重庆市2024-2025学年八年级下学期入学考试英语试卷（含答案，无听力原文及音频）
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| 名称 | 重庆市2024-2025学年八年级下学期入学考试英语试卷（含答案，无听力原文及音频） |  | |
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| 资源类型 | 教案 | ||
| 版本资源 | 人教版 | ||
| 科目 | 英语 | ||
| 更新时间 | 2025-02-26 14:53:32 | ||
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2024—2025学年度下期八年级下入学质量监测
英语试题
(全卷共九个大题 满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟)
第Ⅰ卷(105分)
Ⅰ.听力测试。(共40分)
第一节(每小题1.5分，共9分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. You’re right. B. It was great! C. Don’t worry.
2. A. I like it. B. Never. C. For 2 hours.
3. A. Oh, I disagree. B. That’s right. C. Sure, I’d love to.
4. A. Sounds good. B. It’s kind of you. C. That’s all right.
5. A. My friend Lily. B. No, I’m not. C. In the school.
6. A. Good idea. B. OK I will. C. Have a nice day.
第二节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. /s rv/ B. /’s ri s/ C. /’s rv nt/
8. A. Peter. B. Mark. C. Sam.
9. A. See the robot show. B. Study at home. C. Have a piano lesson.
10. A. 8:00pm. B. 8:30pm. C. 9:00pm.
11.A. B. C.
第三节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料，回答第12-13小题。
12. Who is Mr. White
A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A singer.
13. What gift will they give to Mr. White
A. A thank-you letter. B. A photo book. C. A picture of Mr. White.
听第二段材料，回答第14至16小题。
14. What did the girl NOT want to do when she was little
A. Travel to the moon. B. Work in a zoo. C. Become a doctor.
15. How does the girl like the job as a doctor
A. Easy. B. Great. C. Difficult.
16. What’s the main topic of the conversation
A. Dream jobs. B. Weekend activities. C. Travel.
第四节(每小题1.5分，共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. When is the party
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday C. On Sunday.
18. What do Mason and Grace advise friends to bring to the party
A. Themselves and something nice for Molly. B. Delicious things to eat and drink. C. A small gift for Mason and Grace.
19. What should people do if they can’t find the house
A. Ask other people for help B. Call Mason and Grace for help. C. Look at the map on their phones.
20. Why do the speakers give the message
A. To ask their friends to have a trip with them.
B. To ask their friends to have dinner with them
C. To ask their friends to come to Molly’s birthday party.
第五节 听并填空。(每小题2分，共10分)
听两遍。依据你所听到的短文，在空白处填入适当的单词，每空一词。
Time with family
Activity Monkey Around: A new 21. ______ show.
Place The Sunshine Theatre: a new place in Jake’s 22. ______.
Time Jake and his parents watched the show at 23. ______o’clock in the afternoon.
Feelings After watching the show, Jake thought it was a wonderful 24. ______. 25. ______ time with family brought much joy and happiness to Jake.
Ⅱ.语法选择。(每小题1分，共10分)
从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
On my 35th birthday, I did something I always wanted to do. I got ___1___ the first skateboard (滑板). My friends thought I was crazy, but only I knew why.
Two years ago, I fell down from a 12-meter waterfall and broke my legs. I had to use a wheelchair first, then crutches (拐杖). ___2___, I could walk farther after training. Physical activities ___3___ really important to me. I danced a lot before, and I think skating is similar ___4___ it.
I tried to learn skating on my own. I didn’t know how to do it well. When I skated on the street, there were always people ___5___ me do that. I felt uneasy. I was afraid that people would laugh at me, so I didn’t practice often.
One day, my friend Monica and I met some very nice people from GRLSWIRL, ___6___ skateboarding club. So we joined the club. Everyone there gave me ___7___ when I had problems and felt happy when I did well.
Skating also helped with my PTSD (创伤后应激障碍). Falling is common in skating. Because of my accident, it was hard for me ___8___ falling. But as I learned from each fall and got up again, my PTSD got better. The more I skated, the ___9___ I felt in my body and mind. ___10___ I started skating at first, I never thought it would bring me into a new and exciting world.
1. A. me B. my C. myself
2. A. Luck B. Lucky C. Luckily
3. A. become B. became C. will become
4. A. to B. from C. in
5. A. watch B. watched C. watching
6. A. a B. the C. /
7. A. advice B. advise C. advice’s
8. A. accept B. to accept C. accepting
9. A. healthy B. more healthily C. healthier
10. A. While B. When C. After
Ⅲ.完形填空。(每小题1分，共15分)
根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Reading is an important part of my life. I always remember a famous saying, “____11____ are the ladder of human progress (进步).” I like reading because it not only enriches my mind but also lifts my spirit.
Take my favorite book, Wonder, as an example. It tells the story of August, a 10-year-old boy. August is a ____12____ boy in many ways: he likes riding a bike and playing video games. But August was born with facial deformities (天生面部畸形). ____13____ August turned 10, his mother taught him at home, but the family finally decided it was time for him to start school. August’s first year at school was terrible. Most people were afraid of him, so they stayed away from him.
But he never ____14____ on himself or lost hope. During that hard time, a girl named Summer reached ____15____ his hand and wanted to be his friend. At that time, August first felt kindness from friends.
Then an event at a school camp ____16____ everything. People found that he was so brave and it was hard for him to get along with others, leading ____17____ to understand him better.
Kindness is the main topic in Wonder. It helps me know that a ____18____, simple act of kindness may make a big difference (产生巨大影响) and that we have the ability to choose kindness. From this book, I also learn how to face ____19____ in people. Everyone is a special star, always ready to shine.
Books like this make me believe that reading can ____20____ change how people think about life. So, I hope you can find a book that brightens your day, and try to make reading a part of your life.
