贵州省黔南布依族苗族自治州2024-2025学年高一下学期2月检测英语试题（含答案，无听力原文、答案及音频）
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| 名称 | 贵州省黔南布依族苗族自治州2024-2025学年高一下学期2月检测英语试题（含答案，无听力原文、答案及音频） |  | |
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| 文件大小 | 39.7KB | ||
| 资源类型 | 教案 | ||
| 版本资源 | 人教版（2019） | ||
| 科目 | 英语 | ||
| 更新时间 | 2025-03-02 16:16:47 | ||
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2024~2025 学年度第二学期教学质量监测考试I
高一英语
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必用黑色碳素笔将自己的学校、班级、姓名、考场号、座位号、准考证号在答题卡上填写清楚。
2.每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。在试题卷上作答无效。
3.考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
第一部分 听力 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How does the man feel now
A. Sleepy. B. Hungry. C. Tired.
2. Which program does the man like best
A. Sports. B. History. C. News.
3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Wife and husband. B. Passenger and driver. C. Salesgirl and customer.
4. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a bank. B. In a ticket office. C. In a department store.
5. When did the fire probably break out
A At about 7. B. At about 8. C. At about 9.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What does the man’s friend want to drink
A. Orange juice. B. Milk with sugar. C. Coffee without milk.
7. How much should the man pay
A. 10 yuan. B. 90 yuan. C. 100 yuan.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. Who did Fred have a fight with last night
A. A storekeeper. B. His brother. C. A reporter.
9. Where is Fred now
A. In the police station. B. In the hospital. C. At home.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. Whose house is the girl going to on Sunday
A. Mary’s. B. Jenny’s. C. Susie’s.
11. What will the girl probably do on Friday
A. See a movie. B. Go shopping. C. Watch a basketball game.
12. Why does the girl need a new backpack
A. Her backpack is lost. B. Her backpack is small. C. Her backpack is broken.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. Where did Lisa come across a wallet
A. In a park. B. In a parking lot. C. In a shopping mall.
14. What can be found inside the wallet
A. Some photos. B. Some paper. C. Some money.
15. Who does the wallet probably belong to
A. A businessman. B. An old lady. C. A school boy.
16. How will Lisa get in touch with the wallet’s owner
A. By writing to him. B. By ringing him up. C. By turning to the police.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. Who mentioned in the speech use camels in their sports
A. Americans. B. The Arabs. C. Chinese people.
18. Which sport has the longest history
A. Volleyball. B. Basketball. C. Running.
19. How old is volleyball sport
A. About 300 years. B. Over 1, 000 years. C. Less than 200 years.
20. What often come(s) out of a game in the speaker’s opinion
A. Friendship. B. Prizes. C. Arguments.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Have you ever imagined how New Year’s Eve would look in other countries Listed below are some unique New Year traditions around the world.
Breaking Dishes at a Neighbor’s Door
An odd Danish New Year tradition is throwing dishes at a neighbor’s door. Strangely, this makes them happy instead of annoying them. The family with the tallest tower of broken plates, glasses, cups and other crockery is considered to be the luckiest person because it symbolizes their large number of loyal friends.
Talking to Spirits
Talking to spirits is a part of Mexican belief. Mexicans strongly believe that they can communicate with the souls of their dead loved ones. New Year’s Eve is considered the best time to communicate with dead spirits to convey a message or ask for guidance. And this is not done at home on an individual basis but a legal Mexican practice.
Eating Grapes at Midnight
In Spain, the countdown to the New Year is a unique experience. As the clock strikes midnight, people quickly eat 12 grapes, one for each ringing sound. Each grape represents a month of the year, and consuming them all is said to bring good luck in the coming months.
Throwing flowers into the ocean
In Brazil, New Year’s Eve is celebrated with great passion on the beaches. Many people wear white, which is believed to bring peace and good fortune. At midnight, they make offerings to the goddess of the sea, by throwing flowers into the ocean.
1. What does breaking dishes at a neighbor’s door represent in Denmark
A. Power. B. Wealth.
C. Misfortune. D. Friendship.
2. What do Mexicans do on New Year’s Eve
A. They eat grapes to bring good luck.
B. They throw flowers into the ocean.
C. They communicate with dead spirits.
D. They wear unique clothes to celebrate.
3. Which section of the newspaper is the text probably from
A. Health. B. Culture. C. Science. D. Travel.
B
As I got my first close-up look at a bird, I knew bird watching was going to help me manage my pain. I was born with Kippel-Trenaunay syndrome (KTS), a rare vascular disorder (血管疾病). During my childhood, I spent a lot of time in the hospital. As an adult, I always had doctors’ appointments lined up. Then, things got really bad in 2020.
I was working in advertising at the time, filled with tight deadlines. My body broke down from stress, making basic tasks impossible. So, I slowed down and took up activities that required presence: yoga, meditation and journaling. When my pain was finally under control, my husband and I planned a trip to La Antigua, Guatemala.
Knut, the co-owner of Cayaya Birding Guatemala, drove us to Finca el Pilar, a nature reserve. In the dark forest, strange bird calls filled the air. Knut played an owl call from a speaker, hoping to attract one.
