2025年九年级教学诊断测试
英 语 试 题
本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Mike has a guitar. B. Lucy is an art teacher. C. Mary likes swimming.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Have a great time! B. Wish you good luck! C. Catch you on Monday.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Allen can’t go camping. B. I’m not good at science. C. Sam isn’t taller than Tom.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Are you still at school B. Do they get on well C. Is there a park near here
5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. How do you go to school B. Where did Kate go yesterday C. How is everything going
第二节 （共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. When will the train leave 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. At 6:30. B. At 7:30. C. At 8:30.
7. Why is Jane late this morning 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. She stayed up late. B. Her clock didn’t go off. C. She had a headache.
8. What will Jack probably do this weekend 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Go camping. B. Visit a friend. C. Watch a film.
9. Why is the man going to London 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. To work there. B. To visit a friend. C. To take a city walk.
10. Who went to the movie with the girl 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Her sister. B. Her brother. C. Her cousin.
第三节 （共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
11. How was Julie’s birthday party
A. Boring. B. Noisy. C. Great.
12. What gift did Julie get from Ben
A. A book. B. A bag. C. Some flowers.
13. What is Ben’s job
A. A writer. B. A painter. C. A designer.
14. Where did Ben take the dog
A. The pet store. B. The pet hotel. C. The pet hospital.
15. What do we know about Ben
A. He is caring. B. He is strict. C. He is careless.
第四节 （共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
16. What is Bruce
A. A student. B. A teacher. C. A traveller.
17. What does Bruce want to do with the old books
A. Sell them to buy toys. B. Give them to poor children. C. Keep them in the class.
18. How does Bruce want to make money
A. By selling used bottles. B. By asking teachers for money. C. By doing part-time jobs.
19. What does Bruce do to make his ideas come true
A. He only gives a speech. B. He asks parents for help. C. He works really hard.
20. How did Bruce feel when he became the class monitor
A. He felt nervous. B. He felt excited. C. He felt relaxed.
第二部分 阅读 （共两节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题：每小题2分，满分40分）
A
Join Our Community Action Plan!
In our country, the government has made a three-year action plan called “Weight Management Year”. This program aims to help people understand the importance of keeping a healthy weight. Our community will organise healthy activities from May 1 to May 31, 2025. Let’s work together to build a healthier, happier community!
Healthy Eating Workshop Time: Every Saturday (10:00 AM - 12:00 PM) Place: Community Center Content: Learn to cook balanced meals and make healthy snacks. Price: 100 yuan for each person Tel: 67605272
Fun Sports Day Time: May 15 (8:30 AM-4:00 PM) Place: Riverside Park and Forest Park Activities: Group running, yoga, basketball matches, and family relay races (接力赛). Attention: Wear sports clothes; bring a water bottle. Price: Free ★Prizes: ·The first prize (one): A smartwatch worth 600 yuan each and a medal. ·The second prize (two): A sports backpack worth 300 yuan each and a medal. ·The third prize (five): A e and join us. Visit https://.
Health Talk Time: May 20 (3:00 PM-5:00 PM) Place: Community Library Speaker: Dr. Li Hua Topic: “Stay Happy: Beat Stress and Worry.” Ticket: Free Email Health Talk@ for more information.
21. How long will healthy activities in the community last
A. Three days. B. A week. C. A month. D. Three years.
22. Where can you learn to cook in a healthy way
A. In the Community Library. B. In the Community Center. C. In the Riverside Park. D. In the Forest Park.
23. How much should an adult pay for the Fun Sports Day
A. 100 yuan. B. 300 yuan. C. 600 yuan. D. Free.
24. How can a person get more information about the Health Talk
A. Visit a website. B. Send an email. C. Make a call. D. Text a speaker.
25. Why does the community hold these activities
A. For health. B. For prizes. C. For money. D. For safety.
B
When I was a kid my mom would let me help her make popcorn on cold winter nights. We would get out a pan (平底锅), some oil and butter, and wait for the first popcorn to jump with an exciting sound. Then, we would shake the pan over the stove (炉子) to keep the popcorn from burning—shake, shake, shake, and pop, pop, pop—until the pan was filled with delicious popcorn! Mom would pour it all into a big bowl and add some salt on top.