11. A. Movies B. Sports C. Travelling D. Books
12. A. special B. normal C. foreign D. kind
13. A. Until B. After C. If D. So
14. A. gave into B. gave away C. gave off D. gave up
15. A. as B. for C. to D. at
16. A. changed B. improved C. built D. expected
17. A. her B. him C. them D. us
18. A. careful B. small C. free D. right
19. A. differences B. problems C. difficulties D. mistakes
20. A. truly B. luckily C. quickly D. mainly
Ⅴ.阅读理解。(共35分)
阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
21. How long is the trip in the advertisement (广告)
A. 9 days. B. 14 days. C. 15 days. D. 29 days.
22. What is the advertisement about
A. A travel guide for Europe. B. A book about American history.
C. A new restaurant in Boston. D. A cruise trip in New England.
23. Which of the place is NOT in the trip
A. Boston. B. Portland. C. Gloucester. D. New York.
B
In a quiet kingdom, trouble was coming. Some thieves wanted to steal the royal jewels. These jewels were very important to the kingdom. The king, Captain Smith, and Captain Jones knew they had to do something quickly. But how could they keep the jewels safe without making too much noise They had a great idea—they dressed up as cleaning ladies!
With their masks on, they started to work. They knew the castle well, so they set traps around the treasure room. They put thin ropes on the floor. Near the door, they dug small holes and covered them with light boards. When the thieves finally came into the treasure room and reached for the jewels, they met the traps. Some fell into the holes, and some fell down because of the ropes.
Not long after, new trouble arrived. A group of pirates came to the castle. They shouted loudly and asked for all the treasures. The pirates were known for being rough and always wanting more. But the king and his friends, still dressed as cleaning ladies, were not afraid at all. They thought together and made a special plan.
They knew they had a special way to fight—their love for cleaning. They led the pirates into a room full of cleaning tools. As soon as the pirates were all inside, they turned on a simple but useful thing. Water pipes (水管) sprayed water from the corners, and soap dispensers (皂液器) made lots of bubbles. The pirates were very surprised. They slipped and fell on the soapy floor. They forgot about their swords (剑) and threats. Soon, they were caught, and their pirate attack failed.
— The Masked Cleaning Ladies: Save the Day and Meet the Pirates
24. Why did the masked cleaning ladies set up traps in “The Masked Cleaning Ladies Save The Day”
A. To play a joke on the queen. B. To protect the royal jewels from thieves.
C. To test their trap-making skills. D. To make the castle more interesting.
25. According to the passage, which is NOT the way to fight against the thieves and pirates
A. Using real weapons (武器) like swords to fight directly.
B. Dressing up as cleaning ladies to make a surprise.
C. Setting traps with ropes and holes around the treasure room.
D. Using water pipes and soap dispensers to make the pirates slip.
26. What common quality do the masked cleaning ladies show in both stories
A. Laziness. B. Kindness. C. Intelligence (智慧). D. Politeness.
27. What is the main idea of these two stories
A. Some simple ways to make a castle clean and tidy.
B. The importance of protecting treasures in a kingdom.
C. The adventures of the masked cleaning ladies when facing dangers.
D. What pirates’ life is like on their ships and during their adventures.
C
Do you ever feel you can’t think clearly after playing on the phones for too long If you do, welcome to the world of “brain rot (脑腐化)”!
The phrase (短语) first appeared in 1854, but now it refers (特指) to what happens when someone spends too much time online. The frequency (频率) of using the phrase keeps growing these years. In 2024, the Oxford even name it Word of the Year.
So what will happen if you have brain rot Well sometimes it seems like your brain is a blank for a while. For example, you start forgetting things that happened just now. You might find yourself walking into a room and forgetting why you’re there. Looking for a thing that is just in your hand is another symptom (症状).
The bad sides go beyond (超过) those funny things. Brain rot can cause the loss of critical (批判的) thinking. Your emotions may experience ups and downs more often.
But don’t be afraid! Solving the problem doesn’t need any medicine. Start by cutting down your screen time. Remember, living without apps like TikTok or Xiaohongshu for a few hours won’t be too hard. Try to take a break to enjoy the real world. You can join in physical activities, read real books (not the videos that can let you read one in 3 minutes), and talk to real persons face-to-face.
Just like a garden needs care to grow healthy plants, your brain needs good habits to stay strong. Take care of it, so that more beautiful flowers of creativity and happiness can bloom (盛开) inside!
28. How does the writer start the passage
A. By raising questions. B. By giving examples. C. By listing numbers. D. By making comparison.
29. What does the underlined word blank mean in the passage
a.[adj.] Usually used in go blank. It means something in your head disappeared for no reason. e. g. When I saw the beautiful girl, my mind just went blank. b.[v.] If you blank, you can’t remember what you had in mind before. e. g. I just blanked in the exam. c.[n.] A space without words or pictures on a piece of paper. e. g. Please fill in the blank after reading the passage. d. [n.] Used to say a situation when you forget something. e. g. I tried to think of his name but my mind was a blank.
A. a. B. b. C. c. D. d.
30. What can we learn from the passage
A. It’s very hard to solve the problem of brain rot.
B. Reading books in 3 minutes practices your brain.
C. Enjoying the real world is good for the brain.
D. Brain rot appeared in 2024 as a new phrase.
31. What’s the writer’s purpose (目的) of writing this passage
A. To tell people to never use the Internet again.
B. To advise people to take care of their brain.
C. To share some popular words of the year 2024.
D. To explain the reasons why brain rot happens.
D
The theme (主题) and logo for the 2025 Spring Festival Gala were introduced on November 29, 2024. This event, which marks the Year of the Snake in the Chinese zodiac, promises to be a joyful and fantastic celebration. The theme for this year’s gala is “Si Si Ru Yi, Sheng Sheng Bu Xi”, which carries deep cultural and symbolic meanings.
The Chinese lunar calendar divides time into 60-year-long cycles and represents (代表) each year with 10 “Tiangan” characters and 12 “Dizhi” characters. For the Year of the Snake, which fits the year 2025, the characters are “Yi Si”.
In traditional Chinese timekeeping system, a day is divided (分割) into 12 parts, and each part is two hours long. The first part “Zi” is from 23:00 to 1:00, and “Si” Chinese represents the sixth part of the day, when the sun is high in the sky, symbolizing the rise of Yang energy and the hiding of Yin energy. It’s a time when everything seems to wake up and come to life.
By using “Si Si Ru Yi” as the theme, the 2025 Spring Festival Gala hopes to bring good wishes to every family and the nation. “Sheng Sheng Bu Xi” means that life goes on endlessly, representing the endless energy and prosperity (繁荣) of the China.
