2024-2025学年度第一学期期末学业质量测评
七年级英语试题
注意事项：
1. 本试题分第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分。第Ⅰ卷为选择题，75分；第Ⅱ卷为非选择题，45分；共120分。考试用时120分钟。
2. 请务必在答题卡规定的答题区域内作答，第Ⅰ卷须用2B铅笔填涂，第Ⅱ卷须用0.5毫米的黑色签字笔书写。
第I卷 (选择题 共75分)
一、听力 (共四节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，请将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。第一节 (共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5个句子，每个句子后有三幅图画。每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与句子内容相符的图画，并标在试卷的相应位置。
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
第二节 (共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5个句子，每个句子后有一道小题。每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答语，并标在试卷的相应位置。
6. A. Thank you. B. I’m sorry. C. You’re welcome.
7. A. In the music club. B. I can play the guitar. C. Playing football.
8. A. A pair of trousers. B. Next Sunday. C. At around 6:00.
9. A. Here you are. B. Six yuan. C. Two kilos.
10. A. Yes, I do. B. I often draw. C. It’s fun.
第三节 (共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一道小题。每段对话读两遍。请你听完对话的第二遍朗读后，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。
11. When does the class start
A. At 7:30. B. At 8:00. C. At 8:30.
12. Which sport is on TV today
A. Hockey. B. Football. C. Tennis.
13. What does May want for breakfast
A. An apple. B. An egg. C. A carrot.
14. What does Kate’s dad do
A. He’s a teacher. B. He’s a reporter. C. He’s a singer.
15. What subject does Chen Jie love
A. Science. B. Biology. C. Geography.
第四节 (共5个小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面一段短文，短文后有五道小题。短文读两遍。请你听完短文的第二遍朗读后，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。
16. What is Judy’s school like
A. It’s new. B. It’s big. C. It’s modern.
17. When does Judy have English
A. On Monday and Friday. B. On Monday and Thursday. C. On Wednesday and Friday.
18. Where does Judy have IT lessons
A. In the computer building. B. In the school library. C. In the science building.
19. Who is Judy’s favourite teacher
A. Miss White. B. Mr Green. C. Miss Smith.
20. How many songs in French can Judy sing
A.4. B.5. C.6.
二、完形填空 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Hi, my name is Peter. What is your daily 21 like Well, here is mine. I get up early on school days. I brush my teeth 22 get dressed. Brushing teeth is 23 . “Good teeth, good life! ” my mother always says this to me.
After breakfast, I go to school by bus. School 24 at 8:20 a. m. I have four lessons in the morning and the last one is 25 . It is my favourite because I’m good at numbers. There are three lessons in the afternoon.
After school, my friends and I have lots of 26 to do. This week, we draw pictures on the blank walls at school. It is 27 , because it makes our school beautiful. After that, I get home and do my homework first.
My father enjoys cooking. Usually, he prepares the dinner for 28 . After dinner, I read books. As the 29 goes, “Reading makes a full man.” Next, it’s time to go to bed.
On weekends, my family and I usually 30 time together. We try new things, like going hiking and going fishing.
21. A. routine B. homework C. news
22. A. but B. and C. because
23. A. funny B. difficult C. important
24. A. starts B. finishes C. lives
25. A. Chinese B. maths C. history
26. A. problems B. sports C. activities
27. A. meaningful B. large C. hard
28. A. him B. her C. us
29. A. travel B. saying C. drama
30. A. spend B. collect C. forget
三、阅读选择 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Sports Club Are you good at playing basketball Can you play tennis or ping-pong Can you play football well Welcome to our school sports club. You can play these sports here. Please call Lee at 498-6790 or send an email to sports@.
Piano Club Do you love music Do you want to play the piano Join our piano club! Mrs Green will teach you to play it. To join the club, you need to go to Room 203 in the teaching building for an interview (面试). To know more, please call Maria at 786-0928 or Emma at 786-0929.
Chess Club Do you like playing chess Mr Smith can teach you. He gives one lesson every school day in Room 103 in the library. To know more, please call Judy at 632-7328.
31. What sport can you play in the sports club
①Tennis. ②Ping-pong. ③Swimming. ④Football.
A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ②③④
32. What can you do to join the piano club
A. Email Maria or Emma.
B. Call Judy at 632-7328.
C. Go to Room 203 for an interview.
33. Who will teach you to play the piano
A. Lee. B. Mrs Green. C. Mr Smith.
34. Where can you have chess lessons
A. In the library. B. In the sports club. C. In the music room.
35. The materials above (以上材料) may be ________.
A. emails B. news C. notices
B
Tom and Lily are brother and sister. Tom is 13 years old and Lily is 11 years old. They live in London with their parents. Next door to them lives Ms Green. Ms Green is 78 years old. Her son lives in Shanghai and her grandson lives in Paris.