Later, we would all come to the living room. Dad would sit in his chair, while my mom, brothers, and I would relax on the sofa. There was always a lot of popcorn to share, and mom even let me eat the half-popped kernels.
The funny thing is that I have already forgotten the shows we watched, but I still remember the smell of the popcorn, the warmth of the bowl, and the joy of being with my family. I felt so loved, safe and happy. We didn’t have a big house, expensive snacks or much money, but our love for each other was everything.
It’s the little moments like these that matter most. They’re magical everyday gifts and memories that last forever. So remember to enjoy the moments and the love that comes with them. They are what truly make life beautiful.
26. What did the writer and his mom do together on cold winter nights
A. Read some books. B. Played funny games. C. Ate expensive snacks. D. Made delicious popcorn.
27. How did the writer stop the popcorn from burning
A. Shook the pan with it. B. Poured it into a bowl. C. Added some salt to it. D. Poured hot butter into it.
28. What do the underlined words “half-popped kernels” mean in paragraph 2
A. Burnt popcorn pieces. B. Small pieces of snacks. C. More butter on the popcorn. D. Corn that didn’t fully pop.
29. What is the main idea of the story
A. Popcorn is the best winter snack. B. Expensive gifts are unforgettable.
C. Family love lies in simple moments. D. Big houses make families happy.
30. Where is the text probably taken from
A. A science magazine. B. A storybook. C. A science fiction. D. A travel guide.
C
Have you ever visited a bakery (烘焙坊) for a sweet treat And have you ever wondered what happens to the unsold bread Lately, this topic has brought a wide discussion on the internet.
Bread has a short sell-by date, because it is usually kept at room temperature. “Freshly baked bread can only be kept for 24 hours, while packaged (包装好的) bread lasts 3 days.” said a bakery manager in Jiangxi Province. To solve this problem, some bakeries sell the near-expired (临期的) bread at a lower price. But others would rather throw it way. “If we start furthering discounts, we are afraid that many customers will just wait for the discounted bread”, said a bakery owner, “This will hurt our daytime sales.”
Can bakeries reduce the production to cut down on waste A bakery manager explained, “A shelf full of bread catches the eye. This will make people want to buy more bread.” Most bakeries don’t want to cut back on the bread types, either. “People prefer freshness, so we need to keep introducing new types,” said Lu Liang, a bakery owner in Shanxi Province.
What can bakeries do with near-expired bread According to a baking teacher, bakeries can donate it to people in need. And the expired bread can be sent to recycling companies and turned into food for animals.
In addition, some bakeries sell near-expired bread through “blind boxes”. At a bakery in Shanghai, for example, there is a blind box sale from 8 p. m. to 9 p. m. every day. People can get a random type of near-expired bread at a low price. “It's great because it reduces food waste,” said one customer. “And the blind box always gives me some fun!”
31. How does the writer begin the passage
A. By asking questions. B. By stating facts. C. By listing numbers. D. By giving reasons.
32. How long can we keep packaged bread
A 8 hours. B. 24 hours. C. 3 days. D. 9 days.
33. What might happen if a bakery reduces the kinds of bread types
A. There will be less waste in bakeries. B. Customers will lose interest in buying.
C. The bakery will save more money. D. The bakery will draw new customers.
34. How do customers feel with “blind boxes” according to the text
A. Familiar. B. Upset. C. Scared. D. Pleased.
35. What can be a suitable title for the text
A. How to deal with the unsold bread B. Where to buy more fresh bread
C. Why is it hard to sell packaged bread D. What is needed to sell bread well
D
Because of busy lifestyles and work stress, more Chinese people are now turning to AI tools like DeepSeek to talk about their problems. They share feelings with the chatbot and receive warm advice. This practice, known as “AI therapy (疗愈),” is becoming popular online. But can robots really replace human therapists
Around the world, 45 percent of people who needed mental health care in 2024 did not get it because it was too expensive or there weren't enough doctors, according to Huntington Psychological Services. Daniel Lowd, an associate professor at the University of Oregon, believes AI could help fill this gap. “If people can find some support and ideas by talking to ChatGPT or chatbot, then I think that's wonderful,” Lowd told Newsweek. Li Yong, a doctor at the Jiangsu Province Hospital, agreed with Lowd, saying that AI meets people’ s basic needs for emotional support to a point.