The main logo is creative and meaningful. Its design (设计) uses the Oracle Bone Script character “Si” as its creative part. In details, there are two “Si” characters put together in a mirror image, making it look like “Yi” (乙) and “Si”(巳). ▲ , like a twofold wish for luck. It’s a nice way to bring good luck and send happy wishes to everyone in the Snake Year.
32. Which of the following is probably during the time of Si
A. B. C. D.
33. Which sentence can be put in the ▲
A. This means the end of hardship and start of luck
B. This shows that the design is very unusual
C. This shows the mix of traditional and today’s art
D. This means good things will happen twice
34. In which part of a newspaper can you probably read this passage
A. Culture. B. Sports. C. Science. D. History.
35. What is the best title for this passage
A. The 2025 Spring Festival Gala: A Musical Celebration
B. The Theme and Logo of the 2025 Spring Festival Gala
C. The Chinese Lunar Calendar and the Year of the Snake
D. Traditional Chinese Timekeeping and Its Importance
E
①Chinese scientists are trying ways to build houses on the moon using bricks (砖) made from fake lunar soil (土). These bricks were sent to China’s space station on the Tianzhou-8 cargo spaceship. The team working on this project plans to shape the bricks using mortise and tenon joints (榫卯结构), a method from ancient buildings, to build an egg-shaped house on the moon, according to a CCTV report.
②The moon has always been an important goal for space exploration (探索). Many countries have made long-term plans for human activities on the moon. China hopes to send astronauts there by 2030 and build a research station by 2035. A lab in Wuhan, China, has created a sandbox to show how a future moon base might be built.
③Ding Lieyun, the leader of the team making the lunar soil bricks, said building on the moon is very hard. The moon has difficult environments, including no water, low gravity (重力), big temperature changes, and frequent small earthquakes (地震). These make the building process very difficult.
④After many tests, the team chose a two-layer dome design called the “lunar pot”, This design is light, uses fewer materials, and works well for keeping warm and staying strong. Inside, the house will have two levels: one for working and one for resting.
⑤The bricks will be made using a method from ancient Chinese building styles. Robots will put the bricks together, and 3D printing will make the structure stronger. These ideas are based on data from the U.S. Apollo program and China’s Chang’e-5 moon mission.
⑥The lunar bricks are now being tested in space to see if they can go through the difficult environment. The first brick should return to Earth by 2025, bringing us closer to building homes on the moon.
36. Which of the followings is the right shape of the house on the moon
A. B. C. D.
37. What does the underlined word “These” refer to in Paragraph 3
A. The lunar soil bricks. B. Difficult environments.
C. Big temperature changes D. Small earthquakes.
38. What can we infer from the passage
A. Building houses on the moon is a difficult task for Chinese scientists.
B. The lunar bricks are already used to build a complete house on the moon.
C. China is making some improvements in building houses on the moon.
D. Many countries show great interest in building houses on the Mars.
39. Which of the following best describes the structure of the passage
A. B.
C. D.
Ⅴ.口语运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
阅读下面对话，从7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A: Hey! Do you know DeepSeek can help us a lot in English learning
B: ___40___ It’s quite useful.
A: What do you usually use it for in English
B: ___41___ It gives interesting ways to remember them.
A: Sounds great. I used it to help with my English writing.
B: Oh How did it help with your writing
A: ___42___ And it taught me better expressions (表达)
B: That’s amazing. I didn’t know it could do that. Can it help with English speaking
A: ___43___ With the help of DeepSeek, you will have better pronunciation (发音).
B: Wow, I must try that. I’m always nervous when speaking English.
A: Yeah, it can really build up your confidence (信心). ___44___
B: Thanks for telling me. I can’t wait to use it more!
A. It pointed out my grammar mistakes clearly.
B. Yes, of course.
C. I believe it will be a great help to you.
D. I usually use it to learn new English words.
E. I don’t think it’s helpful.
F. No, I don’t.
G. Certainly. It has a lot of useful functions (功能) for speaking practice.
第Ⅱ卷(45分)
Ⅵ.任务型阅读。(共15分)
第一节：(1-3小题2分，4小题3分，共9分)
阅读下文并回答问题。
A 10-year-old boy and a 70-year-old man sat down, asking and answering each other questions about age. This is their talk (Q means question and A means answer)
The man Q: What is bad about being young
The boy A: Well, going to school. You get lots of homework. But it’s also fun to play with friends there. Q: What is bad about being old
The man A: Not being able to do things you could do when you were young. Your body gets stiff (僵硬的). It hurts sometimes. And you might get sick more often. Q: In your imagination (想象), what is great about being old
The boy A:I can buy things I want. Oh, I can also get married (结婚), haha. Q: From your experience, what is great about being young
The man A: You are passionate (热情) about everything in life. It helps you enjoy each day better. And you are more creative because you are more open to new ideas. Q: Do you want to fall in love (爱上) with anyone
The boy A:I’m not sure what falling in love is. I love my mom. She really cares about me. Q: Did you love anyone
The man A: Yes, my wife. Unluckily, she died last year. Oh, don’t cry little boy. That’s life. But you have more time to spend with your family. That’s another great thing about being young.
Then they were asked to give each other 2 pieces of advice
The boy ①Smile more You look too serious so kids might not want to be friends with you. Smile can also bring you good luck and make you face each day more bravely. ② .
The man ①Read more books. Reading helps you learn new things and let you see a bigger world. It’s also a way to relax yourself. ②Love other people. If you love others, they will love you back.
45. Does the boy think it’s fun to play with friends at school
______________________________________
46. Why does the boy love his mom
______________________________________
47. According to their talk, what are the great things about being young
______________________________________
48. If you had a choice, would you prefer (宁愿) to stay young or keep growing older Why
____________________________________________________________________________________________
49. 读后表达。
If you are the boy, give one piece of advice to the man and tell the reason(s). Write at least 40-60 words.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅶ.词汇运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
根据句子意思，用括号内所给单词的话当形式填空。注意其形式的变化。
50. Helping others is helping ________, so we should try our best to help those in need. (we)
51. For the children’s safety, you should put those ________ in a safe place. (knife)
52. Speak louder. Then I can hear you ________. (clear)
53. Lisa ________ (hurt) her leg when she played football.
54. We should ________ /re z/ some money to help the poor children.
VIII. 完成句子。(共10分)
根据所给提示，完成句子。每空一词，含缩略词。
55. We can learn something meaningful from the story of Nezha 2. (变否定句)
We ________ learn ________ meaningful from the story of Nezha 2.