Just as dawn (黎明) broke and I lost interest, a real bird call sounded. Our owl friend landed in a nearby tree. Knut shone a flashlight. Through the binoculars (双筒望远镜), I saw every feather clearly. I whispered, “Thanks, owl; thanks, universe.” After a few minutes, the bird disappeared silently.
More than 60 different species later, our two-day journey was over, and Knut invited us to his place to go over “the checklist”. Checklists are huge in the birding community. Birders have lists for everything: sightings, sounds and possible encounters. I hate to admit it, but I couldn’t wait to start box-checking.
The trip was a huge success, which let my stress fly away. Birdwatching keeps reminding me that if I slow down and pay attention, what I’m looking for is usually right in front of me.
4. Why did the author start birdwatching
A. To follow her doctor’s suggestion.
B. To explore nature with her husband.
C. To escape her advertising job forever.
D. To relieve pressure and physical pain.
5. How did the author feel when she saw the owl
A. Anxious. B. Grateful. C. Depressed. D. Calm.
6. What is “the checklist” used for in paragraph 5
A. Tracking bird observations. B. Scheduling daily activities.
C. Organizing future travels. D. Recording medical conditions.
7. What lesson did the author learn from birdwatching
A. The necessity of keeping journals.
B. The joy of travelling with partners.
C. The value of being patient and attentive.
D. The significance of rushing through life.
C
Do you know the warning that people often give middle-aged joggers: don’t run too much or you’ll end up with bad knees “It’s a myth,” says Richard Blagrove, senior lecturer in physiology at Loughborough University.
While many believe that running is related to osteoarthritis (骨关节炎) in the knees, studies have shown that some runners have a much lower risk of developing it compared with those who don’t run. Research from 25 studies has revealed that running actually appears to be protective against hip and knee osteoarthritis as we age. Exercise causes very slight damage to muscles and bones but also leads them to grow back stronger and healthier.
“There’s a far lower connection of knee pain in runners in their older years compared with those who don’t run,” says Blagrove. But it’s not that simple: short-term knee injuries are common for runners. Known as patellofemoral (髌股的) pain, it will be experienced by many joggers at some time — figures range from 14% to 42%. This pain is often caused by the wrong running technique, wearing the wrong trainers or, most likely, increasing the distance or the intensity (强度) of running too fast.
This is particularly common for beginners. “But if they played tennis four times a week, compared with playing nothing, they would probably get an injury,” says Blagrove. “It’s not the running that’s bad for their knees; it’s the fact that they’ve done too much, too soon.”
To avoid pain around the knees from running, start your training plan gently and build up intensity slowly. Run at a slower pace and shorter distances and take longer breaks between works. If your knees do hurt, don’t worry too much, says Blagrove. “People often bounce back quite quickly, once they have had a bit of rest and recovery.”
8. What does the underlined word “myth” in paragraph 1 mean
A. Proven fact. B. False opinion.
C. Unsolved mystery. D. Hidden danger.
9. What is the main cause of short-term knee injuries in runners according to Blagrove
A. Running short distances. B. Wearing unsuitable shoes.
C. Increasing intensity too rapidly. D. Hiring non-professional coaches.
10. Why does the author mention “tennis” in paragraph 4
A. To illustrate his point. B. To discuss its benefits.
C. To show his preference. D. To stress its importance.
11. What advice does Blagrove give to avoid knee pain from running
A. Sticking to running on a daily basis.
B. Avoiding resting between workouts.
C. Running at a high speed continuously.
D. Starting gently and increasing slowly.
D
The highly expected Chinese 2025 Spring Festival Gala took place on the evening of January 28th, attracting audiences with a perfect combination of cutting-edge technology and cultural heritage. Live broadcast technology and innovative (创新的) stage design also made this Year of the Snake celebration a success.
Among the evening’s fantastic performances was the amazing robot dance “Yangge BOT.” Sixteen humanoid robots, dressed in red floral jackets, performed perfectly alongside 16 human dancers. One of the most impressive moments came when the robots skillfully controlled handkerchiefs, a key element of Yangge dance. With AI-driven mechanical arm movements, they sent the handkerchiefs spinning (旋转) and flying through the air, creating a breath taking performance, which symbolizes the perfect combination of tradition and innovation.
Yangge BOT, also called H1, is developed by Unitree, an energetic start-up company that focuses on the development, production and sales of high-performance robots. Standing about 180cm tall and weighing around 70kg, H1 is Unitree’s first humanoid robot, launched in August 2023. The robot performs smartly and is able to carry out complex movements, highlighting its high precision (精准) motion abilities. According to Wang Qixin, Head of Marketing at Unitree, all the dance movements were powered by AI, showing the robot’s ability to learn and adapt.
The “Yangge BOT” performance was more than fun; it was a glimpse into the future of AI in the performing arts. By combining AI with traditional dance the gala showed us the limitless potential (潜力) of technology to expand artistic possibilities. As AI continues to develop, its applications in the arts will offer audiences around the world innovative and unforgettable experiences. The gala has set a new benchmark for how technology and culture can come together to create something truly extraordinary.
