广西壮族自治区玉林市2024-2025学年高二上学期1月期末英语试题(含答案,无听力原文、答案及音频)

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名称 广西壮族自治区玉林市2024-2025学年高二上学期1月期末英语试题(含答案,无听力原文、答案及音频)
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版本资源 北师大版(2019)
科目 英语
更新时间 2025-02-15 12:27:57

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2024年秋季期高二期末教学质量监测
英语
(本试卷满分150分,考试时间120分钟)
注意事项:
1. 答题前,务必将自己的姓名、学校、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。
2. 答选择题时,必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑,如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案标号。
3. 答非选择题时,必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔,将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。
4. 所有题目必须在答题卡上作答,在试题卷上答题无效。
第一部分 听力 (共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.50. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是B。
1. When does the conversation take place
A. At dusk. B. At midnight. C. In the early morning.
2. What’s wrong with the man’s food
A. It’s hot. B. It’s salty. C. It’s tasteless.
3. What is the woman likely to do
A. Go to the hospital. B. Take a day off. C. Drive to work.
4. Which room has the man finished decorating
A. The bathroom. B. The living room. C. The kitchen.
5. Where are the speakers
A. In a classroom. B. At a hospital. C. On a ball field.
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Food culture. B. Protecting animals. C. Being a vegetarian.
7. What food does the man probably prefer to eat
A. Steak. B. Chicken. C. Salad.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. How does the man usually overcome his fear
A. By walking. B. By shouting. C. By singing.
9. What did the woman do on the stormy night
A. She stayed up all night. B. She hid under the bed. C. She jumped on the bed.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. How does the woman look
A. Confused. B. Excited. C. Anxious.
11. How did the woman get to know about the news
A. From the newspaper. B. From the radio. C. From TV.
12. What does the woman ask the man to do
A. Look for Debbie. B. Pick Debbie up every day. C. Teach Debbie self-protection.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. Why is the man tired
A. He has been studying.
B. He has been at work all day.
C. He has been tidying up his apartment.
14. What is the man’s wife now
A. A student. B. A bank clerk. C. A university professor.
15. What kind of person is the man looking for
A. A tutor. B. A repairman. C. A cleaner.
16. What will the woman probably do after the conversation
A. Give her friends a call.
B. Visit the man’s new apartment.
C. Give the man her friend’s number.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. How much is the ticket to the Ocean Park
A. 2.00. B. 6.50. C. 8.50.
18. What is unavailable during the trip
A Lunch. B. Water. C. Fruit.
19. What will the listeners do at 2:30 next Tuesday
A Listen to a talk.
B. Do some worksheets.
C. Watch the sharks being fed.
20. What is the topic of the talk for next Tuesday
A. The ocean. B. Sharks. C. Penguins.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
You may hope to have healthy diets and a healthy body. You may want to eat tasty food that is easy to prepare. You may be inspired to exercise and stay in shape. The good news is that there are apps to help you.
Paprika
Paprika is an app to help users plan meals, shop and cook. You can save recipes from websites and from other apps to Paprika. The app can help keep a record of the foods you have in your home, so when you go shopping, it can remind you what the required foods are.
MealBoard
MealBoard is another app that can suggest recipes and help you plan meals. This app can suggest recipes based on the food you already have in your home. MealBoard can keep a list of what food you have and what you expect to buy. This app can scan bar codes (条形码) to add items to your list. Using this app, you can also know when your food is no longer usable.
MealBoard lets users save recipes from websites and then search them by foods used in the recipes. For example, you can search for recipes that have “chocolate” in them.
IEatWell
The IEatWell app supports healthy eating by giving users rewards for eating the right foods. If you like earning rewards for meeting your goals, IEatWell may work well for you. Instead of measuring how much you eat, IEatWell measures how well you eat. Tell the app what you are eating for your meal. You can even add a photo. The app will rate how healthy your meal is, and then give you a reward if you are eating well.
1. How can MealBoard help people
A. By measuring how much people have eaten.
B. By telling people when their food may go bad.
C. By giving people a reward if they are eating well.
D. By keeping a record of the meals people eat outside.
2. Why do people upload a photo on to the app—IEatWell
A. The app can tell how tasty the meal is.
B. The app can tell how beneficial their meal is.
C. They love to share their meal with other users.
D. They hope to inform others their creative recipe.
3. Which column of a magazine is the article probably from
A. Adventure. B. Entertainment. C. Health. D. Famous figures.
B
An owl (猫头鹰) named Flaco escaped New York’s Central Park Zoo last week after his cage was broken. This set off a bird-hunt of police officers and park rangers (护林员). Zoo officials worried that Flaco, who had been kept in his zoo cage for 13 years, may have lost the survival abilities he needed in the wild. They placed some of his favorite treats in the open air to attempt to trap him.