56. 3316.16 million people visited Chongqing during the 2025 Spring Festival holiday.(对划线部分提问)
________ ________ people visited Chongqing during the 2025 Spring Festival holiday
57. They were so tired that they can’t finish the work.（同义句）
They were ________ tired ________ finish the work.
58. 伴随着清晨的第一缕阳光，人们在新一天的希望中醒来。(完成译句)
With the first light of morning sun, people ________ ________ in the hope of a new day.
59. the, matter, is, what, with, you( )(连词成句)
________________________________
IX. 书面表达。 (共15分)
60. “巳蛇蜿蜒，福泽新岁”，在这灵蛇开启新岁、志在描绘新征程的2025蛇年，新的希望与机遇已然降临。回首过往学年，我们历经成长蜕变；展望充满生机的蛇年，心中满是憧憬与目标。现要求你在新学期第一节英语课上，用英语简要总结上学期，并重点分享新学期计划。请根据提示，创作一篇演讲稿。
要求：1.80—120词，文章开头已给出，不计入总词数内；
2.文章中不得出现班级、姓名等真实信息。
参考信息：
How time flies! The year 2025 has tiptoed in. Let’s go forward to meet it! Standing here, I want to share with you my own personal improvement in 2024 and my plans for the future. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024—2025学年度下期八年级下入学质量监测
英语试题
(全卷共九个大题 满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟)
第Ⅰ卷(105分)
Ⅰ.听力测试。(共40分)
第一节(每小题1.5分，共9分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. You’re right. B. It was great! C. Don’t worry.
2. A. I like it. B. Never. C. For 2 hours.
3. A. Oh, I disagree. B. That’s right. C. Sure, I’d love to.
4. A. Sounds good. B. It’s kind of you. C. That’s all right.
5. A. My friend Lily. B. No, I’m not. C. In the school.
6. A. Good idea. B. OK I will. C. Have a nice day.
第二节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. /s rv/ B. /’s ri s/ C. /’s rv nt/
8. A. Peter. B. Mark. C. Sam.
9. A. See the robot show. B. Study at home. C. Have a piano lesson.
10. A. 8:00pm. B. 8:30pm. C. 9:00pm.
11.A. B. C.
第三节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料，回答第12-13小题。
12. Who is Mr. White
A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A singer.
13. What gift will they give to Mr. White
A A thank-you letter. B. A photo book. C. A picture of Mr. White.
听第二段材料，回答第14至16小题。
14. What did the girl NOT want to do when she was little
A. Travel to the moon. B. Work in a zoo. C. Become a doctor.
15. How does the girl like the job as a doctor
A. Easy. B. Great. C. Difficult.
16. What’s the main topic of the conversation
A. Dream jobs. B. Weekend activities. C. Travel.
第四节(每小题1.5分，共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. When is the party
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday C. On Sunday.
18. What do Mason and Grace advise friends to bring to the party
A. Themselves and something nice for Molly. B. Delicious things to eat and drink. C. A small gift for Mason and Grace.
19. What should people do if they can’t find the house
A. Ask other people for help B. Call Mason and Grace for help. C. Look at the map on their phones.
20. Why do the speakers give the message
A. To ask their friends to have a trip with them.
B. To ask their friends to have dinner with them
C. To ask their friends to come to Molly’s birthday party.
第五节 听并填空。(每小题2分，共10分)
听两遍。依据你所听到的短文，在空白处填入适当的单词，每空一词。
Time with family
Activity Monkey Around: A new 21. ______ show.
Place The Sunshine Theatre: a new place in Jake’s 22. ______.
Time Jake and his parents watched the show at 23. ______o’clock in the afternoon.
Feelings After watching the show, Jake thought it was a wonderful 24. ______. 25. ______ time with family brought much joy and happiness to Jake.
Ⅱ.语法选择。(每小题1分，共10分)
从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
【1~10题答案】
【答案】1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B
Ⅲ.完形填空。(每小题1分，共15分)
根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
【11~20题答案】
【答案】11. D 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. A
Ⅴ.阅读理解。(共35分)
阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. D 23. D
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24. B 25. A 26. C 27. C
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. A 29. D 30. C 31. B
D
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. B 33. D 34. A 35. B
E
【36~39题答案】
【答案】36. D 37. B 38. C 39. D
Ⅴ.口语运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
【40~44题答案】
【答案】40. B 41. D 42. A 43. G 44. C
第Ⅱ卷(45分)
Ⅵ.任务型阅读。(共15分)
第一节：(1-3小题2分，4小题3分，共9分)
【45~49题答案】
【答案】45. Yes.
46. Because she really cares about him.
47. Being passionate about everything in life, enjoying each day better, and being more creative.
48. I prefer to stay young. Because if I can stay young, I will be more creative and have more opportunities to learn and try.
49. 例：
I advise you to stay active and try new things. Even though your body might feel stiff, moving and exploring can help you feel better. Also, trying new things can help you learn more and enjoy life more. Remember, life is about enjoying every moment, no matter your age.
Ⅶ.词汇运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
根据句子意思，用括号内所给单词的话当形式填空。注意其形式的变化。
【50题答案】
【答案】ourselves
【51题答案】
【答案】knives
【52题答案】
【答案】clearly
【53题答案】
【答案】hurt
【54题答案】
【答案】raise
VIII. 完成句子。(共10分)
根据所给提示，完成句子。每空一词，含缩略词。
【55题答案】
【答案】 ①. can’t ②. anything
【56题答案】
【答案】 ①. How ②. many
【57题答案】
【答案】 ①. too ②. to
【58题答案】
【答案】 ① wake ②. up
【59题答案】
【答案】What is the matter with you
IX. 书面表达。 (共15分)
【60题答案】
【答案】例文：
How time flies! The year 2025 has tiptoed in. Let’s go forward to meet it! Standing here, I want to share with you my own personal improvement in 2024 and my plans for the future.
Last term, I made progress in many areas. My English improved a lot, especially in reading and writing. I’m healthier than before because I exercised a lot. What’s more, I have got two new hobbies: swimming and hiking.