12. What’s the main feature of the 2025 Spring Festival Gala
A. The balance of the past and present.
B. The teamwork of humans and robots.
C. The combination of tradition and innovation.
D. The interaction of Eastern and Western culture.
13. What did H1 do at the 2025 Spring Festival Gala
A. Spinning quickly in the air. B. Dancing Yangge with humans.
C. Controlling the stage perfectly. D. Washing handkerchiefs smartly.
14. Which word can best describe Yangge BOT’s performance
A. Intelligent. B. Disappointing. C. Humorous. D. Passionate.
15. What is the best title of the passage
A. Unitree Designed Smart Robots. B. AI Technology Hits the World.
C. AI-driven Robots Scare Viewers. D. Yangge BOT Shines on the Stage.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Many of us experience loneliness. The truth is that all people, old or young, shy or outgoing, sometimes experience loneliness. It’s healthy and natural to want to be around people who care about us. ____16____.
Be willing to take the initiative (主动权). If you see someone whom you would like to know, don’t wait for others to make the first move. ____17____. Let them know in a friendly way that you are interested in being friends with them.
Reach out to those who are lonely. When you see someone at school sitting alone, go over and talk to the person. And don’t let popularity decide whom you reach out to. You’ll often be surprised at the beautiful qualities behind a shy appearance.
____18____. Start your first conversation by asking this possible friend what the person likes to do or asking about their family. ____19____. For example, don’t ask “Do you have a dog ” Instead, say “So, tell me about your pets.”, which makes your possible friend not end your communication with a one-word answer.
Be friendly and approachable. Smile, make eye contact, and show a positive attitude. It breaks down barriers and creates a relaxed atmosphere for communication. ____20____.
Remember, making friends is not just about quantity but quality. It’s better to have a few close and trustworthy friends than many superficial ones.
A. Ask questions smartly
B. Answer questions wisely
C. Get close to them first and begin a conversation
D. If you want friends, consider taking the following measures
E. If you are struggling with loneliness, seek help from doctors
F. A warm and open gesture makes it easier for others to approach
G. Be sure to ask questions that cannot be replied with “yes” or “no”
第三部分 语言运用 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I got Jeb, a donkey (驴), thanks to a Facebook post. He was a rescue animal, and seemed badly treated before. He was easily frightened, but despite his ____21____ experiences, we bonded at once. Over time, he became not just a companion but a source of ____22____ and strength.
Years ago, Jeb and I were on a volunteer trip to ____23____ hiking paths in the Wallowa Mountains. He served as a pack donkey, ____24____ supplies and equipment. After days of hard work of tidying, we found ourselves on a steep, 2-mile uphill climb back home. The trip was ____25____, and I had to stop several times to ____26____ my breath. Each time I paused (暂停), Jeb ____27____. He would stop in his tracks, turn his head, and ____28____ nudge me with his nose, as if ____29____ me to keep going. He repeated it over and over until we _____30_____ reached my truck.
I had always known Jeb was smart, but that day, I realized he was also _____31_____. He seemed to sense my _____32_____ and responded with support. That moment touched me deeply and strengthened our _____33_____. Every day, I am _____34_____ to him, and I value the lessons he has taught me about unspoken _____35_____.
21. A. interesting B. pleasant C. painful D. shameful
22. A. comfort B. bitterness C. income D. inspiration
23. A. cover B. clear C. block D. follow
24. A. choosing B. leaving C. carrying D. repairing
25. A. boring B. challenging C. easy D. short
26. A. catch B. waste C. hold D. save
27. A. ignored B. noticed C. advanced D. attacked
28. A. quickly B. slowly C. gently D. heavily
29. A. encouraging B. warning C. allowing D. ordering
30. A. suddenly B. hurriedly C. accidentally D. finally
31. A. serious B. considerate C. talented D. professional
32. A. tiredness B. curiosity C. excitement D. sadness
33. A. skills B. confidence C. bond D. conflicts
34. A. similar B. thankful C. opposite D. regretful
35. A. rules B. secrets C. hope D. love
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Dongming grain painting (东明粮画) is ____36____ old art form. It uses the natural colors and shapes of grains to create beautiful designs. ____37____ (recognize) as Shandong’s intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) in 2016, this art form has lost popularity because ____38____ fading traditional customs.
Han Guorui, a 44-year-old inheritor of Dongming grain painting, ____39____ (begin) learning the craft at the age of 8 and has been practicing for over 30 years. He said the ____40____ (lose) of interest is understandable given the complex 27-step process. Every step, from collecting grains to making designs, ____41____ (require) careful work and skill. Han explains that different seeds have unique features, making it very important ____42____ (find) the right materials for grain paintings. For instance, wild sunflower seeds look like animal eyes in size and color, while regular sunflower seeds work better for bird feathers because of their feel.
Han has spent years ____43____ (seek) rare seeds and collected 200 types of seeds from ____44____ (vary) sources. To modernize the tradition, he adds elements of ink painting and Western oil painting to his work, _____45_____ turns out effective. Many of his grain paintings have sold for high prices. For example, in 2014, a grain painting of the Mona Lisa sold for 10,000yuan.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
46. 假定你是李华，英国交换生Tom最近在汉语学习上遇到了困难，特来信向你求助，请你给他回信，内容包括：
1.给出建议；
2.表达期待。
注意：1.词数80左右；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Tom,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Jenny was a shy girl in Grade 5, who always felt out of place in school. While her classmates chatted happily during breaks, she often sat quietly in a corner. She preferred the company of books to people, but her true passion was drawing. Her sketchbook (素描簿) was filled with colorful drawings, though she never showed them to anyone.