One afternoon, Ms Green wants to take two boxes of tomatoes home from the shop, but they are too heavy (重的) for her. When Tom and Lily see this, they walk to her and say, “Ms Green, we can help you! ” Ms Green says, “Thank you, Tom and Lily!”
Another morning, Ms Green wants to clean the windows of her house. When Tom and Lily know this, they give her a helping hand. They clean the windows from 9 o’clock to 11 o’clock. Ms Green is very grateful and gives them some cakes.
Tom and Lily often help Ms Green. They find that helping Ms Green makes them happy.
36. Where does Ms Green’s grandson live
A. In London. B. In Shanghai. C. In Paris.
37. What do Tom and Lily help Ms Green do one afternoon
A. They take her to the shop.
B. They help her clean the windows.
C. They help her take tomatoes home.
38. 第三段中划线单词grateful的中文意思是 ________。
A. 放松的 B. 感激的 C. 负责的
39. Which word may Ms Green use to describe (描述) Tom and Lily
A. Kind. B. Clever. C. Funny.
40. What can we learn from Tom and Lily
A. To study hard. B. To help others. C. To do exercise often.
46. How do trees help us stay healthy
A. They clean the air. B. They share their sap. C. They give delicious fruits.
47. Which of the following is the best for “________”
A. Not all trees are big. B. Planting trees is easy. C. Trees are very useful.
48. What can we do to stop hurting our dear friends—trees
A. Building houses and shops. B. Join tree-planting activities. C. Use much paper every day.
49. What is the structure (结构) of the passage (①= Paragraph 1, ②= Paragraph 2…)
A. B. C.
50. The writer wrote the passage mainly to ________.
A. tell us not to hurt trees
B. teach us how to make use of trees
C. show us how to make friends with animals
四、情景交际 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从方框中选择恰当的选项补全对话，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A. What’s the total B. What else can I do for you C. Which ones would you like D. Do the pizzas come with anything E. May I have your name and the delivery address (送货地址)
(Susan is calling Pizza House.)
A: Hello. This is Pizza House. Can I help you
B: Yes, please. I’d like three large pizzas.
A: OK. We have fruit pizza, beef pizza and chicken pizza. (51) ________
B: A fruit pizza and two beef pizzas, please. (52) ________
A: $55. A large fruit pizza is $15 and a large beef one is $20.
B: OK, I’ll take them. (53) ________
A: Yes. Each pizza comes with two orange juices.
B: That’s good.
A: (54) ________
B: Sure. I’m Susan Jones, at the All-Star Sports Centre.
A: OK. Your order (订单) will be there in about 40 minutes. (55) ________
B: No, thanks a lot.
C
I am Fred. I’m 13 years old. I have a good friend. His name is Jack and he is 14 years old. We were born (出生) in Hangzhou. Now I live in Shanghai. He still lives in our hometown (家乡). We live far away from each other, but we are still very good friends.
We call each other very often and talk about our school life and studies. Jack is good at maths and science. But I am bad at maths. He always helps me with it. Also, he likes music and art. When he is free, he likes singing and drawing.
We never forget each other’s birthdays. This year I give him a schoolbag as a gift, and he gives me a toy car.
This weekend, I will go back to Hangzhou. I will see cows, sheep, and ducks at my grandpa’s farm. And of course, I will see my friend. We can play together, study together and read books together. Both he and I look forward to (期待) the weekend.
41. How old is Jack
A.13 years old. B.14 years old. C.15 years old.
42. Where does Fred live now
A. In Shanghai. B. In Hangzhou. C. In Beijing.
43. 第二段中划线单词it指代的是 ________.
A. maths B. music C. art
44. Jack gives Fred ________ for his birthday this year.
A. A book. B. A schoolbag. C. A toy car.
45. What will Fred do this weekend
A. Stay home and study. B. Go back to his hometown. C. Go to a friend’s farm.
D
Trees are important to us. They do a lot for us, our environment (环境) and animals.
Trees help to keep the air clean and make us healthy. They take in dirty air and give clean air to us. Go for a walk in the park in the morning, and you can feel how nice it is to be with many trees and clean air.
Trees also give us many kinds of beautiful flowers and delicious fruits such as apples and oranges. Trees give homes to different insects, birds and other animals. Even the sap (汁液) of trees is useful as food for insects.