This year, I have set some new goals to make myself better. First, I will practice speaking English every day to become more confident. Second, I plan to read more books to expand my knowledge.
I believe I can achieve my goals. Let’s make 2025 a year of growth and success! Thank you!
英语试题
(全卷共九个大题 满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟)
第Ⅰ卷(105分)
Ⅰ.听力测试。(共40分)
第一节(每小题1.5分，共9分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. You’re right. B. It was great! C. Don’t worry.
2. A. I like it. B. Never. C. For 2 hours.
3. A. Oh, I disagree. B. That’s right. C. Sure, I’d love to.
4. A. Sounds good. B. It’s kind of you. C. That’s all right.
5. A. My friend Lily. B. No, I’m not. C. In the school.
6. A. Good idea. B. OK I will. C. Have a nice day.
第二节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. /s rv/ B. /’s ri s/ C. /’s rv nt/
8. A. Peter. B. Mark. C. Sam.
9. A. See the robot show. B. Study at home. C. Have a piano lesson.
10. A. 8:00pm. B. 8:30pm. C. 9:00pm.
11.A. B. C.
第三节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料，回答第12-13小题。
12. Who is Mr. White
A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A singer.
13. What gift will they give to Mr. White
A. A thank-you letter. B. A photo book. C. A picture of Mr. White.
听第二段材料，回答第14至16小题。
14. What did the girl NOT want to do when she was little
A. Travel to the moon. B. Work in a zoo. C. Become a doctor.
15. How does the girl like the job as a doctor
A. Easy. B. Great. C. Difficult.
16. What’s the main topic of the conversation
A. Dream jobs. B. Weekend activities. C. Travel.
第四节(每小题1.5分，共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. When is the party
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday C. On Sunday.
18. What do Mason and Grace advise friends to bring to the party
A. Themselves and something nice for Molly. B. Delicious things to eat and drink. C. A small gift for Mason and Grace.
19. What should people do if they can’t find the house
A. Ask other people for help B. Call Mason and Grace for help. C. Look at the map on their phones.
20. Why do the speakers give the message
A. To ask their friends to have a trip with them.
B. To ask their friends to have dinner with them
C. To ask their friends to come to Molly’s birthday party.
第五节 听并填空。(每小题2分，共10分)
听两遍。依据你所听到的短文，在空白处填入适当的单词，每空一词。
Time with family
Activity Monkey Around: A new 21. ______ show.
Place The Sunshine Theatre: a new place in Jake’s 22. ______.
Time Jake and his parents watched the show at 23. ______o’clock in the afternoon.
Feelings After watching the show, Jake thought it was a wonderful 24. ______. 25. ______ time with family brought much joy and happiness to Jake.
Ⅱ.语法选择。(每小题1分，共10分)
从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
On my 35th birthday, I did something I always wanted to do. I got ___1___ the first skateboard (滑板). My friends thought I was crazy, but only I knew why.
Two years ago, I fell down from a 12-meter waterfall and broke my legs. I had to use a wheelchair first, then crutches (拐杖). ___2___, I could walk farther after training. Physical activities ___3___ really important to me. I danced a lot before, and I think skating is similar ___4___ it.
I tried to learn skating on my own. I didn’t know how to do it well. When I skated on the street, there were always people ___5___ me do that. I felt uneasy. I was afraid that people would laugh at me, so I didn’t practice often.
One day, my friend Monica and I met some very nice people from GRLSWIRL, ___6___ skateboarding club. So we joined the club. Everyone there gave me ___7___ when I had problems and felt happy when I did well.
Skating also helped with my PTSD (创伤后应激障碍). Falling is common in skating. Because of my accident, it was hard for me ___8___ falling. But as I learned from each fall and got up again, my PTSD got better. The more I skated, the ___9___ I felt in my body and mind. ___10___ I started skating at first, I never thought it would bring me into a new and exciting world.
1. A. me B. my C. myself
2. A. Luck B. Lucky C. Luckily
3. A. become B. became C. will become
4. A. to B. from C. in
5. A. watch B. watched C. watching
6. A. a B. the C. /
7. A. advice B. advise C. advice’s
8. A. accept B. to accept C. accepting
9. A. healthy B. more healthily C. healthier
10. A. While B. When C. After
Ⅲ.完形填空。(每小题1分，共15分)
根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Reading is an important part of my life. I always remember a famous saying, “____11____ are the ladder of human progress (进步).” I like reading because it not only enriches my mind but also lifts my spirit.
Take my favorite book, Wonder, as an example. It tells the story of August, a 10-year-old boy. August is a ____12____ boy in many ways: he likes riding a bike and playing video games. But August was born with facial deformities (天生面部畸形). ____13____ August turned 10, his mother taught him at home, but the family finally decided it was time for him to start school. August’s first year at school was terrible. Most people were afraid of him, so they stayed away from him.
But he never ____14____ on himself or lost hope. During that hard time, a girl named Summer reached ____15____ his hand and wanted to be his friend. At that time, August first felt kindness from friends.
Then an event at a school camp ____16____ everything. People found that he was so brave and it was hard for him to get along with others, leading ____17____ to understand him better.
Kindness is the main topic in Wonder. It helps me know that a ____18____, simple act of kindness may make a big difference (产生巨大影响) and that we have the ability to choose kindness. From this book, I also learn how to face ____19____ in people. Everyone is a special star, always ready to shine.
Books like this make me believe that reading can ____20____ change how people think about life. So, I hope you can find a book that brightens your day, and try to make reading a part of your life.
11. A. Movies B. Sports C. Travelling D. Books
12. A. special B. normal C. foreign D. kind
13. A. Until B. After C. If D. So
14. A. gave into B. gave away C. gave off D. gave up
15. A. as B. for C. to D. at
16. A. changed B. improved C. built D. expected
17. A. her B. him C. them D. us
18. A. careful B. small C. free D. right
19. A. differences B. problems C. difficulties D. mistakes
20. A. truly B. luckily C. quickly D. mainly
Ⅴ.阅读理解。(共35分)
阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
21. How long is the trip in the advertisement (广告)
A. 9 days. B. 14 days. C. 15 days. D. 29 days.
22. What is the advertisement about
A. A travel guide for Europe. B. A book about American history.
C. A new restaurant in Boston. D. A cruise trip in New England.
23. Which of the place is NOT in the trip
A. Boston. B. Portland. C. Gloucester. D. New York.
B
In a quiet kingdom, trouble was coming. Some thieves wanted to steal the royal jewels. These jewels were very important to the kingdom. The king, Captain Smith, and Captain Jones knew they had to do something quickly. But how could they keep the jewels safe without making too much noise They had a great idea—they dressed up as cleaning ladies!
