八年级质量监测
英 语
注意事项：
1.全卷分A卷和B卷，A卷满分100分，B卷满分50分；满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.在作答前，考生务必将自己的姓名、座位号和准考证号填在答题卡规定的位置。考试结束后，监考人员将试卷和答题卡一并收回。
3.选择题部分必须使用2B铅笔填涂；非选择题部分必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔书写，字体工整、笔迹清楚。
4.请按照题号在答题卡各题目对应的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效；在草稿纸、试卷上答题均无效。
5.保持答题卡清洁，不得折叠、污染、破损等。
A卷（共100分）
第一部分 听力（共25小题；计30分）
一、听句子，根据所听到的内容选择正确答语。每小题念两遍。（共5小题；每小题1分，计5分）
1. A. Thank you. B. Sounds great. C. Not bad.
2. A. Yes, it is. B. It’s interesting. C. You are right.
3. A. Good news. B. Good idea. C. Good job.
4. A. Yes, I do. B. Yes, we will. C. Yes, there will.
5. A. I’d love to. B. Good luck. C. That’s for sure.
二、听句子，选择与所听句子内容相符的图片。每小题念两遍。（共5小题；每小题1分，计5分）
A B C D E
6. ___________ 7. ___________ 8. ___________ 9. ___________ 10. ___________
三、听对话，根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。每段对话念两遍。（共10小题；每小题1分，计10分）
听第1段对话，回答第11、12小题。
11. When is the girl going to the party
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
12. What did the boy plan to buy for Helen
A. Some books. B. A chocolate cake. C. A cup.
听第2段对话，回答第13、14小题。
13. What does Bob look like
A. He is thin. B. He is handsome. C. He is short.
14. Who is the tallest boy in the boy’s class
A. Kevin. B. Jack. C. Bob.
听第3段对话，回答第15、16、17小题。
15. What is Tom doing
A. He is cooking food. B. He is writing an article. C. He is reading a magazine.
16. What will the future be like according to (根据) Tom
A. There will be more trees.
B. There will be fewer animals.
C. There will be fewer buildings.
17. How many ways of saving the environment does the girl talk about
A. One. B. Two. C. Three.
听第4段对话，回答第18、19、20小题。
18. What does Tara do after dinner
A. She plays ping-pong. B. She watches movies. C. She takes a walk.
19. What does the man think of the comedies
A. Funny. B. Meaningless. C. Boring.
20. What will the two speakers do tomorrow
A. Play the guitar.
B. See their friends.
C. Watch a movie together.
四、听短文，根据短文内容完成图表中所缺信息。短文念三遍。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
Tips for shorter sleepers
Short sleepers usually get 21 hours of sleep.
How to sleep better Why
Have a good bedtime habit You can 22 before sleep every night.
Do some exercise It is one of the best ways to improve your sleep and health. But remember to do it 23 .
Set your bedroom temperature About 20℃ seems to be 24 .
25 too close to bedtime The blue light can make you think it’s still daytime.
第二部分 基础知识运用（共20小题；计40分）
五、阅读下面短文，从方框内的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
26 , not many people could read or write, so people 27 stories told by others. Some stories were popular, and they changed every time someone told them. The stories passed from generation to generation. Finally, someone 28 the stories in books.
Many people love the books. 29 , in China today people still love old stories like The Monkey King.
Some people even say that old stories are 30 than the new ones written in books today. Do you agree
六、补全对话，根据对话内容，从方框中选出适当的选项补全对话。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
Betty: Lingling and I went to Lao She Teahouse last night.
Tony: How was it
Betty: 31 You know, I wanted to see the Beijing Opera.
Tony: Did you understand the opera
Betty: No, it was difficult to understand the words. 32
Tony: How long did you stay
Betty: 33 But in the end, we stayed for three hours.
Tony: 34
Betty: Well, it was interesting. I hope to understand more next time.
Tony: By the way, who is Lao She
Betty: Lao She is a great writer. 35
七、完形填空，阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。（共10小题；每小题2分，计20分）
When I was young, I was always sad. For me, almost 36 ended not as good as I wanted. I 37 everywhere all day. Seeing me like that, my father 38 to make me happy. “I saw you waste time all day. Let’s do something 39 tomorrow. ”
The next day, he gave me a cup of 40 and asked me to taste it. I found it 41 . My father said he just put one small spoonful of salt in the cup. And then, he took me to a lake and threw a big handful of salt into it. He got a spoon of water and let me 42 it again. He asked, “Is it still salty ” “Not at all,” I replied. My father said, “Now you may know the 43 for your unhappiness. You are just like a cup of water, not a lake. Be a lake, and you won’t feel sad anymore.”
