2025年浙江省杭州市区中考模拟英语试题5(含答案,含听力音频,无原文)

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名称 2025年浙江省杭州市区中考模拟英语试题5(含答案,含听力音频,无原文)
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科目 英语
更新时间 2025-03-31 17:10:29

文档简介

英语参考答案
第一部分
(共5小题,计10分)
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A
(共10小题,计20分)
6. C 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. A
第二部分
(共15小题,计30分)
16. A 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. A 21. B 22. C 23. A 24.B 25. C
26. D 27. B 28. A 29. D 30. A
31. A 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. E
第三部分
(共15小题,计15分)
36. A 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. B 41.D 42. C 43. B 44. A 45.B
46. D 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. C
(共10小题,计10分)
things 52.its 53. be used 54. an 55. to clean
56. heavily 57.Because 58.surprise 59.wore 60. on
第四部分
词汇运用 (共15小题,计15分,每小题1分,大小写错误不计)
widely 62. famous 63. symbols 64. discussed 65. repeats
wonderful 67. service 68. gives 69. fact 70. reaches
necessary 72. seriously 73. something 74. seldom 75. better
写作(20分)
Dear Tony,
I’m very glad to hear from you. In your last email, you asked me about having online classes. It is a pleasure to share my ideas with you.
First of all, you should act like the same at school when you have online classes, such as being on time, getting dressed, preparing for each class carefully and choosing a bright and quiet place for studying and so on. Then, it is very important to listen to the teachers carefully, and you can take some notes when it comes to the key points. Moreover, it is also very helpful for you to ask questions actively during the online classes through the Internet.
As you know, every coin has two sides, so are the online classes. In my opinion, I prefer studying at school. Because I like face-to-face communication. In this way, I can get much more information from others’ expressions on their faces and body languages. Besides, it is one of my daily activities to talk with my classmates on school days. I really enjoy it.
In short, I’ll be pleased if my suggestions will be helpful to you. Hope you’ll come back to school soon. All the best.
Yours,
Li Hua
听力材料:
第一节:听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的 A 、 B 、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
( Text )
M :Are you ready
W : I think so , We ' ve gotten all the food at the supermarket, and we’ve cleaned the house from top to bottom!
M : Well ,I guess we ‘re ready for the party !
( Text 2)
W : Excuse me . I ' d like to find out about trains to Washington .
M : Well , let me see . One just left about five minutes ago , and there’ s another one at ten thirty. You still have half an hour to go .
W : Thank you very much.
M: You are welcome .
( Text 3)
W : Hello , can I help you
M : No , its OK , thanks . I’m just looking .
W : OK . Ask me if you need any help .
( Text 4)
M : Could you give me a ride to the Art Museum on your way to the office
W : I ' m sorry , but I ' m not going to the office today . You might ask Linda . She s leaving around half past eight .
M : OK .
( Text 5)
W : Are you going to New York to Visit a friend or have a vacation
M : Neither . I ' ve got a new job .
W : We’ ll miss you
第二节
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A 、 B 、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你有时间阅读各小
题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。听下面一段对话,回答第6至第8三个小题。现在,你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小
W : Hello , Davy ! How are you and your brother Andy
M : We ‘re both fine here in Sydney . Thanks . My brother is watching TV now . We plan to stay
for 5 days and we will be back on Saturday.
W : Are you having a good holiday ?
M: Yes , we are . The mountains are beautiful and the room is big and clean .
W : What ‘s the weather like there Is it cold
M : No , it isn’t. The sun’s shining and it’s very hot ... so we won’t go to the beach or the grassland .Tomorrow we plan to go to a park .
W : Sounds great .
听下面一段对话,回答第9至第11三个小题。现在,你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。 W : Neil , I've just been reading about a fantastic summer camp in France . It’s a language and at camp and " it ‘s held in the middle of the countryside in the mountains .
M : None of my friends are going to summer camp this year , Mom . To be honest , I don’t want to go anywhere ,either .
W : But Neil , you’ve never been at a summer camp before . And last summer you were so unhappy because you couldn’t go to camp like your friend Jerry !