With their masks on, they started to work. They knew the castle well, so they set traps around the treasure room. They put thin ropes on the floor. Near the door, they dug small holes and covered them with light boards. When the thieves finally came into the treasure room and reached for the jewels, they met the traps. Some fell into the holes, and some fell down because of the ropes.
Not long after, new trouble arrived. A group of pirates came to the castle. They shouted loudly and asked for all the treasures. The pirates were known for being rough and always wanting more. But the king and his friends, still dressed as cleaning ladies, were not afraid at all. They thought together and made a special plan.
They knew they had a special way to fight—their love for cleaning. They led the pirates into a room full of cleaning tools. As soon as the pirates were all inside, they turned on a simple but useful thing. Water pipes (水管) sprayed water from the corners, and soap dispensers (皂液器) made lots of bubbles. The pirates were very surprised. They slipped and fell on the soapy floor. They forgot about their swords (剑) and threats. Soon, they were caught, and their pirate attack failed.
— The Masked Cleaning Ladies: Save the Day and Meet the Pirates
24. Why did the masked cleaning ladies set up traps in “The Masked Cleaning Ladies Save The Day”
A. To play a joke on the queen. B. To protect the royal jewels from thieves.
C. To test their trap-making skills. D. To make the castle more interesting.
25. According to the passage, which is NOT the way to fight against the thieves and pirates
A. Using real weapons (武器) like swords to fight directly.
B. Dressing up as cleaning ladies to make a surprise.
C. Setting traps with ropes and holes around the treasure room.
D. Using water pipes and soap dispensers to make the pirates slip.
26. What common quality do the masked cleaning ladies show in both stories
A. Laziness. B. Kindness. C. Intelligence (智慧). D. Politeness.
27. What is the main idea of these two stories
A. Some simple ways to make a castle clean and tidy.
B. The importance of protecting treasures in a kingdom.
C. The adventures of the masked cleaning ladies when facing dangers.
D. What pirates’ life is like on their ships and during their adventures.
C
Do you ever feel you can’t think clearly after playing on the phones for too long If you do, welcome to the world of “brain rot (脑腐化)”!
The phrase (短语) first appeared in 1854, but now it refers (特指) to what happens when someone spends too much time online. The frequency (频率) of using the phrase keeps growing these years. In 2024, the Oxford even name it Word of the Year.
So what will happen if you have brain rot Well sometimes it seems like your brain is a blank for a while. For example, you start forgetting things that happened just now. You might find yourself walking into a room and forgetting why you’re there. Looking for a thing that is just in your hand is another symptom (症状).
The bad sides go beyond (超过) those funny things. Brain rot can cause the loss of critical (批判的) thinking. Your emotions may experience ups and downs more often.
But don’t be afraid! Solving the problem doesn’t need any medicine. Start by cutting down your screen time. Remember, living without apps like TikTok or Xiaohongshu for a few hours won’t be too hard. Try to take a break to enjoy the real world. You can join in physical activities, read real books (not the videos that can let you read one in 3 minutes), and talk to real persons face-to-face.
Just like a garden needs care to grow healthy plants, your brain needs good habits to stay strong. Take care of it, so that more beautiful flowers of creativity and happiness can bloom (盛开) inside!
28. How does the writer start the passage
A. By raising questions. B. By giving examples. C. By listing numbers. D. By making comparison.
29. What does the underlined word blank mean in the passage
a.[adj.] Usually used in go blank. It means something in your head disappeared for no reason. e. g. When I saw the beautiful girl, my mind just went blank. b.[v.] If you blank, you can’t remember what you had in mind before. e. g. I just blanked in the exam. c.[n.] A space without words or pictures on a piece of paper. e. g. Please fill in the blank after reading the passage. d. [n.] Used to say a situation when you forget something. e. g. I tried to think of his name but my mind was a blank.
A. a. B. b. C. c. D. d.
30. What can we learn from the passage
A. It’s very hard to solve the problem of brain rot.
B. Reading books in 3 minutes practices your brain.
C. Enjoying the real world is good for the brain.
D. Brain rot appeared in 2024 as a new phrase.
31. What’s the writer’s purpose (目的) of writing this passage
A. To tell people to never use the Internet again.
B. To advise people to take care of their brain.
C. To share some popular words of the year 2024.
D. To explain the reasons why brain rot happens.
D
The theme (主题) and logo for the 2025 Spring Festival Gala were introduced on November 29, 2024. This event, which marks the Year of the Snake in the Chinese zodiac, promises to be a joyful and fantastic celebration. The theme for this year’s gala is “Si Si Ru Yi, Sheng Sheng Bu Xi”, which carries deep cultural and symbolic meanings.
The Chinese lunar calendar divides time into 60-year-long cycles and represents (代表) each year with 10 “Tiangan” characters and 12 “Dizhi” characters. For the Year of the Snake, which fits the year 2025, the characters are “Yi Si”.
In traditional Chinese timekeeping system, a day is divided (分割) into 12 parts, and each part is two hours long. The first part “Zi” is from 23:00 to 1:00, and “Si” Chinese represents the sixth part of the day, when the sun is high in the sky, symbolizing the rise of Yang energy and the hiding of Yin energy. It’s a time when everything seems to wake up and come to life.
By using “Si Si Ru Yi” as the theme, the 2025 Spring Festival Gala hopes to bring good wishes to every family and the nation. “Sheng Sheng Bu Xi” means that life goes on endlessly, representing the endless energy and prosperity (繁荣) of the China.
The main logo is creative and meaningful. Its design (设计) uses the Oracle Bone Script character “Si” as its creative part. In details, there are two “Si” characters put together in a mirror image, making it look like “Yi” (乙) and “Si”(巳). ▲ , like a twofold wish for luck. It’s a nice way to bring good luck and send happy wishes to everyone in the Snake Year.
