2025学年第二学期3月份阶段性测试
九年级英语试卷
分值: 120分 时间:100分钟 命题人:
考生须知：
1、试卷分为试题卷(共8页)和答题卷(共2页)；满分为120分；考试时间为100分钟。
2、答案必须写在答题纸相应的位置上，写在试题卷、草稿纸上均无效。
第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分）
一、听力理解（共20分）
第一节（共 5 小题，每小题 1 分，共5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。对话仅读一遍。
( ) 1. Whose dictionary is it
A. Lisa’s. B. Tom’s. C. Mike’s.
( ) 2. How does Lucy usually go to school
A. By car. B. By bus. C. By bike.
( ) 3. What is Bella going to do
A. To study for a test. B. To eat ice-cream. C. To play tennis.
( ) 4. Where may Mike live now
A. Near a park. B. Near the subway station.
C. Next to the train station.
( ) 5. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a police station. B. In a bus station. C. In a library.
第二节（共 5 小题，每小题 1.5 分，共7.5 分）
听长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答第6-7小题。
( ) 6. When did Susan start learning to play the violin
A. At 6 years old. B. At 8 years old. C. At 14 years old.
( ) 7. Who wants to buy a violin
A. Bob. B. Susan. C. Tom.
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8-10小题。
( ) 8. How many people went to Hangzhou
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
( ) 9. Why didn’t Tom go to Hangzhou with Jack
A. Because he had to finish his book report.
B. Because he had to look after his mother.
C. Because he had to prepare for his exam.
( ) 10. What color is the dress that Linda bought
A. Green. B. Red. C. Blue.
第三节（共 5 小题，每小题 1.5分，共7.5 分）
听独白，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。独白读两遍。
( ) 11. What program will follow this radio talk
A. A music program. B. A medical report. C. A talk show.
( ) 12. Who might the listeners be
A. Visitors. B. Doctors. C. Patients.
( ) 13. When do the listeners have tea
A. At 2:30 p.m. B. At 3:30 p.m. C. At 7:00 p.m.
( ) 14. Where is the dining room
A. On the 1st floor. B. On the 2nd floor. C. On the 3rd floor.
( ) 15. What is the purpose of this radio talk
A. To enjoy beautiful music.
B. To explain the hospital rules.
C. To introduce a healthy lifestyle.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 阅读理解 (本题有15小题，每小题2分，共30分)
A
Playing with apps on smart phones is very common among young people. Let’s try some special apps and enjoy them.
Butter Camera In this app, there are many filters（滤镜）that can make your photos more beautiful. But the coolest thing is that it can help you add pretty and artistic words. The words can be anything you like. They can be your own words, famous sayings or even a poem. You can make a photo diary that shows your feelings.
TaoMix 2（自然之声） Sometimes, you may feel tired after a busy school day. Why not try this app This is a music app. But the sounds in it all come from nature. There are over 100 sounds of nature, such as bird calls, wind and rain. You can hear all these sounds. The best thing is that you can create your own music by recording other sounds you like, for example, the sound of your own laughter.
Beaker（烧杯） Is chemistry your favorite subject With this app, your smart phone turns into a beaker. You “pour” chemical materials by touching the upper right-hand corner of your smart phone.You “light” a match by swiping（刷）the screen quickly. You can shake the “beaker” to make chemical reactions （反应）go faster. There are 300 chemical reactions in all.
( ) 16. Butter Camera can do the following EXCEPT ▲ .
A. add artistic words B. keep a photo diary
C. make photos nicer D. record sounds of nature
( ) 17. According to the passage, we can ▲ .
A. relax ourselves with the app of TaoMix 2
B. watch many movies about nature in Taomix 2
C. “pour” chemical materials by swiping the screen
D. “light” a match to make chemical reactions faster
( ) 18. The passage might be from the part of ▲ in a magazine.
A. health B. science C. sports D. culture
B
Sweden produces about 4.4 million tons of waste a year, but only 1% makes its way to the landfill (垃圾填埋厂). When it comes to waste management, Sweden is ahead of its time. How has Sweden done it
In Sweden, everyone works hard to make the environment free of waste. People are taught to recycle from a very young age. They are asked to return cans and bottles to supermarkets. The government places recycling stations no more than 300 meters from homes, schools and offices. These all help waste management in Sweden much easier and more practical.