I came to understand my father’s 44 . I felt sorry for myself 45 my heart is just as small as a cup of water.
36. A. something B. anyone C. everything
37. A. sat down B. hung out C. looked around
38. A. promised B. advised C. decided
39. A. meaningful B. dangerous C. available
40. A. honey B. juice C. water
41. A. sweet B. bitter (苦) C. salty
42. A. taste B. pour C. mix
43. A. result B. future C. reason
44.A. dreams B. words C. solutions
45. A. if B. because C. although
第三部分 阅读理解（共15小题；计30分）
八、阅读下列短文，根据短文内容选择最佳选项。（共15小题；每小题2分，计30分）
A
46. Where did fish and apple soup first come out
A. In Singapore. B. In China. C. In America.
47. How many kinds of ingredients do we need to make this kind of soup
A. 6. B. 7. C. 8.
48. What do you need to cook the soup for eight people
A. 1 whole fish. B. 4 apples. C. 3 red tomatoes.
49. What is the right order to add the ingredients when cooking the soup
① fish bone
② ginger slices and spring onions
③ the apples, the fish and the tomato
A. ①②③ B. ③②① C. ②①③
50. Which of the following questions is answered according to this reading
A. How to make fish and apple soup
B. Why is fish and apple soup so popular
C. When is the best time to enjoy fish and apple soup
B
We often see cars running on their own without a driver in science fiction movies. But in China, this is becoming real.
In 2015, a carmaker from Sweden, tested its self-driving cars in Beijing. Later, Chinese carmakers started making self-driving cars, too.
Right now, China is on its way to becoming the world’s largest market for self-driving cars. By 2040, China will have 12,000,000 robot taxis, followed by the US with around 7,000,000.
However, some people are worried about the safety of the cars. In Wuhan, self-driving cars have had some small accidents (事故). Once, one such car stopped in front of a bag and caused a traffic jam (交通拥堵). Another time, two cars stopped face to face, and did not know what to do next. These might seem funny but can really be dangerous. Also, it’s not clear who should be responsible (负有责任的) when something goes wrong — the owner, the carmaker, or both. Luckily, in December 2023, the government (政府) made a set of new rules to improve the safety of self-driving cars. More rules will come in the future.
51. What can we know about self-driving cars
A. They only appear in movies.
B. China made them before Sweden.
C. We can see self-driving cars in China now.
52. Which country will have the most self-driving cars by 2040
A. Sweden. B. China. C. The US.
53. What happened in Wuhan when a self-driving car saw a bag
A. The car hit the bag.
B. The car caused a traffic jam.
C. The car went around the bag.
54. What did the Chinese government do in December 2023 about self-driving cars
A. It introduced new safety rules.
B. It stopped self-driving cars in China.
C. It predicted the number of robot taxis for 2040.
55. What does the writer think of self-driving cars in China？
A. They’re successful. B. They’re dangerous. C. They have a good future.
C
Chinese culture has a history of more than 5,000 years, so the traditional Chinese clothing also has a long history.
★ Hanfu Hanfu is the traditional clothing of the Han people. It first appeared in China more than 5,000 years ago. Now more and more young people start to enjoy wearing it. Li Mei was a fan of hanfu. She said each suit had its own cultural background and learning about it gave her a better understanding of traditional culture. ★ Zhongshan suit Zhongshan suit is the traditional Chinese clothing named after Sun Zhongshan. It first appeared in the 1920s. At the time, Sun Zhongshan studied in Japan and designed (设计) a modern Chinese suit from Japanese school uniforms, Western suits and Chinese clothing.
★ Tangzhuang Tangzhuang is a type of Chinese jacket. The Tang Dynasty was famous in the world, so the overseas Chinese were called “Tang people”, and their clothes were called “Tangzhuang”. Tangzhuang is mostly made in red, dark blue, gold and black. It shows good luck and wishes. ★ Qipao Qipao is a traditional Chinese dress. It first appeared in China in the 1920s. Qipao is made of silk, and Chinese women like to wear it because it can show their beauty. Many well-known Chinese women love Qipao.