32. Which of the following is probably during the time of Si
A. B. C. D.
33. Which sentence can be put in the ▲
A. This means the end of hardship and start of luck
B. This shows that the design is very unusual
C. This shows the mix of traditional and today’s art
D. This means good things will happen twice
34. In which part of a newspaper can you probably read this passage
A. Culture. B. Sports. C. Science. D. History.
35. What is the best title for this passage
A. The 2025 Spring Festival Gala: A Musical Celebration
B. The Theme and Logo of the 2025 Spring Festival Gala
C. The Chinese Lunar Calendar and the Year of the Snake
D. Traditional Chinese Timekeeping and Its Importance
E
①Chinese scientists are trying ways to build houses on the moon using bricks (砖) made from fake lunar soil (土). These bricks were sent to China’s space station on the Tianzhou-8 cargo spaceship. The team working on this project plans to shape the bricks using mortise and tenon joints (榫卯结构), a method from ancient buildings, to build an egg-shaped house on the moon, according to a CCTV report.
②The moon has always been an important goal for space exploration (探索). Many countries have made long-term plans for human activities on the moon. China hopes to send astronauts there by 2030 and build a research station by 2035. A lab in Wuhan, China, has created a sandbox to show how a future moon base might be built.
③Ding Lieyun, the leader of the team making the lunar soil bricks, said building on the moon is very hard. The moon has difficult environments, including no water, low gravity (重力), big temperature changes, and frequent small earthquakes (地震). These make the building process very difficult.
④After many tests, the team chose a two-layer dome design called the “lunar pot”, This design is light, uses fewer materials, and works well for keeping warm and staying strong. Inside, the house will have two levels: one for working and one for resting.
⑤The bricks will be made using a method from ancient Chinese building styles. Robots will put the bricks together, and 3D printing will make the structure stronger. These ideas are based on data from the U.S. Apollo program and China’s Chang’e-5 moon mission.
⑥The lunar bricks are now being tested in space to see if they can go through the difficult environment. The first brick should return to Earth by 2025, bringing us closer to building homes on the moon.
36. Which of the followings is the right shape of the house on the moon
A. B. C. D.
37. What does the underlined word “These” refer to in Paragraph 3
A. The lunar soil bricks. B. Difficult environments.
C. Big temperature changes D. Small earthquakes.
38. What can we infer from the passage
A. Building houses on the moon is a difficult task for Chinese scientists.
B. The lunar bricks are already used to build a complete house on the moon.
C. China is making some improvements in building houses on the moon.
D. Many countries show great interest in building houses on the Mars.
39. Which of the following best describes the structure of the passage
A. B.
C. D.
Ⅴ.口语运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
阅读下面对话，从7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A: Hey! Do you know DeepSeek can help us a lot in English learning
B: ___40___ It’s quite useful.
A: What do you usually use it for in English
B: ___41___ It gives interesting ways to remember them.
A: Sounds great. I used it to help with my English writing.
B: Oh How did it help with your writing
A: ___42___ And it taught me better expressions (表达)
B: That’s amazing. I didn’t know it could do that. Can it help with English speaking
A: ___43___ With the help of DeepSeek, you will have better pronunciation (发音).
B: Wow, I must try that. I’m always nervous when speaking English.
A: Yeah, it can really build up your confidence (信心). ___44___
B: Thanks for telling me. I can’t wait to use it more!
A. It pointed out my grammar mistakes clearly.
B. Yes, of course.
C. I believe it will be a great help to you.
D. I usually use it to learn new English words.
E. I don’t think it’s helpful.
F. No, I don’t.
G. Certainly. It has a lot of useful functions (功能) for speaking practice.
第Ⅱ卷(45分)
Ⅵ.任务型阅读。(共15分)
第一节：(1-3小题2分，4小题3分，共9分)
阅读下文并回答问题。
A 10-year-old boy and a 70-year-old man sat down, asking and answering each other questions about age. This is their talk (Q means question and A means answer)
The man Q: What is bad about being young
The boy A: Well, going to school. You get lots of homework. But it’s also fun to play with friends there. Q: What is bad about being old
The man A: Not being able to do things you could do when you were young. Your body gets stiff (僵硬的). It hurts sometimes. And you might get sick more often. Q: In your imagination (想象), what is great about being old
The boy A:I can buy things I want. Oh, I can also get married (结婚), haha. Q: From your experience, what is great about being young
The man A: You are passionate (热情) about everything in life. It helps you enjoy each day better. And you are more creative because you are more open to new ideas. Q: Do you want to fall in love (爱上) with anyone
The boy A:I’m not sure what falling in love is. I love my mom. She really cares about me. Q: Did you love anyone
The man A: Yes, my wife. Unluckily, she died last year. Oh, don’t cry little boy. That’s life. But you have more time to spend with your family. That’s another great thing about being young.
Then they were asked to give each other 2 pieces of advice
The boy ①Smile more You look too serious so kids might not want to be friends with you. Smile can also bring you good luck and make you face each day more bravely. ② .
The man ①Read more books. Reading helps you learn new things and let you see a bigger world. It’s also a way to relax yourself. ②Love other people. If you love others, they will love you back.
45. Does the boy think it’s fun to play with friends at school
______________________________________
46. Why does the boy love his mom
______________________________________
47. According to their talk, what are the great things about being young
______________________________________
48. If you had a choice, would you prefer (宁愿) to stay young or keep growing older Why
____________________________________________________________________________________________
49. 读后表达。
If you are the boy, give one piece of advice to the man and tell the reason(s). Write at least 40-60 words.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅶ.词汇运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
根据句子意思，用括号内所给单词的话当形式填空。注意其形式的变化。
50. Helping others is helping ________, so we should try our best to help those in need. (we)
51. For the children’s safety, you should put those ________ in a safe place. (knife)
52. Speak louder. Then I can hear you ________. (clear)
53. Lisa ________ (hurt) her leg when she played football.
54. We should ________ /re z/ some money to help the poor children.
VIII. 完成句子。(共10分)
根据所给提示，完成句子。每空一词，含缩略词。
55. We can learn something meaningful from the story of Nezha 2. (变否定句)
We ________ learn ________ meaningful from the story of Nezha 2.