M : I know , but I ' d have nobody to talk to in France . My French is not very good .
W : But that’ s the point ! You learn the language there ! And you love art . Nothing makes you
excited as much as drawing and painting !
M : How long is it
W : It ‘s only two weeks .
M : Maybe it wouldn’t be such a bad idea to go . Can I look at what you’ve been reading
听下面一段独白,回答第12至第15四个小题。现在,你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。 M : Sam Johnson works for a company in New York .“ The company has just opened a new office in San Francisco and Sam will be the manager of the new office . Sam is very happy about the move , because he thinks San Francisco has better chance than New York . Sam’s wife , Susan hopes to move into the new house . It ‘s about the same size as their present house ,but it ‘s more modern . The garden is bigger , too . The house is out of town , so it’s less convenient for shopping , but Susan doesn’t mind .The Johnson’s three kids are very excited , especially their oldest son , David . He likes watersports very much . He says the west coast is much better for them . The other two kids , Carol and Betty , are happy , too . Because they will learn to play the piano after they get to San Francisco . In fact , moving to San Francisco has been the dream of the Johnson’s family .
评分标准
第1小题至第5小题,每题1分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
第6小题至第15小题,每题1.5分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
第16小题至第30小题,每题2分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
第31小题至第35小题,每题2分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
第36小题至第50小题,每题1分,不选、多选和错选均不给分。
第51小题至第60小题,每题1分,凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。
第61小题至第75小题,每题1分,凡填错或拼写错误均不给分。
书面表达共1题,共计20分。
[评分细则] 本题共1大题,计20分。
(一) 评分原则:
为了培养学生的创新精神和语言实践能力,促进英语写作教学,要严格按6个档次给分。既要敢于打低分,更要敢于打高分。内容和语言共计l5分。在评分时要以作文的整体谋篇和语言水平(看其是否地道)来评判。先确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,微调得分。最后,看其词数和卷面整洁程度,词数太少(不到40个词的)或书写欠整洁的应酌情再扣l~2分,但不倒扣分。
(二) 内容要点:
1. 邮件应包括所有提及问题的回复。
2. 个人提出的建议,表达要清楚。
(三) 各档次的给分范围和要求:
【评分原则】:
各档次的给分范围和要求:
第六档:(18~20分) 包含内容要点;语言基本无误;行文连贯,表达清楚。
第五档:(15~17分) 基本包含要点,遗漏少量次要点;语言有少量错误;行文基本连贯,表达基本清楚。
第四档:(10~14分) 包含部分要点;语言虽有较多错误,尚能达意。
第三档:(6~8分) 要点不明确;语言错误多,影响意思表达。
第二档:(3~5分) 只抄写了提示词;错误百出,不知所云。
第一档:(0~2分) 白卷或文不对题。
(四) 第六档有3分的差距,旨在鼓励写出优秀的作文。请根据考生佳作把握分寸。2025年杭州市区中考模拟测试
英语
考生须知:
1、本试卷满分 120 分,考试时间 100 分钟。
2、答题前,在答题纸上写姓名和准考证号,并在试卷首页的规定位置写上姓名和座位号。
3、必须在答题纸的对应答题位置答题,写在其他地方无效。1 至 50 小题在答题纸上涂黑作答,答题纸答题方式
详见答题纸上的说明。
4、做听力题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有一分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题纸上。
5、考试结束后,试卷和答题纸一并上交。
第 I 卷
第一部分
听力 (共两节,满分 20 分)
第一节(共 5 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的 A 、 B 、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
( )1. What do the speakers talk about
A . Preparations for a party .
B . Food at the supermarket .
C . Changes in the house .
( )2. What time is it now
A .9:55. B .10:00. C .10:30.
( )3. Where does the conversation most probably take place
A . In a museum . B . In a restaurant . C . In a shop .
( )4. How will the man probably go to the Art Museum
A . He will drive there . B . Linda will take him there
C . The woman will take him there .
( )5. Why is the man going to New York
A . To work there . B . visit a friend . C . To have a vacation .