56. What does Li Mei say about wearing Hanfu
A. It helps understand traditional culture.
B. It is very comfortable to wear.
C. It is becoming more popular.
57. What influenced (影响) the design of the Zhongshan suit
A. Traditional Hanfu and Qipao styles.
B. Chinese clothing and Western suits.
C. Tang Dynasty clothing and silk materials.
58. Why did overseas Chinese clothing become known as Tangzhuang
A. Because overseas Chinese were called “Tang people”.
B. Because people in the Tang Dynasty invented this style.
C. Because it used Tang Dynasty colors.
59. What makes Qipao special for Chinese women
A. It is made of silk.
B. It first appeared in the 1920s.
C. It shows the beauty of Chinese women.
60. What is the purpose of this text
A. To remember famous people in history.
B. To find out the differences of traditional clothing.
C. To show the culture of traditional Chinese clothing.
B卷（共50分）
一、短文填空。从下面方框中选出10个单词，将其正确形式填入短文，使短文意思正确通顺（每词限用一次）。（共10小题；每小题1分，计10分）
The Spring Festival has many titles. It is 61 festival in China. It’s also the country’s most important 62 festival in China. And now it has a new title. It’s a UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH) (联合国教科文组织非物质文化遗产).
The Spring Festival 63 on the first day of the Chinese calendar. It’s the 64 of the New Year. For many, celebrations for the festival start weeks before Chinese New Year’s Day. And they don’t end 65 the Lantern festival. These activities mean praying for good luck and getting together with family.
Many old Spring Festival traditions still 66 today. For example, people hang up red lanterns and set off fireworks. These are to drive away evil spirits. They also paste red couplets on 67 doors. This is one of the things done for good luck. Paper cutting, dragon dances and Lantern Festival events are also important parts of the 68 .
The Spring Festival is now a public holiday in almost 20 countries. One in 69 people in the world celebrate it. China has 44 items on the UNESCO ICH List, more than any
70 country in the world.
二、补全短文。根据短文内容，从短文后的A～F选项中，选出5个适当的选项补全短文。（共5小题；每小题1分，计5分）
Why is snow white Why does a plane need a long runway to take off Why can some birds sing so beautifully 71 To find the answers, we can read the book series One Hundred Thousand Whys.
72 A group of writers worked on the series, and Ye Yonglie was one of them. Ye loved reading as a child and was very good at writing. He won many prizes for his work. At the age of 20, he started writing for the series. Although he was young, he worked very hard. For the first book, he answered about 300 “whys”. Ye tried to explain science in a way that was simple and fun. 73
Ye was also good at telling stories. Have you heard of Xiao Lingtong He is the main role in Ye’s book Xiao Lingtong’s Travels in the Future, which Ye finished in 1960. 74 In this book, he wrote about mobile phones and robots playing chess — ideas that were too amazing (令人惊奇) for his time.
75 He won the hearts of many readers with his books. Sadly, he passed away at the age of 80, and many people felt sad about his death.
A. Ye was very creative. B. Ye was rich and successful. C. The book series shows us facts of science. D. We have many questions about the world. E. When Ye was very old, he still kept on writing. F. Many kids chose the series as their first science books.
三、阅读表达。（共10小题；计20分）
A. 完成图表。根据短文内容，完成图表中所缺信息。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
The New Century Global Center in Chengdu opened in 2013. It is the largest single building in the world. The building covers about 1,760,000 square meters (m2). The 500m × 400m main building is about 100 meters high. It is a modern building. It looks big and beautiful.
The New Century Global Center gives visitors an excellent place for shopping and fun. People can watch movies in one of the best cinemas. The cinema has great sound and the newest screens. They can also go skating at the skating area or enjoy a cup of coffee, orange juice, or milk tea in one of the cafes or tea shops. For meals, visitors can try food from China, Italy, Japan, Korea, Thailand, and many other countries. They can also choose BBQ , seafood and so on.
Outside the main building, there are Central Square and Jincheng Square. After shopping, visitors can take a walk, talk with friends, or enjoy the sunshine on nice days.
The New Century Global Center is about 10 kilometers from Tianfu Square. You can drive south along Tianfu Road and reach it in about 25 minutes. You can also take subway Line 1 or Line 18, get off at Jincheng Plaza Station, and walk to the building.