One day, her art teacher, Mrs. Thompson, announced a school-wide drawing competition to be held the following month. The theme was “Discovering Yourself”, and the winner would have their work published in the school magazine. The news excited Jenny, but it was quickly overshadowed by doubt — the thought of others knowing her inner thoughts scared her. What if they laughed at her drawing What if they thought her art was strange
Yet, the idea of expressing herself and possibly being recognized for her talent was too attractive to ignore. After days of hesitation (犹豫), Jenny decided to enter the competition. But what should she paint to show her true self For years, she had been ashamed of her shyness, viewing it as a weakness. Her journey toward self-acceptance had been a quiet struggle.
Jenny poured her heart into creating the work. Her drawing began to take shape. She drew a girl standing at the edge of a forest, one hand reaching out toward the sunlight streaming through the trees. The girl’s face was turned away, as if unsure whether to step into the light or retreat (后退) into the shadows. Around her, the forest was detailed and alive, filled with hidden creatures and winding paths. It was a reflection of Jenny’s own journey — her fears, her hopes, and her longing to find her place in the world.
The day of the competition arrived, and Jenny held her drawing tightly as she approached Mrs. Thompson. Her teacher smiled warmly and said, “I believe in you, Jenny.” Those simple words filled Jenny with warmth. Even if she didn’t win, she had taken a step toward embracing who she was.
注意：1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Weeks passed, and the day to announce the results finally arrived.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The publication of her work marked a turning point in Jenny’s life.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024~2025 学年度第二学期教学质量监测考试I
高一英语
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必用黑色碳素笔将自己的学校、班级、姓名、考场号、座位号、准考证号在答题卡上填写清楚。
2.每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。在试题卷上作答无效。
3.考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
第一部分 听力 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How does the man feel now
A. Sleepy. B. Hungry. C. Tired.
2. Which program does the man like best
A. Sports. B. History. C. News.
3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A Wife and husband. B. Passenger and driver. C. Salesgirl and customer.
4. Where does the conversation probably take place
A In a bank. B. In a ticket office. C. In a department store.
5. When did the fire probably break out
A. At about 7. B. At about 8. C. At about 9.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What does the man’s friend want to drink
A. Orange juice. B. Milk with sugar. C. Coffee without milk.
7. How much should the man pay
A. 10 yuan. B. 90 yuan. C. 100 yuan.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. Who did Fred have a fight with last night
A. A storekeeper. B. His brother. C. A reporter.
9. Where is Fred now
A. In the police station. B. In the hospital. C. At home.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. Whose house is the girl going to on Sunday
A. Mary’s. B. Jenny’s. C. Susie’s.
11. What will the girl probably do on Friday
A. See a movie. B. Go shopping. C. Watch a basketball game.
12. Why does the girl need a new backpack
A. Her backpack is lost. B. Her backpack is small. C. Her backpack is broken.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. Where did Lisa come across a wallet
A In a park. B. In a parking lot. C. In a shopping mall.
14. What can be found inside the wallet
A. Some photos. B. Some paper. C. Some money.
15. Who does the wallet probably belong to
A. A businessman. B. An old lady. C. A school boy.
16. How will Lisa get in touch with the wallet’s owner
A. By writing to him. B. By ringing him up. C. By turning to the police.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. Who mentioned in the speech use camels in their sports
A. Americans. B. The Arabs. C. Chinese people.
18. Which sport has the longest history
A. Volleyball. B. Basketball. C. Running.
19. How old is volleyball sport
A. About 300 years. B. Over 1, 000 years. C. Less than 200 years.
20. What often come(s) out of a game in the speaker’s opinion
A. Friendship. B. Prizes. C. Arguments.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. C 3. B
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. D 5. B 6. A 7. C
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. B 14. A 15. D
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. D 17. C 18. A 19. G 20. F
第三部分 语言运用 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. D
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. an 37. Recognized
38. of 39. began
40. loss 41. requires
42. to find
43. seeking
44. various
45. which
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Tom,
I’m glad you reached out for help with your Chinese studies. Here are a few suggestions that might help you.
First, try to practice speaking with native speakers as much as possible. This will improve your pronunciation and fluency. You can also watch Chinese movies or listen to music to get familiar with the language in a fun way. Additionally, consider using language learning apps to practice vocabulary daily.
I believe with consistent effort, you will see great improvement. I look forward to hearing about your progress!
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
【47题答案】
【答案】Weeks passed, and the day to announce the results finally arrived. Jenny’s heart pounded with a mix of excitement and anxiety as she stood among her classmates in the school assembly. Mrs. Thompson walked to the front, holding an envelope that seemed to hold the weight of Jenny’s dreams. When she announced that Jenny had won the competition, a wave of disbelief washed over Jenny. She could hardly believe her ears as her classmates applauded and cheered.