________ We can use them in many ways. But we are hurting (伤害) them and they can’t grow back quickly. We cut down trees to make paper, desks and chairs. Also, we sometimes clear (清空) the forest to make space to build houses, shops and so on. Clearing the forest is bad. Many animals lose (失去) their homes because of this.
It is time for us to stop hurting our great friends —trees. Use not as much paper and join tree-planting activities. All of us can do something for our dear friends!
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共45分)
温馨提示：请将答案书写在答题卡的指定位置。
五、阅读表达 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，完成相关任务。
In Nyingchi, Xizang, China, there is an amazing school. There are about 400 students in the school. Most of the students come from distant mountain areas (遥远山区) but live in the school.
The school has modern classrooms with blackboards and screens. It also has a large sports field for basketball and football.
10-year-old Konchog Rapten is one of the students there. Every morning, after eating breakfast, Konchog starts his day of study with his classmates. They have three healthy meals a day. They can also get food like yogurt and fruit. After evening study, they go to bed before 10:00 p. m.
The students study for ten days and then have a four-day break. It is important for students like Konchog, because they can help their parents with herding (放牧) in the breaks.
56. How many students are there in this school
57. How old is Konchog
58. Why is the break important for Konchog
59. 请在文中找出与There is a large sports field for basketball and football, too. 意思相近的句子。
60. 请把划线句子翻译成汉语。
六、词汇运用 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
(A) 根据句子意思和音标写出正确的单词。
61. What’s ________ in your classroom /’spe l/
62. Yu Hongru is a great ________ in China. /’sa nt st/
63. Books can open your ________ and make you think. /ma nd/
64. For Li Wen, doing ________ is also a way to get exercise. /’ha sw k/
65. We ________CPC Founding Day on 1 July. /’sel breIt/
(B) 根据语境，从方框中选择恰当的短语填空，每个短语限用一次。
act out, make a wish, at weekends, different from, work out
66. How is your new school ________ your old one
67. Class, now you have three minutes to ________ the answer.
68. The drama club members ________a new story every month at the student centre.
69. Deng Ting usually visits her grandparents ________.
70. Let’s ________ for the coming year.
七、综合填空 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面对话或短文，用方框内所给词汇的适当形式填空，使对话或短文语义完整。
A
music, about, idea, after, start
Teng Fei: Hi there! What club do you want to join
Peter: I have no 71 .
Teng Fei: Here’s some good news! Our school wants to 72 a music club. Do you want to join
Peter: Sure. I can play the guitar. What about you, Emma
Emma: I’d love to, but I can’t play any 73 instruments.
Peter: Oh, but you can sing well.
Teng Fei: Exactly! How 74 Ella She can play the violin, right
Emma: Yes, she can.
Peter: What instruments can you play, Teng Fei
Teng Fei: I can play the drums.
Peter: That’s great! Let’s go to the music room 75 school!
B
symbol, plant, because, noodle, together
My birthday is on 13th June. On that day, I always eat birthday 76 with eggs. Long noodles are a 77 of long life. Every year, my family and I take a photo 78 under the big tree in our village. I like taking photos 79 they help me remember fun times with my family. This year, I want to 80 a small tree for my 14th birthday. I’d like to watch it grow with me.
八、书面表达 (满分15分)
假如你是余晓明，在某英语学习论坛看到下面这个帖子，请你认真阅读该贴，并用英语回复它。
要求：1. 回帖需包含帖子中的所有问题，可适当发挥；
2. 内容充实，结构完整，语言准确，书写规范；
3.70词左右。
2024-2025学年度第一学期期末学业质量测评
七年级英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第Ⅰ卷 (选择题 共75分)
一、听力 (共20小题，每题1.5分，满分30分)
1-5ABCAB 6-10ABCBC11-15BACBA16-20BCBAA
二、完形填空 (共10小题，每题1分，满分10分)
21-25ABCAB 26-30CACBA
三、阅读选择 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
31-35 BCBAC 36-40CCBAB 41-45 BAACB 46-50ACBAA
四、情景交际 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
51-55 CADEB
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题 共45分)
五、阅读表达 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
56. (About) 400. / There are about 400 students in the school.
57. (He is) 10 (years old).
58. Because he (they) can help his (their) parents with herding in the breaks.
59. It also has a large sports field for basketball and football.
60. 学生学习10天，然后休息4天。
六、词汇运用 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
61. special 62. scientist 63. mind 64. housework 65. celebrate
66. different from (67. work out 68. act out 69. at weekends 70. make a wish
七、综合填空 (共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
71. idea 72. start 73. musical 74. about 75. after
76. noodles 77. symbol 78. together 79. because 80. plant
八、书面表达 (满分15分)
参考范文 略