第二节(共10小题,每小题1.5分,满分15分)
听下面3段对话或独白, 每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A 、 B 、 C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你有时间阅读各小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第8三个小题。
( )6. When will the man and his brother be back
A . On Thursday . B . On Friday . C . On Saturday .
( )7. How does the man feel about his holiday?
A . Disappointed. B . Pleased . C . Worried .
( )8. What is the weather like at the man’s place
A . Sunny . B . Snowy. C . Rainy ,
听下面一段对话,回答第9至第11三个小题。
( )9. Where is the camp going to be held
A . In the mountains . B . In a church C . In a hotel .
( )10. Why doesn’t Neil want to go to the camp
A . He thinks the camp is too long .
B . He went to the camp last year .
C . He can’ t speak French well .
( )11. What does the boy like doing
A . Singing . B . Making friends . C Drawing and painting .
听下面一段独白,回答第12至第15四个小题。
( )12. Where will Sam work as a manager
A . In New York. B . In San Francisco. C . In Chicago .
( )13. Why does Susan hope to move to the new house
A . It is bigger than the present one .
B . It is more convenient for shopping .
C . It is more modern and has a bigger garden .
( )14. How many people are there in Sam’s home
A . Four . B . Five . C . Six .
( )15. What are Carol and Betty interested in
A . Playing the piano . B . Playing watersports. C . Playing football.
阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A B C和D)中选出最佳选项
A
Catherine Cornwell Catherine Cornwell 1000 W. Spring Garden St Greensboro. N. C. 27412-5001 Phone: (555)555-5555 Career Objective(求职目标) To teach grades 4~12 in public school about music. Other interests include jazz education, marching band, piano, violin and community music programmes. Educational Background 2017 B. M. E. University of North Carolina at Greensboro 2013 (summer) University of Arizona—Tucson, Arizona 2012 Diploma(文凭),Central High School—Tucson, Arizona Teaching Experience 2017 East Davidson High School: Student Teacher (Duty: Teaching classical music theory) 2015—2016 Pearson Music Company: Private Music Instructor (Maintaining a highly successful private studio of 8~15 students aged 10~17) Related Work Experience 2015—2017 University of North Carolina at Greensboro: Summer Music Camp (Rehearsal排练 instructor)
( )16. When did Catherine study in a high school
In 2012. B. In 2013. C. In 2014. D. In 2015.
( )17. Catherine is probably NOT good at .
jazz B. the piano C. R&B D. the music theory
( )18. The material probably comes from .
a school composition B. a textbook
a guidebook D. a job website
B
What are good friends This is not an easy question. But Mark Smith and Jarryd Haines, for sure, have always been good friends. The two boys from Sydney have known each other for most of their lives. Both of them enjoy playing Australian football.
A few years ago, when Mark was nine, he had brain cancer. The disease made the boy lose his eyesight, part of his hearing and his ability to play his favourite sport. However, throughout the years, Jarryd remained his closest friend. They still share their love of Australian football. And they still enjoy talking about the Sydney Swans, their favourite team.
Two weeks ago, I took my seat at Sydney Cricket Ground to watch the Swans. The old stadium体育场 was full of fans. Shortly into the second quarter, I heard a great commentary from a boy. Play by play, Jaryd was bringing the game to life. I turned and saw him. Mark was sitting next to him.
Although he cannot see anymore, Mark still loves the Swans very much. Usually,he goes to the stadium and listens to the commentary on the radio. However, in the second quarter of that match, the radio system broke down. That was when his friend Jarryd stepped in.
I hardly looked at the Swans and Buddy, the team's star player. Instead, I was focusing on Jarryd and Mark. “What's happening now, mate ” Mark asked. “Don't worry, Mark, ”Jarryd replied. “Okay. Buddy's got it. Will he go for it He's going for it! It's his tenth goal! Buddy is on fire!" Mark listened carefully. He was lost in the magic of Australian football brought to life by his friend.
Sports can be competitive. However,they can also allow us to share wonderful moments with others, who may be close friends or perfect strangers. Here, Jarryd and Mark have moved me,and perhaps some other spectators, with their precious(珍贵的) friendship.