The publication of her work marked a turning point in Jenny’s life. For the first time, she felt seen and appreciated for who she truly was. Her drawing, now displayed in the school magazine, became a conversation starter, and classmates she had never spoken to before approached her, expressing their admiration. This newfound recognition boosted Jenny’s confidence, making her realize that her shyness was not a barrier, but a unique part of her that she could embrace. Slowly, she began to open up, finding joy in connecting with others while still cherishing her love for art.
高一英语
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必用黑色碳素笔将自己的学校、班级、姓名、考场号、座位号、准考证号在答题卡上填写清楚。
2.每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。在试题卷上作答无效。
3.考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
第一部分 听力 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How does the man feel now
A. Sleepy. B. Hungry. C. Tired.
2. Which program does the man like best
A. Sports. B. History. C. News.
3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Wife and husband. B. Passenger and driver. C. Salesgirl and customer.
4. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a bank. B. In a ticket office. C. In a department store.
5. When did the fire probably break out
A At about 7. B. At about 8. C. At about 9.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What does the man’s friend want to drink
A. Orange juice. B. Milk with sugar. C. Coffee without milk.
7. How much should the man pay
A. 10 yuan. B. 90 yuan. C. 100 yuan.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. Who did Fred have a fight with last night
A. A storekeeper. B. His brother. C. A reporter.
9. Where is Fred now
A. In the police station. B. In the hospital. C. At home.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. Whose house is the girl going to on Sunday
A. Mary’s. B. Jenny’s. C. Susie’s.
11. What will the girl probably do on Friday
A. See a movie. B. Go shopping. C. Watch a basketball game.
12. Why does the girl need a new backpack
A. Her backpack is lost. B. Her backpack is small. C. Her backpack is broken.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. Where did Lisa come across a wallet
A. In a park. B. In a parking lot. C. In a shopping mall.
14. What can be found inside the wallet
A. Some photos. B. Some paper. C. Some money.
15. Who does the wallet probably belong to
A. A businessman. B. An old lady. C. A school boy.
16. How will Lisa get in touch with the wallet’s owner
A. By writing to him. B. By ringing him up. C. By turning to the police.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. Who mentioned in the speech use camels in their sports
A. Americans. B. The Arabs. C. Chinese people.
18. Which sport has the longest history
A. Volleyball. B. Basketball. C. Running.
19. How old is volleyball sport
A. About 300 years. B. Over 1, 000 years. C. Less than 200 years.
20. What often come(s) out of a game in the speaker’s opinion
A. Friendship. B. Prizes. C. Arguments.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Have you ever imagined how New Year’s Eve would look in other countries Listed below are some unique New Year traditions around the world.
Breaking Dishes at a Neighbor’s Door
An odd Danish New Year tradition is throwing dishes at a neighbor’s door. Strangely, this makes them happy instead of annoying them. The family with the tallest tower of broken plates, glasses, cups and other crockery is considered to be the luckiest person because it symbolizes their large number of loyal friends.
Talking to Spirits
Talking to spirits is a part of Mexican belief. Mexicans strongly believe that they can communicate with the souls of their dead loved ones. New Year’s Eve is considered the best time to communicate with dead spirits to convey a message or ask for guidance. And this is not done at home on an individual basis but a legal Mexican practice.
Eating Grapes at Midnight
In Spain, the countdown to the New Year is a unique experience. As the clock strikes midnight, people quickly eat 12 grapes, one for each ringing sound. Each grape represents a month of the year, and consuming them all is said to bring good luck in the coming months.
Throwing flowers into the ocean
In Brazil, New Year’s Eve is celebrated with great passion on the beaches. Many people wear white, which is believed to bring peace and good fortune. At midnight, they make offerings to the goddess of the sea, by throwing flowers into the ocean.
1. What does breaking dishes at a neighbor’s door represent in Denmark
A. Power. B. Wealth.
C. Misfortune. D. Friendship.
2. What do Mexicans do on New Year’s Eve
A. They eat grapes to bring good luck.
B. They throw flowers into the ocean.
C. They communicate with dead spirits.
D. They wear unique clothes to celebrate.
3. Which section of the newspaper is the text probably from
A. Health. B. Culture. C. Science. D. Travel.
B
As I got my first close-up look at a bird, I knew bird watching was going to help me manage my pain. I was born with Kippel-Trenaunay syndrome (KTS), a rare vascular disorder (血管疾病). During my childhood, I spent a lot of time in the hospital. As an adult, I always had doctors’ appointments lined up. Then, things got really bad in 2020.
I was working in advertising at the time, filled with tight deadlines. My body broke down from stress, making basic tasks impossible. So, I slowed down and took up activities that required presence: yoga, meditation and journaling. When my pain was finally under control, my husband and I planned a trip to La Antigua, Guatemala.
Knut, the co-owner of Cayaya Birding Guatemala, drove us to Finca el Pilar, a nature reserve. In the dark forest, strange bird calls filled the air. Knut played an owl call from a speaker, hoping to attract one.
Just as dawn (黎明) broke and I lost interest, a real bird call sounded. Our owl friend landed in a nearby tree. Knut shone a flashlight. Through the binoculars (双筒望远镜), I saw every feather clearly. I whispered, “Thanks, owl; thanks, universe.” After a few minutes, the bird disappeared silently.
