. “See They didn’t give up because of these problems, and you shouldn’t either. If you keep practicing, you’ll get better at it too.” Her words filled me with confidence. With every practice, I improved bit by bit.
注意:
1.续写词数应为80左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡相应位置作答。
A few months into my voice training, I was given a chance to sing for some elderly people at a community center. __________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
正确填涂
填涂样例
错误填涂