The country also rewards those who recycle. In 1984, Sweden started the panta system. It encourages people to recycle bottles in exchange for money. The process is very simple. People put their rubbish into a machine. Each piece has a small barcode (条形码)that tells the machine how much it is worth. People can collect a voucher (代金券) for that amount by pressing a green button, or they can donate (捐赠) the money to charity by pressing a yellow button. In 2021, the Swedish recycled 1.8 billion bottles and cans by using panta system.
Sweden recycles nearly 50% of what it throws away. But what about the other half Altogether Sweden has 34 waste-to-energy plants that provide 1,445,000 homes with heat and 780, 000 homes with electricity. Changing waste into energy has reduced Sweden’s CO2 emissions by 2.2 million tons a year. In 2016, Sweden had started running out of trash, so it began importing waste from other countries. It not only keeps the plants working, but also lets Sweden make much money. That is what makes Sweden different from the other countries.
Sweden’s waste management has made a great success. But still, the country is wondering how it can do more. They hope to see a day when landfills are a thing of the past.
( ) 19. The word “These” in Para. 2 refers to the ________ that help to recycle the waste.
A. plans B. meanings C. actions D. reasons
( ) 20. In the panta system, people can ________.
A. find recycling stations easily B. sell bottles to supermarkets
C. change the waste into energy D. get money from machines in return
( ) 21. How did the writer explain another kind of recycling in Para. 4
A. By showing opinions.
B. By listing numbers and facts.
C. By comparing.
D. By giving examples.
( ) 22. The purpose of this passage is to ________.
A. celebrate the success of waste recycling in Sweden
B. advise other countries to ask for help from Sweden
C. introduce the Swedish method of waste management
D. show Sweden makes much money by recycling waste
C
When Li Juan was15 years old, she lost her left leg in a traffic accident. “Besides feeling sad and lying in bed all day, I did not know how to live at that time,” she said.
Back then, she refused to be fixed with a prosthetic limb(假肢). In the early1990s, prosthetic technology was not as advanced as it is today, and the discomfort it caused led her to refuse it.
It was the unexpected death of Li’s mother that made her pull herself up after lying in bed for a year and play the role of a mother for her younger brother and sister. “I had to stand up and walk out of sadness,” she said. Therefore, she accepted a prosthetic leg.
To learn how to use a prosthesis as a part of the body, Li needed to undergo many rehabilitation (康复) training. Her clothes were often wet with sweat (汗水) by the end of each training period. During the process, she often fell down from time to time. After about a month of rehabilitation, she was finally able to stand up and walk on her own with her prosthesis.
As her prosthetic leg was being fitted, she knew there were a large number of disabled people who need prosthetic limbs, but prosthetic technology in China still fell behind those of more developed countries.
________In 2003, she set up her own company, providing prosthesis services and rehabilitation training. Her products played a huge role in helping disabled people.
A friend of Li’s said Li's strength has touched him. “She doesn’t treat herself as a disabled person,” he said. “She lives a more spirited life than people without disabilities.”
( ) 23. Why was Li Juan so sad and lying in bed all day when she was 15
A. Because her mother died.
B. Because she had to use a prosthetic limb.
C. Because she lost her left leg in a traffic accident.
D. Because using a prosthetic limb made her uncomfortable.
( ) 24. What does the underlined word “undergo” in Paragraph 4 probably means “________”.
A. study B. experience C. refuse D. review
( ) 25. Which of the following can be put in “________”
A. Li tested each prosthetic leg on herself first.
B. Li shared her experience with disabled people.
C. It was then that she took up rehabilitation training.
D. It was then that she formed a plan to help others like her.
( ) 26. Which of the following can best describe Li Juan
Polite and quiet B. Outgoing and clever
C. Strong-minded and kind D. Honest and clever
D
Green invaders（入侵者）are taking over America. Not invaders from space, but plants! You might not think of plants as dangerous, but in this case they are becoming a great threat（威胁）to the nature’s food chain. The invaders are plants brought here by people from other countries to make gardens and yards look pretty. Now there are so many of those plants, they are crowding out the native（当地的）plants that have lived here since before human settlers arrived.
And that’s a problem, says Dr Doug Tallamy, an insect expert at the University of Delaware. He explains that almost all the plant-eating insects in the United States eat only certain plants. Monarch butterfly caterpillars（幼虫）, for example, eat milkweed（乳草）. If people cut down milkweed and replace it with another plant, the butterflies will have no food to be alive. But the trouble doesn’t stop there. When insects can’t get the right plants to eat and they die off, then the birds don’t have enough bugs for their meals. Tallamy points out that almost all migrating（迁徙）birds depend on insects to feed their young.