However, AI has its limits (限制). Human therapists understand feelings deeply through face-to-face talks and create suitable treatment plans— something robots can't fully copy. Dr. LiuYang, a Beijing-based psychologist (心理学家), notes “An AI might recognize keywords like ‘divorce’ or ‘layoff’, but it cannot find out small emotional shifts in tone or body language”. This point becomes important when dealing with a series of situations, where misunderstandings could be dangerous.
Another problem is safety. AI might act like a therapist without proper training or rules. It cannot match the level of responsibility that human therapists have. Experts believe the key to safe AI therapy is strict government control. For example, Wysa, an AI mental health app, follows strict medical standards in the UK.
Data privacy appears as another large concern (担忧). Users usually share personal details on AI platforms, yet few companies clearly state how this information is stored or used. In 2024, a major Chinese mental health app faced criticism when users found their chats were being analyzed for advertising algorithms (算法).
As AI becomes part of daily life, finding a balance between its benefits and risks is important. While AI offers quick help, human connection remains irreplaceable for serious emotional needs.
36. What makes people turn to “AI therapy”
A. AI therapy is warmer. B. AI tools are free. C. People feel much pressure. D. DeepSeek is popular.
37. What does the underlined word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to
A. Mental health care. B. The AI tool. C. The medical standard. D. The government control.
38. What is the main idea of paragraph 3
A. AI therapy is nicer and cheaper than human therapists.
B. AI robots will soon replace human therapists in hospitals.
C. AI can perfectly copy human therapists’ skills and methods.
D. AI has limits in understanding deep emotions and safety risks.
39. Why does the writer mention the Wysa app
A. To give an example of safe AI under rules. B. To prove robots can deal with emergencies.
C. To show AI is cheaper than human doctors. D. To explain why China needs more therapists.
40. What can we infer from the passage
A. AI therapy will completely replace human therapists.
B. AI is useful for basic support but not for serious cases.
C. AI can create specialized treatment plans for people.
D. Government control is really unnecessary for AI apps.
第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
It can be really embarrassing if someone sees you talking to yourself. But don’t feel bad about it! ____41____
You probably know that thinking is good for the brain. ____42____ Talking to yourself loud is like showing this quiet inner (内在的) speech. It can help us do better in different areas like school, sports and work.
When encouragement comes from oneself, it adds to self-confidence. For example, using phrases like “You can do this!” can make a big difference. ____43____ Researchers put them into two groups: one group that said nothing while playing, and the other that talked to themselves while playing. They found that the self-talkers showed more confidence and played better than those in the silent group.
Talking to yourself, especially in the third person, can help us manage bad feelings. “Talking to yourself in the third person is like giving yourself advice,” said Jason Moser, a professor (教授) from a university. Moser uses himself in an example. ____44____ So when he is feeling nervous or afraid during a flight (航班), he talks to himself. “Well, you know, Jason knows air travel is very safe. And Jason has been on thousands of flights.” This can help us to see things in a different way, especially when we’re feeling sad or angry.
____45____ Researchers tested four different ways to memorize things—reading silently, reading aloud, listening to someone else read and listening to a recording of oneself reading. They found that those who read out loud recalled the information the best. It’s because the information will probably become a long-term memory if it is said out loud.
A. Self-talk also helps to improve memory.
B. Talking to yourself actually has a lot of benefits.
C. Improving memory is quite necessary for learning.
D. Talking to yourself helps to communicate with others.
E. He does not like flying, but he has to fly often for his work.
F. A study invited 72 tennis players to take part in some matches.
G. It helps us do things like making plans and managing our feelings.
第三部分 语言运用 （共三节，满分35分）
第一节 补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Li Ming: Hi, Emma! How was your vacation
Emma: Oh, it was pretty good. I went to the beach.
Li Ming: Wow, sounds great. ____46____
Emma: Not yet. But I heard it’s the most popular movie this year.
Li Ming: Yeah! I watched it twice. Ne Zha is so brave.
Emma: ____47____
Li Ming: Haha! He looks cute with his round face and big eyes.