More than 60 different species later, our two-day journey was over, and Knut invited us to his place to go over “the checklist”. Checklists are huge in the birding community. Birders have lists for everything: sightings, sounds and possible encounters. I hate to admit it, but I couldn’t wait to start box-checking.
The trip was a huge success, which let my stress fly away. Birdwatching keeps reminding me that if I slow down and pay attention, what I’m looking for is usually right in front of me.
4. Why did the author start birdwatching
A. To follow her doctor’s suggestion.
B. To explore nature with her husband.
C. To escape her advertising job forever.
D. To relieve pressure and physical pain.
5. How did the author feel when she saw the owl
A. Anxious. B. Grateful. C. Depressed. D. Calm.
6. What is “the checklist” used for in paragraph 5
A. Tracking bird observations. B. Scheduling daily activities.
C. Organizing future travels. D. Recording medical conditions.
7. What lesson did the author learn from birdwatching
A. The necessity of keeping journals.
B. The joy of travelling with partners.
C. The value of being patient and attentive.
D. The significance of rushing through life.
C
Do you know the warning that people often give middle-aged joggers: don’t run too much or you’ll end up with bad knees “It’s a myth,” says Richard Blagrove, senior lecturer in physiology at Loughborough University.
While many believe that running is related to osteoarthritis (骨关节炎) in the knees, studies have shown that some runners have a much lower risk of developing it compared with those who don’t run. Research from 25 studies has revealed that running actually appears to be protective against hip and knee osteoarthritis as we age. Exercise causes very slight damage to muscles and bones but also leads them to grow back stronger and healthier.
“There’s a far lower connection of knee pain in runners in their older years compared with those who don’t run,” says Blagrove. But it’s not that simple: short-term knee injuries are common for runners. Known as patellofemoral (髌股的) pain, it will be experienced by many joggers at some time — figures range from 14% to 42%. This pain is often caused by the wrong running technique, wearing the wrong trainers or, most likely, increasing the distance or the intensity (强度) of running too fast.
This is particularly common for beginners. “But if they played tennis four times a week, compared with playing nothing, they would probably get an injury,” says Blagrove. “It’s not the running that’s bad for their knees; it’s the fact that they’ve done too much, too soon.”
To avoid pain around the knees from running, start your training plan gently and build up intensity slowly. Run at a slower pace and shorter distances and take longer breaks between works. If your knees do hurt, don’t worry too much, says Blagrove. “People often bounce back quite quickly, once they have had a bit of rest and recovery.”
8. What does the underlined word “myth” in paragraph 1 mean
A. Proven fact. B. False opinion.
C. Unsolved mystery. D. Hidden danger.
9. What is the main cause of short-term knee injuries in runners according to Blagrove
A. Running short distances. B. Wearing unsuitable shoes.
C. Increasing intensity too rapidly. D. Hiring non-professional coaches.
10. Why does the author mention “tennis” in paragraph 4
A. To illustrate his point. B. To discuss its benefits.
C. To show his preference. D. To stress its importance.
11. What advice does Blagrove give to avoid knee pain from running
A. Sticking to running on a daily basis.
B. Avoiding resting between workouts.
C. Running at a high speed continuously.
D. Starting gently and increasing slowly.
D
The highly expected Chinese 2025 Spring Festival Gala took place on the evening of January 28th, attracting audiences with a perfect combination of cutting-edge technology and cultural heritage. Live broadcast technology and innovative (创新的) stage design also made this Year of the Snake celebration a success.
Among the evening’s fantastic performances was the amazing robot dance “Yangge BOT.” Sixteen humanoid robots, dressed in red floral jackets, performed perfectly alongside 16 human dancers. One of the most impressive moments came when the robots skillfully controlled handkerchiefs, a key element of Yangge dance. With AI-driven mechanical arm movements, they sent the handkerchiefs spinning (旋转) and flying through the air, creating a breath taking performance, which symbolizes the perfect combination of tradition and innovation.
Yangge BOT, also called H1, is developed by Unitree, an energetic start-up company that focuses on the development, production and sales of high-performance robots. Standing about 180cm tall and weighing around 70kg, H1 is Unitree’s first humanoid robot, launched in August 2023. The robot performs smartly and is able to carry out complex movements, highlighting its high precision (精准) motion abilities. According to Wang Qixin, Head of Marketing at Unitree, all the dance movements were powered by AI, showing the robot’s ability to learn and adapt.
The “Yangge BOT” performance was more than fun; it was a glimpse into the future of AI in the performing arts. By combining AI with traditional dance the gala showed us the limitless potential (潜力) of technology to expand artistic possibilities. As AI continues to develop, its applications in the arts will offer audiences around the world innovative and unforgettable experiences. The gala has set a new benchmark for how technology and culture can come together to create something truly extraordinary.
12. What’s the main feature of the 2025 Spring Festival Gala
A. The balance of the past and present.
B. The teamwork of humans and robots.
C. The combination of tradition and innovation.
D. The interaction of Eastern and Western culture.
13. What did H1 do at the 2025 Spring Festival Gala
A. Spinning quickly in the air. B. Dancing Yangge with humans.
C. Controlling the stage perfectly. D. Washing handkerchiefs smartly.
14. Which word can best describe Yangge BOT’s performance
A. Intelligent. B. Disappointing. C. Humorous. D. Passionate.
15. What is the best title of the passage
A. Unitree Designed Smart Robots. B. AI Technology Hits the World.
C. AI-driven Robots Scare Viewers. D. Yangge BOT Shines on the Stage.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Many of us experience loneliness. The truth is that all people, old or young, shy or outgoing, sometimes experience loneliness. It’s healthy and natural to want to be around people who care about us. ____16____.