( )19. The brain cancer made Mark .
completely unable to see
completely unable to walk on his own
completely unable to hear
lose interest in playing Australian football
( )20. The underlined word "commentary" means “ ”.
spoken explanation B. oral translation
C. spoken invitation D. text message
( )21. We can learn from Paragraph 5 that .
Buddy was feeling very hot
Buddy played perfectly in the game
Buddy was running very fast
Buddy started a big fire in the stadium
( )22. We can conclude from the article that .
Jarryd got to know Mark in a hospital
the commentary on the radio was exciting
Mark and Jarryd are good friends indeed
all the spectators enjoyed the commentary
C
Jason and his father were going to the grocery store by car to pick up some apples. It had been an unusual day. The sky was dark but there were few clouds. As they drove up the street, there started to be a rumbling (隆隆的) sound heard across the ground.
Jason’s father immediately realized that a tornado (龙卷风) was coming. He stopped the car and told Jason to get out immediately. Jason and his father got out of the car and made their way to the closest building. By this time the wind was blowing harder, and it was hard to see or hear. Debris(碎片) was falling all over the place. Jason couldn’t see his dad anymore. He also realized that he wasn’t getting to the building fast enough. He was afraid he would be picked up by the wind and thrown into the air.
As he made his way towards the building, he noticed a field to his right. He could see an irrigation ditch(灌溉渠). In a panic, he scrambled (爬) to the ditch and lay flat on the ground. More debris and objects flew overhead. His heart was beating hard, and he was nervous. He had never been in a tornado before.
After a while, the winds died down and the loud roaring sound was gone. Jason slowly lifted his head and nervously looked around. What he saw was a great mess. Jason could hardly recognize the buildings in front of him because of all the damage.
He stood up and with shaky legs walked to the building. Once there, he pushed the door open and went inside. It was a public building owned by the city. It was empty, but Jason could hear noises further inside. He walked into the large room and saw his dad. He ran across the room and gave him a big hug.
“Jason! How are you I’ve been worried sick about you!” said his father. “I couldn’t find you anywhere!”
Jason breathed a sigh of a relief(松了一口气)and sat down. He did have a story to tell!
( )23. From Paragraph 1, we can get the ________ of the story.
Background B. development C. climax (most exciting part)
D. ending
( ) 24. Which of the following is the right order according to the passage
① Jason nervously looked around from the irrigation ditch.
② Jason ran across the room and gave his father a big hug.
③ Jason got out of the car.
④ Jason noticed a field to his right.
A. ②①③④ B. ③④①② C. ④①②③ D. ③①②④
( )25. When couldn’t Jason see his dad
A. As soon as they got out of the car,
B. When the sky was dark but there were few clouds.,
C. When Debris was falling over the place,
D. When he ran across the room,
( )26. The story tells us that when we are in danger, ________.
A. we should wait patiently until help comes
B. we should work hard to make our dreams come true
C. we should be brave enough to change nature
D. we should be quick-thinking and believe in ourselves
D
Eat a rainbow of colors often, as dietitians(营养学家)are fond of saying—and with good reason. Eating all kinds of colorful food provides vitamins and minerals(矿物质)that can't be replaced with supplements to keep your body healthy.
Whole Foods, a food company in the United States, examined buyers’ behaviour globally across 465 stores. According to experts from the company, our plates look very colorful this year, with purple foods particularly in fashion. This is indeed the case. Walk through any supermarket and you will find richly-colored purple foods are showing up on the shelves: purple cauliflower, black rice, blueberries, blackberries, purple sweet potatoes and purple cabbage.
The increasing popularity of purple food in the market is unsurprising, showing how attentive people are becoming to health in recent years. People have long known that the darker the color of the food is, the higher antioxidants(抗氧化剂)and nutrients it will have. In fact,people were encouraged to eat more purple foods after a study found that those who ate purple fruits and vegetables regularly often had low cholesterol(胆固醇)and a reduced risk of getting high blood pressure.