Flaco was not fooled. Instead, he was sighted flying over5th Avenue, and Central Park’s skating rink. A number of New Yorkers came into Central Park to try to catch a glimpse of Flaco, taking photos with excitement.
But this week, zoo officials announced they accepted that Flaco remained in Central Park because he had been seen bringing up bones and fur from the park’s community of rats. “He has been very successful at hunting and consuming lots of rats in the park.” zoo officials told the New York Post.“ And that’s amazing. He’s hunting on his own. He’s flying better. Flaceo really seems to be enjoying himself out there.”
There is a caution attached to this story of an owl who is making it on his own in the city that never sleeps. Owls are nocturnal. They go around searching for food at night. They sleep during the day, or try to, like lots of people who work the overnight shift. Yet some New Yorkers who don’t know proper bird-watching behavior reportedly see Flaco sleep in a tree during the day, and begin to shout at him. It interrupts his sleep. Flaco can’t try to say “shh, shh” with the traditional New York reply. After all, a bird can’t give someone the bird.
4. Why were zoo officials concerned about Flaco’s ability to survive
A. Because his favourite food was too little. B. Because he might be attacked by police.
C. Because his cage was severely damaged. D. Because he was kept in his cage for long.
5. What can we infer about Flaco from the third paragraph
A. He has adapted to the wild. B. He has found his previous home.
C. He still faces great challenges. D. He dislikes the rats in the park.
6. What does the underlined word “nocturnal” in paragraph 4 mean
A. Scary-looking. B. Shy and quiet.
C. Active at night. D. Badly-behaved.
7. Which word best describes the author’s attitude to the interruption to Flaco’s sleep
A. Cautious. B. Favorable. C. Unclear. D. Disapproving.
C
Whether artificial intelligence has ever been on your radar or not, there’s no denying that it’s high time you turned your attention to ChatGPT, because this one is a big deal.
The tool, developed by Open AI, let you type natural-language prompts (提示). ChatGPT then offers conversational responses. The robot remembers the information of your dialogue, using previous questions and answers to inform its next responses. It draws its answers from vast amounts of information on the internet.
ChatGPT seems pretty knowledgeable in areas where there’s good training data for it to learn from. It’s not smart enough to replace all humans yet, but it can be creative, and its answers can sound very authoritative (权威的). You can ask it countless questions and often will get useful answers. For instance, you can ask it encyclopedic (百科知识的) questions like “Explain Newton’s laws of motion.” You can tell it “Write me a poem.” and when it does, say “Now make it more exciting.” You can ask it to write a computer program that will show you all the different ways you can arrange the letters of a word. A few days after its launch, more than 1 million people were trying out ChatGPT.
Many people fear that ChatGPT might help students cheat better. But as many other technology developments, it is not a simple black-and-white situation. Decades ago, students could copy encyclopedia entries and use computers and more recently, they have been able to use search engines and Wikipedia. ChatGPT offers new abilities for everything from helping with research to doing your homework for you.
Dustin York, an associate professor at Maryville University, hopes educators will learn to use ChatGPT as a tool and realize it can help students think critically. “Educators thought that Google, Wikipedia, and the Internet itself would ruin education, but they did not.” York said. “What worries me most are educators who may actively try to discourage the recognition of AI like ChatGPT. It is a tool, not a villain (反派).”
8. What does Paragraph 2 mainly tell us about ChatGPT
A. Its language model. B. Its design inspiration.
C. Its working principle. D. Its development process.
9. What is NOT part of ChatGPT’s function
A. Chat with users. B. Perform security checks.
C. Write a computer program. D. Create a poem.
10. Why is ChatGPT a big deal
A. Because it is a tool designed by Open AI.
B. Because it has obvious and potential disadvantages.
C. Because it helped students with their homework and essays.
D. Because it’s knowledgeable in areas with good training data to learn from.
11. What is the best title of this text
A. ChatGPT — a useful AI tool
B. Advanced AI — our loyal servant
C. ChatGPT — advantages and disadvantages
D. A smart app — think twice before trusting it
D
This year marks the 20th anniversary of China’s first manned space mission, with Yang Liwei becoming the first Chinese astronaut to go to space. Since then, another 19 astronauts have reached for the stars. The selection of the fourth generation of astronauts began in 2022 and is now in full swing. Experts revealed how tough the training is before astronauts can fly to space.