Emma: What do you think of Ne Zha 2
Li Ming: ____48____ His parents always care for him. Family love is important in China.
Emma: I agree. What’s the coolest part of the movie
Li Ming: ____49____ And his teacher rides a fat flying pig!
Emma: It’s funny. Why not a horse
Li Ming: ____50____ Chinese stories can be fun and teach us how to be strong.
46.
A. Are you having a good time B. Can you buy a ticket
C. Have you seen the film Ne Zha 2 D. Do you finish your homework
47.
A. Why is he called Ne Zha B. How old is Ne Zha
C. Where is Ne Zha from D. What does Ne Zha look like
48.
A. I don’t mind cartoons. B. I was deeply moved.
C. The movie made me sad. D. It sounds wonderful.
49.
A. The magic in the movie is fantastic. B. It’s a movie about the future.
C. All the food tastes really good. D. I hope to be an actor.
50.
A. There isn’t a horse. B. He doesn’t like tools.
C. Maybe to make kids laugh! D. To protect the animals.
第二节 完形填空 （共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
As Lia walked home from school on an October afternoon, she saw symmetry (对称) all around her: in the faces of people and in the cars that went by. All that month, Lia’s class had been studying ____51____ things of symmetry. Now their science teacher, had given them a ____52____ : to find the most beautiful example of symmetry.
What could that be She thought and realized that she could use the microscope (显微镜) to study symmetry. Lia spent hours ____53____ the examination of leaves, little rocks, and drops of water. Although she was amazed by what she saw, ____54____ of it was truly beautiful.
One night, she stayed in the garden until her father ____55____ her inside. “Come in, Lia. It’s going to snow.” Lia was sad. The cold weather would mean ____56____ things to look for. Her task was due in just a few days. Lia began to feel ____57____ . “Come inside!” her father called again. “Be there in a minute, Dad!” Lia called back. Just then, she saw a snowflake (雪花) that had blown onto the ____58____ of her microscope. Lia hurried to look through the microscope, and to her ____59____ ,she saw the most beautiful example of symmetry she could imagined. “A snowflake! Why didn’t I think of that before ”
She _____60_____ the microscope again and was surprised to find that there was nothing! The snowflake had _____61_____ , taking all of its beauty with it.
“No! Wait! Oh, no!” cried Lia. She had to take the snowflake to class, but how It would disappear _____62_____ she could get on the bus! Then she had an idea. Lia ran to the house and took her camera. Within minutes, she put it under the microscope. She carefully _____63_____ another snowflake on the microscope’s stage and took many wonderful pictures. Each snowflake was different, symmetrical, and _____64_____ beautiful!
From then on, the whole class called _____65_____ Snowflake Lia.
51. A. expensive B. different C. famous D. handsome
52. A. task B. hope C. reason D. map
53. A. in B. of C. on D. at
54. A. either B. both C. all D. none
55. A. called B. visited C. watched D. stopped
56. A. most B. fewer C. more D. least
57. A. excited B. satisfied C. worried D. moved
58. A. shape B. roof C. stage D. window
59. A. heart B. surprise C. shame D. interest
60. A. looked through B. put up C. watched out D. went over
61. A. discussed B. described C. discovered D. disappeared
62. A. after B. before C. until D. when
63. A. performed B. knocked C. greeted D. placed
64. A. amazingly B. finally C. normally D. nearly
65. A. it B. them C. her D. she
第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
I always felt different. Since I started wearing thick glasses in fifth grade, some classmates called me “owl eyes”. I hated my glasses and often ____66____ (hide) them in my pocket. During art class, when the teacher asked students ____67____ (draw) self-portraits(自画像), I drew myself without glasses.
One day, the school held a storytelling competition. I loved reading but never dared to speak in public. My best friend Lucy encouraged me, “Your voice is like warm honey! Just be____68____ (you).” The competition day arrived. Standing backstage, my hands shook. Suddenly, the glasses fogged up from nervous sweat. I almost took them off, ____69____ I remembered I couldn’t see the words clearly without them. Taking ____70____ deep breath, I walked onto the stage. As I began reading, something magical happened. The audience disappeared. I became the brave princess in the story and this pair of glasses ____71____ (shine) like a crown (王冠) at that time. When I finished, all the people in the hall cheered for me. After the competition, I asked Lucy why I didn’t look silly____72____ glasses. Lucy smiled, “Your glasses make you, YOU. When you wear them, we see you even become ____73____ (confident).”