B. 任务型阅读。根据短文内容，按要求回答问题。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
The bamboo train, or “lorry,” is a fun way to travel in Cambodia (柬埔寨). It is a small flat platform made of bamboo, put on top of two sets of wheels. The bamboo train can run along old railway tracksvery fast, sometimes reaching 40 kilometers an hour! It’s a simple but clever way to travel. At first, villagers used it to carry things like rice, vegetables, and even animals. Now, it’s also a way to have fun!
Riding the bamboo train is an exciting experience. You sit on the bamboo train, feeling the wind in your face as it travels through the countryside. You can see green fields, small houses, and farmers working on both sides of the train.
When two trains meet on the single track, one has to stop. The passengers quickly lift (举起) the train off the track to let the other pass. It’s a teamwork moment!
Today, the bamboo train is a tourist activity. Visitors have a chance to experience the country life of Cambodia in a special way. The bamboo train is a symbol of creativity (创意) and tradition.
81. How fast can the bamboo train travel
______________________________________________________________________
82. What could people see while riding the bamboo train
______________________________________________________________________
83. What do passengers do when two bamboo trains meet on the track
______________________________________________________________________
84. What do people use the bamboo train for today
______________________________________________________________________
85. What does the bamboo train show about Cambodia
______________________________________________________________________
四、书面表达（计15分）
寒假即将来临，假如你是李芳，你打算如何度过一个充实而有意义的假期呢？请以“Plans for Winter Vacation”为题，根据下图的提示，写一篇英语短文，谈谈你的寒假计划，并说出理由。
要求：
1．文章需要有标题，并注意格式；
2．文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称；
3．词数：80左右。八年级质量监测
英语答题卡八年级质量监测
英语参考答案及评分标准
A卷（共100分）
第一部分 听力（共25小题；计30分）
1～5：CBBBC 6～10：EDCAB 11～15：CABAC 16～20：BBCAC
21. less than 7 22. do some (relaxing) activities/do some activities that help you relax
23. early/not too late fortable (for sleeping) 25. Don’t use (your) phone
说明：1～20每小题1分见错不给分；21～25每小题2分，填对词1分，形式正确再加1分。
第二部分 基础知识运用（共20小题；计40分）
26～30：CDEBA 31～35：DAEBC 36～40：CBCAC 41～45：CACBB
说明：每小题2分，见错不给分。
第三部分 阅读理解（共15小题；计30分）
46～50：ACBCA 51～55：CBBAC 56～60：ABACC
说明：每小题2分，见错不给分。
B卷（共50分）
一、短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，计10分）
61. the oldest 62. traditional 63. falls 64. beginning 65. until
66. stand 67. their 68. celebration 69. five 70. other
说明：每小题l分，填对词给0.5分，形式正确再加0.5分。
二、补全短文（计5分）
71～75：DCFAE
说明：每小题l分，见错不给分。
三、阅读表达（计20分）
A. 完成图表（计10分）
76. facts/information 77. 200, 000 (2 ×105) 78. activities
79. some drinks/something to drink 80. the south of/southern/the southern part of
说明：每小题2分；每空意思正确给1分，形式正确再加1分。
B. 任务型阅读（计10分）
81. The bamboo train can travel very fast, sometimes reaching 40 kilometers an hour.
82. People could see green fields, small houses, and farmers working on both sides of the train.
83. The passengers lift the train off the track to let the other train pass.
84. Today, people ride the bamboo train for fun and to experience the countryside.
85. The bamboo train shows Cambodia’s clever ideas and traditions.
四、书面表达（计15分）
一、总则
1．本题总分为15分，按所给内容要点和行文评分。
2．评分时应该注意两个方面：内容要点完整；语意正确，行文流畅。
二、要点内容、行文认定及分值
（1）适当的开头，2分；
（2）学习、娱乐、锻炼及其它安排（其中主题句1分，举例或说明1分），共8分；
（3）适当的结尾，2分。
三、行文认定及分值（3分）
1．文章结构完整，句式多样，衔接自然。（3分）
2．文章结构较完整，句式较多样，衔接较自然。（2分）
3．文章结构不完整，句式单一，衔接不够自然。（1分）
4．行文影响达意。（0分）
四、One possible version：
Plans for Winter Vacation
The winter vacation is coming, and I have many exciting plans to make this vacation meaningful and enjoyable.