The human body is not designed for space life. Astronauts are faced with multiple challenges on a space mission. The changes in gravity can have an impact on their bodies. The sensation of confinement(封闭)living in a small spacecraft for months can damage their mental health. Emergencies during missions challenge their knowledge and ability to solve problems under huge pressure. So it’s no wonder that astronauts have to meet extremely high standards and go through a tough training program.
To make sure that Chinese astronauts complete their missions and return to Earth safely, “Eight types, including over 200 subjects of training, were set,” Huang Weifen, chief designer of the astronaut system for China’s manned space project, told CCTV News. Apart from physical fitness training, it also includes basic scientific theories, psychological health, and mock(模拟)missions.
Among the training subjects, the most tiring one is underwater training. This training is designed for astronauts to adapt to the microgravity environment in space. According to Huang, astronauts stay underwater in suits weighing over 100 kilograms for six hours at a time. Water resistance(阻力)and the heavy suit make every move exhausting. “Nie Haisheng, one of the astronauts, once reported a two-kilogram loss in weight after one underwater training exercise,” said Huang. Each astronaut receives training for at least three and a half years before having the chance to go to space.
12. How many generations of Chinese astronauts have been sent to space
A. 3 B. 4 C. 19 D. 20
13. Which of following is true according to paragraph 2
A. Human body is perfect for space exploration.
B. The spacecraft has enough space for astronauts to operate.
C. Astronauts ought to complete missions under huge pressure.
D. The isolated condition in space benefits people’s mental health.
14. Why did Huang mention Nie Haisheng’s two-kilogram weight loss
A. To stress how challenging the training is. B. To describe Nie’s personal achievements.
C. To introduce the weight limit for astronauts. D. To explain the importance of proper training.
15. What does this passage mainly about
A. Microgravity environment cause health problems.
B. Astronauts need tough training to meet various challenges.
C. China has completed numerous missions in space exploration.
D. Experts reveals the high standards of selection process of astronauts.
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
With the development of the tourist industry, traveling has become a fashionable way for people to spend their holiday. Most people like traveling with friends or families. ___16___ Here are some advantages of traveling alone.
★___17___
If you travel alone, you are the boss of yourself. You can do things according to your own timetable. You can decide freely whenever you go, wherever you visit and whichever transport you take. You don’t need to wait for your partners. You can decide how long you stay at a place and which hotel you live in. Traveling alone gives you more freedom in making decisions.
★Gaining more confidence, strength and learning new skills.
It is a great challenge to be alone on the road. When you travel alone you might face some problems, make decisions and even meet some dangers on your own. All these challenges will make you stronger, braver and much more confident. ___18___
★Getting to know more people.
Traveling alone does not mean that you will always be alone. In fact, both other tourists and local people will be friendly to you. In order to know more about the places you are traveling to, you have to communicate with strangers. In this way, you can know more people. ___19___ Instead, the guide or your group members will talk with you all the way.
★Finding out your shortcomings.
Traveling alone is a great chance for you to discover your disadvantages. ___20___ While traveling alone, you’ll find that you can’t achieve many things without others’ help. After traveling alone, you are sure to become better by leaving your shortcomings behind.
A. Having more freedom.
B. Enjoying what you like.
C. However, it’s also a good idea to travel alone.
D. The purpose of traveling alone is to make friends on the way.
E. If you travel in groups you’ll have very little need to communicate with strangers.
F. When traveling with friends and family, it can be hard to recognize your own weaknesses.
G. You can also pick up some skills when traveling on your own, for example, making plans.
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
As I looked out this morning, I saw over six inches of snow. Beautiful as it was, I had to rush out to help my husband ___21___ it from our driveway. Across the street I saw our ___22___, Herr Schroeder. I had ___23___ ever talked with him in our year of living here - a cheerful nod was the limit of our ___24___. Even so, as my husband and I tried to deal with the car, he appeared to ___25___ us, and afterward showed me how to spread salt. As I was spreading the salt, my hands were exposed to the freezing air ___26___ I didn’t have any work gloves. Then my neighbor, Joanna, appeared with gloves. I was ___27___ by her kind act, and went back to the ___28___ work with renewed energy, knowing that in a small way I was ___29___ the village. Here in Germany, every person feels it’s their ____30____ to keep the sidewalks in front of their house ____31____. This principle largely guides life here.