Research shows that these foods get their purple color from anthocyanins.(花青素)) They have been linked to antioxidants and anti-aging special qualities in the body. Purple foods help improve bone health, and have also been shown to lower the risk of some cancers and improve memory. Take purple sweet potatoes for example. While the standard sweet potato is packed with health benefits of its own,the purple sweet potato is even better for us. These brightly-colored sweet potatoes share the same taste as their orange siblings,but are also filled with anthocyanins. Therefore, purple sweet potatoes help with digestion(消化)and have anti-inflammatory(抗炎的)special qualities.
Nutrition adviser Matthew Plowman agrees that purple foods are full of natural health benefits. “The benefits of antioxidants have long been discussed. They are also known for fighting disease, keeping you looking younger and are good for your heart—so,why wouldn't you eat them ”
( )27. All of the following have made the purple foods popular in recent years EXCEPT .
the darker the color of the food is, the healthier it is
more and more purple foods are available nowadays
people are getting to realize that being healthy is important
a study found that those who often ate purple foods were healthier
( )28. Which foods get their purple color from anthocyanins
Black rice B. milk C. milk D. sausage
( )29. The benefits of eating purple fruits and vegetables include .
treating cancers ②improving memory
③ helping people look young ④helping with digestion
⑤ reducing the risk of getting high blood pressure
A. ①②③④ B. ①②④⑤ C. ①③④⑤ D. ②③④⑤
( )30. What's the best title for the passage
Eating purple foods for your health
Getting anthocyanins from purple foods
Purple foods, a new kind of medicine
Nutrients,something body needs
第二节(共 5 小题,每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
下面是一幅关于提高说话技巧的结构图。请你根据结构图提供的信息, 将选项中的小标题(A-F)与相应的段落匹配。选项中有一项为多余选项。
How to Give a Good Talk Before the talk Get a good idea Choose a topic carefully. You can talk more easily about something you like and know about.
___31___ It’s better to say less. Choose a few good ideas and think about how to communicate them clearly to your audience(听众;观众).
___32___ BEGINNING: Think of an interesting way to begin. MDDLE: Think carefully about this part of your talk. END: People often remember the ending best, so plan this part of your talk first.
___33___ Write your main ideas on a card. It helps you remember your talk while practicing. When you can do it easily without notes, then you’re ready.
When you do the talk ___34___ Talk more slowly than you usually do but speak more loudly than usual. Make sure that everyone can hear you easily.
___35___ Talk to your audience, not to your hands or to the floor. Look around the room at people’s faces and check they’re listening.
A. Don’t try to say too much B. Don’t speak too fast
C. Make notes and prepare D. Plan your talk
E. Look up not down F. Finish on time
第三部分
英语知识运用(共两节, 满分 25 分)
第一节: 完形填空(共 15 小题,每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分) 通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后在各
题所给的四个选项(A、B、C 和 D)中选出一个最佳选项。
In a far-away place, there was a village. The village was 36 in potatoes than anywhere else in the country. At the 37 of every growing season, 38 potatoes were dug out of the ground, and readied for market. In each home, men and women would 39 divide the potatoes into three groups, large, medium and small.
One year, there was a young man who received his share of the potatoes. As the other villagers 40 , he walked around the village laughing and talking. 41 villagers thought he was lazy, and they worried that this man would never get 42 potatoes ready in time. When it was time for the
villagers 43 to market, they were greatly surprised to find that the man’s potatoes 44 perfectly into three groups.
After 45 the man how he did it, they understood he was not lazy, but very clever. He had put all his 46 in a cart and pulled it along the village’s rough dirt road. As the cart moved up and down over the road, the potatoes moved 47 . The small potatoes moved to the bottom, the larger potatoes rose to the top and the medium potatoes rested 48 the middle.