“We can’t let the plants and animals around us disappear,” says Tallamy. “The way to protect them is to give them food to eat. But when we plant non-native plants, we are breaking the food chain, because then we don’t have the insects the birds need to live.” That’s bad for the earth. We need different kinds of living things to keep the planet healthy and beautiful.
The good news is: garden centers sell native plants. “Just google（搜索） ‘native plants’ and your location, and you can find out which plants really belong where you live,” says Tallamy.
( ) 27. How did green invaders arrive in America
A. They fell down from space.
B. They were carried to America by birds.
C. They had grown here before human settlers arrived.
D. They were brought in by people from foreign countries.
( ) 28. According to Dr Tallamy, which of the followings about the insects in the US is right
A. Almost all the plant-eating insects eat different kinds of plants.
B. Monarch butterfly caterpillars can’t live without milkweed.
C. If insects can’t eat the right plants, they will find other ones.
D. The insects’ death will not influence the migrating birds.
( ) 29. We can know whether a plant is native by .
A. googling it on the Internet B. asking Dr Doug Tallamy
C. looking it up in the dictionary D. searching for it in the garden
( ) 30. What is the best title of the passage
A. Green Invaders—Threat to Local Nature
B. Green Invaders—Local Living Things
C. Green Invaders—Dangerous Food Chain
D. Green Invaders—Environmental Protectors
第二节 任务型阅读（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
阅读下面短文, 从方框中所给的A-E五个选项中选择正确的选项（其中一项是多余选项）, 将其序号填入71-74题, 并回答第75题。
Why not find a new friend in 2025-yourself ! Being treated with kindness, respect and love are things you would expect from a good friendship and you shouldn’t have to go far to find them.______31_____
What does self-love mean ____32_____Imagine your best friend is worried or upset, then think about how you’d support them and try to make them feel better. Speaking to yourself with kindness. Be as kind to yourself as you are to others.
______33_____Because learning to love who you are improves your self-respect. The mental health charity Young Minds says this makes you believe in yourself and feel that you deserve(值得)having good things-such as kind friends and fun experiences.
______34_____Start to be kind,especially if you make a mistake. Instead of being angry, tell yourself that everyone gets things wrong sometimes. Try not to compare yourself to others. Focus on yourself instead. Writing down your strengths and asking your family and friends for their thoughts. This will help you see the positives in your life.
A. Why does it matter B. How to better yourself C. Start by being your own friend, which is called self-love. D. Self-love can help schoolwork. E. It means taking really good care of your body and mind.
35. How will you better yourself in 2025 （answer with no more than 15 words）
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节 完形填空（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Getting into Harvard Law School is not easy for anyone, but Rehan, who comes from a single-parent family, truly 36 it.
Rehan’s mother 37 them when he was 8 years old. His father had to do many 38 to support Rehan and his brother. Rehan’s high school grades were so poor that he was refused by every 39 . So he began to work at Bates Trucking and Trash（垃圾）. His workmates said he was 40 and encouraged him to go back to school. The company owner Brent Bates helped make him a 41 of Bowie State University. Rehan worked hard in the state university. 42 the good grades he got, he was able to go to the University of Maryland.
Then Rehan’s father had a(an) 43 during his first year at Maryland. As a result, Rehan had to 44 to work at Bates to pay for the medical bills. Instead of dropping out of school, he 45 at 4 a.m. each day to finish his work before class.
Rehan graduated in 2018 and hoped to go to Harvard Law School, but that school came with a high schooling fee（费用). 46 , Carmie McCook, a communications coach, started a GoFundMe page to help Rehan with the 47 . The goal was $75,000, but it grew to over $185,000 in the end.
Rehan was finally 48 by Harvard. What makes his achievement even more amazing is his 49 journey to this moment and the kind people who 50 him all the way.