We were warned when we first ____32____ that Germans are strict rule followers. This strict observation of the rules made me ____33____ at first. In a society governed by such ____34____, how would a stranger survive The ____35____ didn’t come to me fully until this morning as I watched people clearing snow in my village. No man is an island, and when you join a village, the village also joins you.
21. A. save B. remove C. cover D. beautify
22. A. workmate B. repairman C. driver D. neighbor
23. A. frequently B. specifically C. hardly D. merely
24. A. interactions B. processes C. languages D. styles
25. A. praise B. protect C. assist D. access
26. A. because B. though C. unless D. if
27. A. defeated B. amused C. convinced D. touched
28. A. challenging B. rewarding C. technical D. experimental
29. A. applying for B. looking for C. accounting for D. caring for
30. A. wisdom B. courage C. responsibility D. permission
31. A. dirty B. clear C. pure D. vivid
32. A. hurried B. refused C. succeeded D. arrived
33. A. upset B. curious C. nervous D. enthusiastic
34. A. functions B. standards C. services D. characteristics
35. A. reply B. suggestion C. permission D. answer
第二节 语法填空 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In China, Laba Festival marks the beginning of preparations for the Spring Festival. Laba Festival reminds one ___36___ Laba porridge and Laba garlic. But where did this festival come from How was it celebrated in China ___37___ (traditional)
In the Shang Dynasty or even before, the festival was celebrated as “Lari”. People presented animals as offerings to the gods and ancestors, ___38___ (hope) for a good harvest in the next year. The tradition was slightly changed during the Han Dynasty ___39___ people started holding feasts and arranging family reunions. The “Lari Festival” ___40___ (value) highly in the Tang Dynasty. A number of poems ___41___ (write) in that period of time have shown how the festival was celebrated at that time.
Laba porridge was first mentioned in ___42___ book from the Song Dynasty. According to the record, temples in the capital started to cook and serve bowls of Laba porridge with various types of grains and nuts, and sent ___43___ (they) to the visitors. Since the Qing Dynasty, distribution of Laba porridge at Yonghe Lamasery, popularly known as the Lama Temple, in Beijing has been one of the most famous ___44___ (activity) on the day.
The ____45____ (celebrate) of Laba Festival gradually spread from the court to the ordinary people during the past thousands of years.
第四部分 写作 (共两节,满分40分)
第一节 (满分15分)
46. 假如你是李华,你校交换生Harvey在校园网上发布了一则广告,寻找一个合适的寄宿家庭 (host family),以更好地学习中国文化和体验当地人的生活。请你给他写一封邮件,推荐自己的家,内容包括:
1. 自我介绍
2. 推荐的理由
3. 期待对方的到来
注意:1. 词数80左右;2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
Dear Harvey,
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best regards,
Li Hua
第二节 (满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
As the only child of my parents, the latest fashions were always in reach for me. I liked having the latest clothes and a particular look. Sometimes I felt I wouldn’t be accepted unless I could create the right image with the latest clothes and shoes.
I would go shopping all the time. As time went by, however, the things I wanted were getting more expensive and my mother’s answer was no longer “yes” to everything.
One day I asked my mother for a little extra money to go shopping. After giving me a long speech about not spending too much on clothes, she decided to give me a credit card so that I could learn to handle money like an adult. It sounded like a great idea to me: I wouldn’t have to ask her for money all the time. I’d be free.
A few days later, she handed me the card and sat me down to talk about my spending limit. “Don’t go crazy buying everything you see. I’m paying that bill every month—remember that. Your limit is $ 150 every month. Think you can handle that ” she said.
“I can handle it, you’ll see,” I said, already thinking about the first thing I was going to buy.
For the first two months, I only used the card to buy small things—a shirt here and there and treating my friends to a meal. Once I got used to having the card, I started going shopping every week, always managing to find something I wanted but didn’t need.
So far, I wasn’t going over my limit and there were no complaints from my mother. But one day, I saw a pair of UGG boots I wanted that cost $250. They were very popular, and seeing others with them made me want them more.
At that moment, nothing could stop me from getting them, not even the bill or what my mother would say about it. I bought them even though they were way over my limit.