Life 49 like this too. The rough roads we travel along can also 50 us.[
36. A. richer B. rich C. richest D. more rich
37. A. end B. ending C. begin D. beginning
38. A. thousands of B. thousands with C. thousand of D. thousand with
39. A. more busily B. busy C. busily D. busier
40. A. work B. were working C. was working D. works
41. A. A B. An C. / D. The
42. A. he B. him C. his D. himself
43. A. to take B. to go C. to come D. to bring
44. A. were divided B. are divided C. are dividing D. divided
45. A. speaking B. asking C. saying D. telling
46. A. tomatoes B. photos C. vegetables D. potatoes
47. A. either B. also C. too D. neither
48. A. in B. on C. with D. by
49. A. has B.is C. were D. are
50. A. teach B. taught C. help D. helped
第Ⅱ卷
第三部分英语知识运用(共两节,满分25分)
第二节(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。将答案填写在答题纸的相应位置。
In 1492, Columbus, a well-known Italian voyager ,discovered the New World-America. He brought a lot of __51__ (thing) to Europe from South America. Rubber was one of them,but people didn’t know __52__(it) use at that time. In 1770, people found that the rubber could __53__(use)as erasers.
Macintosh was a worker in _54__ eraser factory in Scotland . One day he spilled some rubber liquid over his coat carelessly when making erasers. He was too busy __55__( clean )it and went back home wearing the dirty coat .On the way home ,it rained __56__ (heavy) .__57__ Macintosh had no umbrella , he had to run home quickly . When he got home , he took off the wet coat . To his __58__ (surprise) , the area of the coat with rubber wasn’t wet . The next day he brushed the rubber liquid all over his coat . He __59__ ( wear ) the “rubber coat” __60__ rainy days and found it could keep off the rain . The rubber raincoat was created in this way .
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分 35 分)
第一节 词汇运用 (共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
A. 用方框中所给词(组)的适当形式填空,每个词(组)仅用一次。
“Rock, paper and scissors” is a typical game which gave us valuable memory in our childhood. It is said that people played it 61._______ 2,000 years ago in China. Today, people play it around the world. In Indonesia, it's 62.________ as “ant, person, elephant”. People in Singapore play “bird, stone, water”. People use different hand
63._________ in different countries. But the instruction of the game is the same all over the world.
Many people think “rock, paper, scissors” is all about luck. But the game is not exactly accidental. A 2014 study in China 64.__________ two key patterns in the way people played. The fact is that the winner always 65. _____ his winning hand gestures.
So what’s the best way to win this game Expert players not only think about their next move, but also what their players’ next move might be.
B. 阅读下面短文,然后根据括号里所给汉语意思写出单词的正确、完全形式(每空一词)。
I'm Wenwen. I think everyone has a dream job. My mother is a nurse. It's a 66._________(绝妙)job for her. She always provides good 67.________(服务)to patients. When she works at night, we have dinner together at 6:30 p.m., and then she goes to work. Her work starts at 10:00. She 68.______(给)a check on each patient every three hours. She finishes work at 8:00 the next day and arrives home by 9:00. Her bedtime is around 10:30. In 69____(事实), she is busy with her work, but when she is free, we go to the park and have a good time together. She loves her job and she often 70.________(伸手)out a hand for the patients. She thinks it is 71.__________(必需的)to provide care and service for patients in the hospital.
I'm Colin. My father takes his work 72._________(严肃). My father is a bin worker. I usually don't see him in the morning because he gets up pretty early at 4:00 a.m. He has 73. ________(某物) to eat and then goes to work. By 5:00, he is at his first house to empty rubbish bins into a lorry. He 74. _______(难得) has time to share breakfast with me. Work ends around 3:00 p.m. Then he comes to school to pick me up at 4:30. We talk a lot on the way home and we both encourage each other to work hard for a 75._______(更好的)life. Dinner is at 6:00. After dinner, he watches TV for a while. Then he goes to bed early at 8:30. We try to keep quiet at night so he sleeps well.
第二节:书面表达(共1小题,满分20分)
假如你是初三学生李华, 最近收到英国笔友Tony的邮件,请你根据邮件内容给予回复。
From: Tony
Dear Li Hua, How is everything going I’m so glad to know that you are back to school. Sadly, we are still having classes through Internet. Could you give me some suggestions And which do you prefer, having online classes or studying at school Why Please tell me. I’m looking forward to your reply.
作文要求∶
邮件中必须包含所提问题的回复,可适当发挥;
在作文中不得出现真实的姓名、班级和校名。
3. 语句连贯, 词数80~100。
Dear Tony,
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_____________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
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