Be willing to take the initiative (主动权). If you see someone whom you would like to know, don’t wait for others to make the first move. ____17____. Let them know in a friendly way that you are interested in being friends with them.
Reach out to those who are lonely. When you see someone at school sitting alone, go over and talk to the person. And don’t let popularity decide whom you reach out to. You’ll often be surprised at the beautiful qualities behind a shy appearance.
____18____. Start your first conversation by asking this possible friend what the person likes to do or asking about their family. ____19____. For example, don’t ask “Do you have a dog ” Instead, say “So, tell me about your pets.”, which makes your possible friend not end your communication with a one-word answer.
Be friendly and approachable. Smile, make eye contact, and show a positive attitude. It breaks down barriers and creates a relaxed atmosphere for communication. ____20____.
Remember, making friends is not just about quantity but quality. It’s better to have a few close and trustworthy friends than many superficial ones.
A. Ask questions smartly
B. Answer questions wisely
C. Get close to them first and begin a conversation
D. If you want friends, consider taking the following measures
E. If you are struggling with loneliness, seek help from doctors
F. A warm and open gesture makes it easier for others to approach
G. Be sure to ask questions that cannot be replied with “yes” or “no”
第三部分 语言运用 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I got Jeb, a donkey (驴), thanks to a Facebook post. He was a rescue animal, and seemed badly treated before. He was easily frightened, but despite his ____21____ experiences, we bonded at once. Over time, he became not just a companion but a source of ____22____ and strength.
Years ago, Jeb and I were on a volunteer trip to ____23____ hiking paths in the Wallowa Mountains. He served as a pack donkey, ____24____ supplies and equipment. After days of hard work of tidying, we found ourselves on a steep, 2-mile uphill climb back home. The trip was ____25____, and I had to stop several times to ____26____ my breath. Each time I paused (暂停), Jeb ____27____. He would stop in his tracks, turn his head, and ____28____ nudge me with his nose, as if ____29____ me to keep going. He repeated it over and over until we _____30_____ reached my truck.
I had always known Jeb was smart, but that day, I realized he was also _____31_____. He seemed to sense my _____32_____ and responded with support. That moment touched me deeply and strengthened our _____33_____. Every day, I am _____34_____ to him, and I value the lessons he has taught me about unspoken _____35_____.
21. A. interesting B. pleasant C. painful D. shameful
22. A. comfort B. bitterness C. income D. inspiration
23. A. cover B. clear C. block D. follow
24. A. choosing B. leaving C. carrying D. repairing
25. A. boring B. challenging C. easy D. short
26. A. catch B. waste C. hold D. save
27. A. ignored B. noticed C. advanced D. attacked
28. A. quickly B. slowly C. gently D. heavily
29. A. encouraging B. warning C. allowing D. ordering
30. A. suddenly B. hurriedly C. accidentally D. finally
31. A. serious B. considerate C. talented D. professional
32. A. tiredness B. curiosity C. excitement D. sadness
33. A. skills B. confidence C. bond D. conflicts
34. A. similar B. thankful C. opposite D. regretful
35. A. rules B. secrets C. hope D. love
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Dongming grain painting (东明粮画) is ____36____ old art form. It uses the natural colors and shapes of grains to create beautiful designs. ____37____ (recognize) as Shandong’s intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) in 2016, this art form has lost popularity because ____38____ fading traditional customs.
Han Guorui, a 44-year-old inheritor of Dongming grain painting, ____39____ (begin) learning the craft at the age of 8 and has been practicing for over 30 years. He said the ____40____ (lose) of interest is understandable given the complex 27-step process. Every step, from collecting grains to making designs, ____41____ (require) careful work and skill. Han explains that different seeds have unique features, making it very important ____42____ (find) the right materials for grain paintings. For instance, wild sunflower seeds look like animal eyes in size and color, while regular sunflower seeds work better for bird feathers because of their feel.
Han has spent years ____43____ (seek) rare seeds and collected 200 types of seeds from ____44____ (vary) sources. To modernize the tradition, he adds elements of ink painting and Western oil painting to his work, _____45_____ turns out effective. Many of his grain paintings have sold for high prices. For example, in 2014, a grain painting of the Mona Lisa sold for 10,000yuan.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
46. 假定你是李华，英国交换生Tom最近在汉语学习上遇到了困难，特来信向你求助，请你给他回信，内容包括：
1.给出建议；
2.表达期待。
注意：1.词数80左右；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Tom,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Jenny was a shy girl in Grade 5, who always felt out of place in school. While her classmates chatted happily during breaks, she often sat quietly in a corner. She preferred the company of books to people, but her true passion was drawing. Her sketchbook (素描簿) was filled with colorful drawings, though she never showed them to anyone.