36. A. knew B. liked C. made D. believed
37. A. beat B. raised C. cheated D. left
38. A. jobs B. sports C. exercises D. programs
39. A. company B. organization C. hospital D. college
40. A. polite B. helpful C. clever D. honest
41. A. student B. cleaner C. teacher D. leader
42. A. Instead of B. Because of C. Thanks for D. As for
43. A. business B. fight C. enemy D. illness
44. A. prefer B. return C. refuse D. volunteer
45. A. got up B. showed up C. turned up D. took up
46. A. Suddenly B. Clearly C. Generally D. Luckily
47. A. meal B. cost C. research D. competition
48. A. accepted B. praised C. noticed D. touched
49. A. safe B. difficult C. main D. daily
50. A. saved B. surprised C. helped D. honored
第二节 词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
A. 根据短文内容，从方框中选择适当的单词或短语填空，使短文内容完整正确。
A. 用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空, 每词限用一次。
keep one’s cool afford care memorize believable
Dear teachers,
Thanks for coming today to attend the graduation ceremony. How fast the time went by! Looking back at the past three years, there are many sweet____51____. We are trying to _____52____, but it’s difficult not to cry. It’s really ____53_____ that we have made so much progress! We will never forget you—our ___54___teachers. You make us realize that we can’t __55____to waste any minute in life. No matter what we did, you were always there encouraging and guiding us.
Thank you from the bottom of our hearts.
Yours sincerely, Students
B. 根据短文内容和所给中文提示，用单词的正确形式完成以下短文，每空一词。
Mark had been a hard-working student. But in high school he made friends with some bad guys and changed. None of them meet the ____56_____（标准）of a good student. Finally he failed in one subject. Inside he sensed a strong sadness but never talked to anyone.
One day, the headmaster invited him to a(n) __57____(出乎意料的) place—— the fireplace. Then the headmaster took out a piece of wood and put it in the soil. It kept heating for a while and then went out. Mark looked at the smoke ____58____(在...上面）the wood in disbelief.The headmaster said patiently, “Son, staying out for some time didn’t make it ____59____(失去生命的）. Let me put it in the fireplace again.” Of course, it ____60____（燃烧） again.
“Mark, what is your ____61____(发现） ”, the headmaster continued, “You are just like that piece of wood. Earlier you were an excellent student. Then you fell into bad company. However, the wood is ____62____( 活着；有生气的） again after being put back in the fire. In the same way, you can become one with great achievements .”
Hearing that, Mark regretted what he had done and gradually____63____(克服）his disadvantages. Two years later, when students graduated and went on their ____64____(分离的）ways, he was admitted to Princeton University and became the ____65_____(负责人）of an international company.
第三节 语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号内所给单词的正确形式。
More and more people want to be away from city life by taking up farming. That’s ____66____shared farms（共享农场）have become popular in recent years. The All-Happy City, a shared farm in Shanghai, is a perfect place.
___67___ shared farm is quite big. It ___68___(build) by Chen Yougui in October,2023. People can plant carrots, lettuces and other vegetables. Some of ____69____(they) even raise chickens and ducks. _____70_____they aren’t at the farm during the weekdays, they can pay the workers for their service of taking care of their land. Chen runs the farm ____71_____the help of modern technology. There is a system(系统)which allows the members to see their vegetables through their mobile phones. Besides, each animal comes with its own QR code(二维码)，so the chickens and ducks raised by ____72____(customer) won’t be lost. So far, this farm ____73____(receive) about 200 members.
Chen says that many of his members are parents. They want____74____( teach) their kids how to farm, so their kids will learn more about science and nature than other children. They can usually get close to nature and enjoy life in peace. Now it’s one of ____75____(famous) places around the city.
第四部分 书面表达（共1小题，满分20分）
76. 你是志愿者队长李华，上周六学校组织主题 (theme) 为“绿色家园，从我做起”的志愿者服务活动，请你根据以下内容写一封电子邮件，向笔友Tom介绍上周六的志愿者活动情况。
Theme A Greener Home – Starting from Me and Now
Time 8 a.m. – 11：30 a.m.
Place City Center
Activities pick up litter, collect used bottles, ...
Purpose encourage everyone to take action, ...