56. 3316.16 million people visited Chongqing during the 2025 Spring Festival holiday.(对划线部分提问)
________ ________ people visited Chongqing during the 2025 Spring Festival holiday
57. They were so tired that they can’t finish the work.（同义句）
They were ________ tired ________ finish the work.
58. 伴随着清晨的第一缕阳光，人们在新一天的希望中醒来。(完成译句)
With the first light of morning sun, people ________ ________ in the hope of a new day.
59. the, matter, is, what, with, you( )(连词成句)
________________________________
IX. 书面表达。 (共15分)
60. “巳蛇蜿蜒，福泽新岁”，在这灵蛇开启新岁、志在描绘新征程的2025蛇年，新的希望与机遇已然降临。回首过往学年，我们历经成长蜕变；展望充满生机的蛇年，心中满是憧憬与目标。现要求你在新学期第一节英语课上，用英语简要总结上学期，并重点分享新学期计划。请根据提示，创作一篇演讲稿。
要求：1.80—120词，文章开头已给出，不计入总词数内；
2.文章中不得出现班级、姓名等真实信息。
参考信息：
How time flies! The year 2025 has tiptoed in. Let’s go forward to meet it! Standing here, I want to share with you my own personal improvement in 2024 and my plans for the future. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024—2025学年度下期八年级下入学质量监测
英语试题
(全卷共九个大题 满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟)
第Ⅰ卷(105分)
Ⅰ.听力测试。(共40分)
第一节(每小题1.5分，共9分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. You’re right. B. It was great! C. Don’t worry.
2. A. I like it. B. Never. C. For 2 hours.
3. A. Oh, I disagree. B. That’s right. C. Sure, I’d love to.
4. A. Sounds good. B. It’s kind of you. C. That’s all right.
5. A. My friend Lily. B. No, I’m not. C. In the school.
6. A. Good idea. B. OK I will. C. Have a nice day.
第二节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. /s rv/ B. /’s ri s/ C. /’s rv nt/
8. A. Peter. B. Mark. C. Sam.
9. A. See the robot show. B. Study at home. C. Have a piano lesson.
10. A. 8:00pm. B. 8:30pm. C. 9:00pm.
11.A. B. C.
第三节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料，回答第12-13小题。
12. Who is Mr. White
A. A teacher. B. A doctor. C. A singer.
13. What gift will they give to Mr. White
A A thank-you letter. B. A photo book. C. A picture of Mr. White.
听第二段材料，回答第14至16小题。
14. What did the girl NOT want to do when she was little
A. Travel to the moon. B. Work in a zoo. C. Become a doctor.
15. How does the girl like the job as a doctor
A. Easy. B. Great. C. Difficult.
16. What’s the main topic of the conversation
A. Dream jobs. B. Weekend activities. C. Travel.
第四节(每小题1.5分，共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. When is the party
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday C. On Sunday.
18. What do Mason and Grace advise friends to bring to the party
A. Themselves and something nice for Molly. B. Delicious things to eat and drink. C. A small gift for Mason and Grace.
19. What should people do if they can’t find the house
A. Ask other people for help B. Call Mason and Grace for help. C. Look at the map on their phones.
20. Why do the speakers give the message
A. To ask their friends to have a trip with them.
B. To ask their friends to have dinner with them
C. To ask their friends to come to Molly’s birthday party.
第五节 听并填空。(每小题2分，共10分)
听两遍。依据你所听到的短文，在空白处填入适当的单词，每空一词。
Time with family
Activity Monkey Around: A new 21. ______ show.
Place The Sunshine Theatre: a new place in Jake’s 22. ______.
Time Jake and his parents watched the show at 23. ______o’clock in the afternoon.
Feelings After watching the show, Jake thought it was a wonderful 24. ______. 25. ______ time with family brought much joy and happiness to Jake.
Ⅱ.语法选择。(每小题1分，共10分)
从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
【1~10题答案】
【答案】1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B
Ⅲ.完形填空。(每小题1分，共15分)
根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
【11~20题答案】
【答案】11. D 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. A
Ⅴ.阅读理解。(共35分)
阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. D 23. D
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24. B 25. A 26. C 27. C
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. A 29. D 30. C 31. B
D
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. B 33. D 34. A 35. B
E
【36~39题答案】
【答案】36. D 37. B 38. C 39. D
Ⅴ.口语运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
【40~44题答案】
【答案】40. B 41. D 42. A 43. G 44. C
第Ⅱ卷(45分)
Ⅵ.任务型阅读。(共15分)
第一节：(1-3小题2分，4小题3分，共9分)
【45~49题答案】
【答案】45. Yes.
46. Because she really cares about him.
47. Being passionate about everything in life, enjoying each day better, and being more creative.
48. I prefer to stay young. Because if I can stay young, I will be more creative and have more opportunities to learn and try.
49. 例：
I advise you to stay active and try new things. Even though your body might feel stiff, moving and exploring can help you feel better. Also, trying new things can help you learn more and enjoy life more. Remember, life is about enjoying every moment, no matter your age.
Ⅶ.词汇运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
根据句子意思，用括号内所给单词的话当形式填空。注意其形式的变化。
【50题答案】
【答案】ourselves
【51题答案】
【答案】knives
【52题答案】
【答案】clearly
【53题答案】
【答案】hurt
【54题答案】
【答案】raise
VIII. 完成句子。(共10分)
根据所给提示，完成句子。每空一词，含缩略词。
【55题答案】
【答案】 ①. can’t ②. anything
【56题答案】
【答案】 ①. How ②. many
【57题答案】
【答案】 ①. too ②. to
【58题答案】
【答案】 ① wake ②. up
【59题答案】
【答案】What is the matter with you
IX. 书面表达。 (共15分)
【60题答案】
【答案】例文：
How time flies! The year 2025 has tiptoed in. Let’s go forward to meet it! Standing here, I want to share with you my own personal improvement in 2024 and my plans for the future.
Last term, I made progress in many areas. My English improved a lot, especially in reading and writing. I’m healthier than before because I exercised a lot. What’s more, I have got two new hobbies: swimming and hiking.
This year, I have set some new goals to make myself better. First, I will practice speaking English every day to become more confident. Second, I plan to read more books to expand my knowledge.
I believe I can achieve my goals. Let’s make 2025 a year of growth and success! Thank you!
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