One day, her art teacher, Mrs. Thompson, announced a school-wide drawing competition to be held the following month. The theme was “Discovering Yourself”, and the winner would have their work published in the school magazine. The news excited Jenny, but it was quickly overshadowed by doubt — the thought of others knowing her inner thoughts scared her. What if they laughed at her drawing What if they thought her art was strange
Yet, the idea of expressing herself and possibly being recognized for her talent was too attractive to ignore. After days of hesitation (犹豫), Jenny decided to enter the competition. But what should she paint to show her true self For years, she had been ashamed of her shyness, viewing it as a weakness. Her journey toward self-acceptance had been a quiet struggle.
Jenny poured her heart into creating the work. Her drawing began to take shape. She drew a girl standing at the edge of a forest, one hand reaching out toward the sunlight streaming through the trees. The girl’s face was turned away, as if unsure whether to step into the light or retreat (后退) into the shadows. Around her, the forest was detailed and alive, filled with hidden creatures and winding paths. It was a reflection of Jenny’s own journey — her fears, her hopes, and her longing to find her place in the world.
The day of the competition arrived, and Jenny held her drawing tightly as she approached Mrs. Thompson. Her teacher smiled warmly and said, “I believe in you, Jenny.” Those simple words filled Jenny with warmth. Even if she didn’t win, she had taken a step toward embracing who she was.
注意：1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Weeks passed, and the day to announce the results finally arrived.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
The publication of her work marked a turning point in Jenny’s life.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024~2025 学年度第二学期教学质量监测考试I
高一英语
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必用黑色碳素笔将自己的学校、班级、姓名、考场号、座位号、准考证号在答题卡上填写清楚。
2.每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。在试题卷上作答无效。
3.考试结束后，请将答题卡交回。满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
第一部分 听力 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How does the man feel now
A. Sleepy. B. Hungry. C. Tired.
2. Which program does the man like best
A. Sports. B. History. C. News.
3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A Wife and husband. B. Passenger and driver. C. Salesgirl and customer.
4. Where does the conversation probably take place
A In a bank. B. In a ticket office. C. In a department store.
5. When did the fire probably break out
A. At about 7. B. At about 8. C. At about 9.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What does the man’s friend want to drink
A. Orange juice. B. Milk with sugar. C. Coffee without milk.
7. How much should the man pay
A. 10 yuan. B. 90 yuan. C. 100 yuan.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. Who did Fred have a fight with last night
A. A storekeeper. B. His brother. C. A reporter.
9. Where is Fred now
A. In the police station. B. In the hospital. C. At home.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. Whose house is the girl going to on Sunday
A. Mary’s. B. Jenny’s. C. Susie’s.
11. What will the girl probably do on Friday
A. See a movie. B. Go shopping. C. Watch a basketball game.
12. Why does the girl need a new backpack
A. Her backpack is lost. B. Her backpack is small. C. Her backpack is broken.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. Where did Lisa come across a wallet
A In a park. B. In a parking lot. C. In a shopping mall.
14. What can be found inside the wallet
A. Some photos. B. Some paper. C. Some money.
15. Who does the wallet probably belong to
A. A businessman. B. An old lady. C. A school boy.
16. How will Lisa get in touch with the wallet’s owner
A. By writing to him. B. By ringing him up. C. By turning to the police.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. Who mentioned in the speech use camels in their sports
A. Americans. B. The Arabs. C. Chinese people.
18. Which sport has the longest history
A. Volleyball. B. Basketball. C. Running.
19. How old is volleyball sport
A. About 300 years. B. Over 1, 000 years. C. Less than 200 years.
20. What often come(s) out of a game in the speaker’s opinion
A. Friendship. B. Prizes. C. Arguments.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. C 3. B
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. D 5. B 6. A 7. C
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. B 14. A 15. D
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. D 17. C 18. A 19. G 20. F
第三部分 语言运用 （共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. D
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. an 37. Recognized
38. of 39. began
40. loss 41. requires
42. to find
43. seeking
44. various
45. which
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Tom,
I’m glad you reached out for help with your Chinese studies. Here are a few suggestions that might help you.
First, try to practice speaking with native speakers as much as possible. This will improve your pronunciation and fluency. You can also watch Chinese movies or listen to music to get familiar with the language in a fun way. Additionally, consider using language learning apps to practice vocabulary daily.
I believe with consistent effort, you will see great improvement. I look forward to hearing about your progress!
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
【47题答案】
【答案】Weeks passed, and the day to announce the results finally arrived. Jenny’s heart pounded with a mix of excitement and anxiety as she stood among her classmates in the school assembly. Mrs. Thompson walked to the front, holding an envelope that seemed to hold the weight of Jenny’s dreams. When she announced that Jenny had won the competition, a wave of disbelief washed over Jenny. She could hardly believe her ears as her classmates applauded and cheered.
The publication of her work marked a turning point in Jenny’s life. For the first time, she felt seen and appreciated for who she truly was. Her drawing, now displayed in the school magazine, became a conversation starter, and classmates she had never spoken to before approached her, expressing their admiration. This newfound recognition boosted Jenny’s confidence, making her realize that her shyness was not a barrier, but a unique part of her that she could embrace. Slowly, she began to open up, finding joy in connecting with others while still cherishing her love for art.
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