注意:
(1) 续写词数应为150个左右;
(2) 开头已给出。
Paragraph 1:
For the first few days, I hid them from my mother because I didn’t want her to make me return them.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2:
Once she took my card away, things changed a lot.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024年秋季期高二期末教学质量监测
英语
(本试卷满分150分,考试时间120分钟)
注意事项:
1. 答题前,务必将自己的姓名、学校、班级、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。
2. 答选择题时,必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑,如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案标号。
3. 答非选择题时,必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔,将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。
4. 所有题目必须在答题卡上作答,在试题卷上答题无效。
第一部分 听力 (共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.50. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是B。
1. When does the conversation take place
A At dusk. B. At midnight. C. In the early morning.
2. What’s wrong with the man’s food
A. It’s hot. B. It’s salty. C. It’s tasteless.
3. What is the woman likely to do
A. Go to the hospital. B. Take a day off. C. Drive to work.
4. Which room has the man finished decorating
A. The bathroom. B. The living room. C. The kitchen.
5. Where are the speakers
A. In a classroom. B. At a hospital. C. On a ball field.
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A Food culture. B. Protecting animals. C. Being a vegetarian.
7. What food does the man probably prefer to eat
A. Steak. B. Chicken. C. Salad.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. How does the man usually overcome his fear
A. By walking. B. By shouting. C. By singing.
9. What did the woman do on the stormy night
A. She stayed up all night. B. She hid under the bed. C. She jumped on the bed.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. How does the woman look
A. Confused. B. Excited. C. Anxious.
11. How did the woman get to know about the news
A. From the newspaper. B. From the radio. C. From TV.
12. What does the woman ask the man to do
A. Look for Debbie. B. Pick Debbie up every day. C. Teach Debbie self-protection.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. Why is the man tired
A. He has been studying.
B. He has been at work all day.
C. He has been tidying up his apartment.
14. What is the man’s wife now
A. A student. B. A bank clerk. C. A university professor.
15. What kind of person is the man looking for
A. A tutor. B. A repairman. C. A cleaner.
16. What will the woman probably do after the conversation
A. Give her friends a call.
B. Visit the man’s new apartment.
C. Give the man her friend’s number.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. How much is the ticket to the Ocean Park
A. 2.00. B. 6.50. C. 8.50.
18. What is unavailable during the trip
A. Lunch. B. Water. C. Fruit.
19. What will the listeners do at 2:30 next Tuesday
A. Listen to a talk.
B. Do some worksheets.
C. Watch the sharks being fed.
20 What is the topic of the talk for next Tuesday
A. The ocean. B. Sharks. C. Penguins.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. B 3. C
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. D 5. A 6. C 7. D
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. B 10. D 11. A
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. A 13. C 14. A 15. B
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. C 17. A 18. G 19. E 20. F
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节,满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. D 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. D 30. C 31. B 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. D
第二节 语法填空 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. of 37. traditionally
38. hoping 39. when
40. was valued
41. written
42. a 43. them
44. activities
45. celebration
第四部分 写作 (共两节,满分40分)
第一节 (满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Harvey,
I’m Li Hua, a local Chinese student in Class 1. Knowing that you are looking for a host family, I would like to recommend mine to you.
There are multiple reasons for choosing our home. One of the highlights is the opportunity to try authentic Chinese cuisine. My mother is an expert at cooking typical Chinese cuisines, from whom you can learn about the ingredients and techniques used in Chinese cooking. In addition, our location provides easy access to various attractions. Whether you are interested in exploring ancient temples or bustling markets, there is something for you to explore.
Please let me know if you’re interested.
Best regards,
Li Hua
第二节 (满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】参考范文:
For the first few days, I hid them from my mother because I didn’t want her to make me return them. Of course, she’d find out sooner or later, but I decided I’d worry about that when the time came. For now I was enjoying my new boots. However, when the credit card bill came and my mother found out the case, she was very upset, and called me over to yell at me and let me know how disappointed she was that I’d abused her trust. She asked me to give back the credit card.
Once she took my card away, things changed a lot. There were fewer shopping trips, and all the things I wanted seemed out of reach. Gradually, I knew my mother was right; life is about more than material things. Once, having the latest clothes and shoes gave me a sense of importance, but now, I’m more worried about paying my bills on time and handling money for the future. As I grow older, image is still important to me, but having the latest of everything isn’t.
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