Now I keep my glasses clean and bright. I even add cute star stickers on the frames (镜框).When new students ask about my glasses, I say proudly, “They help me see the world ____74____ (clear) and let the world see the real me.”
This experience teaches me that true beauty ____75____ (come) from self-acceptance. Our “imperfections” are actually special gifts that make us unique.
第四部分 写作 （共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用 （共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
76.
A: ______________________
B: No, mine is in my schoolbag.
77.
A: What are you going to do next weekend
B: ______________________.
78.
A: ______________________
B: Because he thinks it’s good exercise.
79.
A: ______________________
B: Yes, I have. I watched it on TV.
80.
A: Hi, Anna. Where did you buy the bag
B: My aunt made it. ______________________.
第二节 作文 （满分25分）
81. 齐鲁大地，好客相迎。春日风光正好，“好客山东·齐鲁1号”旅游列车在本月正式开启，途经山东全省16个市，串联山东具有代表性的文化旅游资源，让国内外游客享受一场不一样的快乐之旅。假如你是“好客山东 (Hospitable Shandong)”文化推广志愿者，请你用英语写一篇短文向列车杂志英文版投稿，推荐这条旅游路线。
内容包括：
1.山东的地理位置或文化特色。
2.推荐一到两个代表性的景点。
3.简述你对“好客山东”的理解并发出邀请。
注意：
(1) 词数100左右。
(2) 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
(3) 不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
提示词：Qilu No.1 tourism train 齐鲁1号旅游列车
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2025年九年级教学诊断测试
英 语 试 题
本试卷共10页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】A
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】A
【4题答案】
【答案】B
【5题答案】
【答案】C
第二节 （共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
【6题答案】
【答案】C
【7题答案】
【答案】B
【8题答案】
【答案】C
【9题答案】
【答案】A
【10题答案】
【答案】C
第三节 （共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
【11~15题答案】
【答案】11. C 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. A
第四节 （共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. A 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. B
第二部分 阅读 （共两节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读理解（共20个小题：每小题2分，满分40分）
A
【21~25题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. A
B
【26~30题答案】
【答案】26 D 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. B
C
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. A 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. A
D
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. C 37. A 38. D 39. A 40. B
第二节 阅读七选五（共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分）
【41~45题答案】
【答案】41. B 42. G 43. F 44. E 45. A
第三部分 语言运用 （共三节，满分35分）
第一节 补全对话（共5个小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
【46~50题答案】
【答案】46. C 47. D 48. B 49. A 50. C
第二节 完形填空 （共15个小题：每小题1分，满分15分）
【51~65题答案】
【答案】51. B 52. A 53. C 54. D 55. A 56. B 57. C 58. C 59. B 60. A 61. D 62. B 63. D 64. A 65. C
第三节 阅读填空（共10个小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分）
【66~75题答案】
【答案】66 hid
67. to draw
68. yourself
69. but 70. a
71. was shining
72. with 73. more confident
74. clearly
es
第四部分 写作 （共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用 （共5个小题：每小题2分，满分10分）
【76~80题答案】
【答案】76. Is this (it) your ruler/Is this (the) ruler yours
77. I am going to plant trees
78. Why does Sam like riding a bike
79. Have you (ever) watched robots dance
80. It was made of old jeans
第二节 作文 （满分25分）
【81题答案】
【答案】例文：
Welcome to Hospitable Shandong!
Located in eastern China along the coast, Shandong is the birthplace of Confucius and home to profound Qilu culture. The newly launched Qilu No.1 tourism train takes you to explore all 16 cities here.
Don’t miss Mount Tai, a UNESCO World Heritage Site known as “the leader of China’s Five Sacred Mountains”. Its sunrise view from the summit is breathtaking. Another highlight is Qufu, where Confucius’ Temple and Mansion showcase ancient Chinese wisdom.
Hospitable Shandong means warm-hearted locals always ready to share cultural treasures with smiles. Hop on this special train and create unforgettable memories with us!