注意：
可在内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息；
词数80-100（邮件的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）；
不得透露学校、姓名等任何个人信息。
Dear Tom,
I would like to tell you something about the voluntary week last Saturday. _______________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua2025学年第二学期3月份阶段性测试
九年级英语参考答案及听力材料
第一部分 听力（本题有15小题，第1-5题每小题1分，6-15题每小题1.5分，共计20分）
1-5 BBCBC 6-10 AABAC 11-15ACBCB
第二部分 阅读理解
第一节 阅读理解(本题有15题，每小题2分，共计30分)
16-18 DAB 19-22 CDBC 23-26 CBDC 27-30 DBAA
第二节 任务型阅读（本题有5个小题，每小题1分，共计5分）
31-34 CEAB
35. I will keep a diary everyday to improve myself.
（说明：基本合理并且表达的语句本身没有错误即可给分）
语言运用
第一节 完形填空(本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分)
36-40 CDADC 41-45 ABDBA 46-50 DBABC
第二节 词汇运用 (本题有15小题；每小题1分，共计15分）
51. memories 5 2. keep our cool 53. unbelievable 54. caring 55. afford
56. standard(s) 57. unexpected 58. above 59. dead 60. burned
61. discovery 62. alive 63. overcame 64. separate 65. president
第三节 语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分）
66. why 67. The 68. was built 69. them 70. Although
71. with 72. customers 73. has received 74. to teach 75.the most famous
第四部分 书面表达（本题1小题；共计20分）
书面表达评分标准
采分点 满分 可给分值
1.内容充实,覆盖要点 (内容、要点) 7 6-7描述所有信息，内容合理、丰富
3-5描述了大部分信息，内容比较合理 1-2描述了小部分信息，内容不合理 0 没有作答或描述内容与主题无关
2.用词适切,语法正确,句型多样
(词汇、语法、句型) 7 6-7用词贴切，句型变化多样且有效，完全或基本没有语言错误 3-5 用词基本贴切，句型较为单一，有少量语言错误但不影响理解 1-2有较多语言错误，一定程度上影响理解，有大量语言错误，影响了理解
3.结构紧凑,意义连贯 (语意、连词、指代)
4 3-4行文连贯，连接词使用恰当,指代清晰 1-2行文不够连贯，连接词使用不够恰当，指代不够清 晰，没有连贯意
4.书写规范,词数适宜可辨认 （标点符号、大小写、词数) 2 2大小写、标点正确，词数达标，书写规范整洁 1大小写、标点有部分错误，词数达标，书写尚可辨认 0大小写、标点错误较多，语言运用不规范，词数严重不足,书写难以辨认
听力材料
第一节：听小对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。对话仅读一遍。
1. M: Can I use this dictionary, Lisa
W: Oh, Mike, ask Tom. It’s his.
2. M: Will anyone drive you to school tomorrow, Lucy
W: I don’t know. I might have to wait at the bus stop as I usually do.
3. M: Would you like some ice cream, Bella
W: No, thanks. I’m going out to play tennis with Laura.
4. M: Could you tell me where Mike lives I want to see him.
W: I only know that he once lived in an apartment near a park. But I hear that he moved to a new place near the subway station.
5. M: I wonder if I can borrow this book.
W: Sure. Just show me your ID card and write down your name here.
第二节：听长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6—7小题。
M: Hey, Susan. When did you start learning the violin
W: I started learning the violin when I was six. It’s eight years ago.
M: You’re really great! Do you know where to buy a violin
W: Yes. Do you want to learn the violin, Bob
M: No. My brother Tom wants to learn it. He really likes it. So I want to buy a violin for him as a birthday gift.
W: Wow, it’s really nice of you. There’s a shop selling violins near the bank. I can go with you.
M: Great!
听下面一段较长对话，回答第8—10小题。
W: Did you have a good weekend, Jack
M: Yes, I did. I went to Hangzhou.
W: Really Who did you go with
M: I went there with Sally and Linda.
W: Didn’t Tom go with you
M: Well, he wanted to. But he had to finish his book report about Little Women.
W: Did you buy silk scarves in Hangzhou
M: Yes, I did. I bought a silk scarf for my mother. Her birthday is coming. Sally bought a red silk dress and Linda bought a blue one.
第三节：听独白，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，回答问题。独白读两遍。
Hello, listeners. This is Doctor Wilson from Hospital Radio. Before our music program at four, I’m going to repeat some of our hospital rules. The hospital can hold 800 patients. The visiting hours are in the afternoon from 2:30 to 3:30 and in the evening from 7:00 to 8:00. But remember only two people can see you at the same time. The other rules are about our meals. We wake you up at 7 o’clock, and breakfast is at 8 o’clock. Lunch is at noon. There is a tea time at 3:30 and supper is at 6 o’clock. You can have all your meals at the dining room on the third floor. You are not allowed to smoke in the rooms. If you do need to smoke, there are special areas where it is allowed on the first floor.