First of all, I will study for the next term. I plan to do some reading for an hour every day. I want to have fun. Maybe I’ll watch an English movie once a week. What’s more, I will exercise everyday. I am going to go for a run in the park every morning. I think exercise can help me stay healthy and energetic. At the same time, I’m going to visit my relatives and friends during the Spring Festival. It’s a happy time to stay with them at that time.
I am excited about my winter vacation plans and can’t wait to start.
听力材料
一、听句子，根据所听到的内容选择正确答语。每小题念两遍。听完每句话后，你都有5秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
（指令结束后，先停顿5秒，再开始朗读。男、女声之间隔1秒）
1. How’s it going
2. What do you think of the talent show
3. Let’s make a banana milk shake.
4. Will people have robots
5. I think it’s difficult to be a successful actor.
二、听句子，选择与所听句子内容相符的图片，在答题卡上只需填涂代表图片的字母。每小题念两遍。听前，你将有5秒钟的读图时间。听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
（指令结束后，先停顿5秒，再开始朗读。男、女声之间隔1秒）
6. Tim is going to be a computer programmer when he grows up.
7. If you go to the party, you’ll have a good time.
8. The theater has the most comfortable seats.
9. People will be able to fly to space station in 50 years.
10. I often go to Dongan Lake to watch shows on Friday.
三、听下面4段对话，根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。每段对话念两遍。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。
（指令结束后，先停顿5秒，再开始朗读）
听第1段对话，回答第11、12小题。
M: It’s Friday. What are you going to do on weekends
W: I’m going to do my homework on Saturday and I am going to Helen’s birthday party with Jim on Sunday.
M: I will go to Helen’s birthday party, too. Did you buy anything special for her
W: Yes, I bought her a chocolate cake. How about you
M: I plan to buy some books for her.
听第2段对话，回答第13、14小题。
W: Bob, you are taller than my brother Jack, you look handsome!
M: Thank you. But I remember Jack was taller than me last year.
W: Yes. Did you have a good way to grow taller
M: Yeah, I do exercise for one hour every day and I often drink milk and eat healthier food.
W: I see. Are you the tallest boy in your class
M: No, Kevin is taller than any other boys in my class.
听第3段对话，回答第15、16、17小题。
W: What are you doing, Tom
M: I’m reading an article in a magazine. It talks about the future in 100 years.
W: What will the future be like
M: There will be more people and more buildings on the earth.
W: That will leave less living space for animals.
M: You are right. And the animals will be in danger.
W: How terrible! We should try to save the environment. For example, people can use less water as possible as we can and grow more trees on earth.
M: I agree.
听第4段对话，回答第18、19、20小题。
M: Tara, what do you usually do after work
W: I do some sports, like playing ping-pong and tennis. And I take a walk after meals every day.
M: That’s a good habit. I like watching movies. It’s relaxing.
W: What kind of movie do you like
M: Comedies. They can always make me laugh.
W: I like them, too. Why don’t we watch a movie together tonight
M: Sorry, I’m not free today. I have to practice playing the guitar every Monday night. How about tomorrow
W: OK. See you then.
四、听短文，根据短文内容完成图表中所缺信息。短文念三遍。听前，你将有25秒钟的读题时间。
（指令结束后，先停顿25秒，再开始朗读。每遍间隔1秒，男声一遍女声两遍。）
If you usually get less than 7 hours of sleep, you are probably a “short sleeper”. “Short sleepers” have larger arms and legs than normal sleepers. Here are some tips to improve your sleep.
Have a good bedtime habit. It means that you should try to do some activities that help you relax before sleep. And then, do them every night. This will tell your body that it’s almost time to rest. You can do some activities like taking a warm shower or reading a book.
Do some exercise. Exercise is one of the best ways to improve your sleep and health. Although exercise is key to a good night sleep, doing too late in the day may make you have sleep problems.
Set your bedroom temperature. Bedroom temperature also makes a difference to your sleep quality. You can’t sleep well if it is too hot or too cold in your room. Most people think we can sleep comfortably when the bedroom temperature is about 20°C.
Don’t use your phone just before you go to bed. The blue light from your phone can make you think that it’s still daytime. So experts advise stopping using electronics at least an hour before going to bed.
