高2027届高一下期中考英语试题
试卷分为第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分，共10页，满分150分。
考试时间为120分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、班级、考号填写在答题卷上相应位置。
2. 选择题答案使用2B铅笔填涂在答题卷对应题目号的位置上，填涂在试卷上无效。
3. 非选择题答案使用黑色签字笔填写在答题卷对应题目号的位置，填写在试卷上无效。
第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man plan to do
A. Look for a job. B. Move to a new place. C. Rearrange the furniture.
2. What are the speakers talking about
A. A new book. B. A morning paper. C. An African teacher.
3. How does the woman probably feel now
A. Regretful. B. Anxious. C. Confused.
4. Where does the conversation take place
A. In a restaurant. B. In a police station. C. In a car.
5. What is the man going to do tomorrow
A. Pay the bill. B. Check the mailbox. C. Fix the gas cooker.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. What does Steve think of his training
A. Disappointing. B. Acceptable. C. Excellent.
7. How long does Steve train each day
A. Three hours. B. Five hours. C. Ten hours.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What does Mark say about live drawing
A. It’s enjoyable. B. It’s stressful. C. It’s creative.
9. What is the new thing that Mark wants to draw on
A. Magazines. B. Diaries. C. Maps.
10. Where do Mark’s inspirations come from
A. His dreams. B. His parents. C. His travels.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. What position is the man interested in
A. Window cleaner. B. Shop assistant. C. Fitness coach.
12. What will be provided for the job
A. A company car. B. A smartphone. C. A video recorder.
13. What is needed to do the job
A. Computer skills. B. Physical strength. C. Work experience.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What does the man do
A. He’s a receptionist. B. He’s a secretary. C. He’s a waiter.
15. Why does the man say sorry to the woman
A. He showed her the wrong way.
B. There is no reservation for her.
C. Her name has been misspelled.
16. What is the man’s advice for the woman
A. Come back later. B. Talk to the manager. C. Postpone the meeting.
17. What will the woman probably do next
A. Tidy up a room. B. Make a phone call. C. Go for a coffee.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. Why do many birds live in the city
A. They can obtain food easily.
B. They enjoy human company.
C. They lost their natural habitat.
19. What does Christina find surprising
A. The birds are facing serious dangers.
B. Different kinds of birds live together.
C. Some birds are attracted to the poles.
20. What is Christina’s suggestion concerning the birds
A. Drive them away. B. Feed them regularly. C. Do research on them.
第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
A
Warm weather gets thousands of people to gather outdoors and celebrate for various events. Here are a few fun festivals that you should travel to see this summer.
Naadam(Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia)
Naadam, also known as “the three games of men”, is the biggest traditional festival held in Ulaanbaatar, the Mongolian capital. Each July, men compete in Mongolian wrestling, horse racing and archery (射箭). Today, women also take part in the archery and girls in the horse racing.
Elvis Week(Memphis)
If moving your body to Blue Suede Shoes this summer sounds good to you, then head to Memphis for Elvis Week, usually held in August. Movies, special performances and the Ultimate Elvis Tribute Artist Contest are just a few activities to keep fans busy. The week of events is held to mark the anniversary (周年纪念日) of the death of Elvis Presley, the “King of Rock and Roll”.
Glastonbury Festival(Somerset, England)
Around 175, 000 people gather on a dairy farm in Somerset, England every year for the Glastonbury Festival. Famous bands and singers appear at the5-day music celebration. The ticket for the festival was 1 when the festival started in 1970, but today, full-weekend general tickets go for about 248.
World Bodypainting Festival(Klagenfurt, Austria)
During the annual World Bodypainting Festival in Austria, artists from as many as50 countries compete using a variety of techniques, including brushes, sponges and airbrushes. Alex Barendregt organized the first festival in 1998, when he was tasked with organizing a new summer event.
21. Where can we watch exciting competitions when attending the festival
A. MemphisB. Austria.C. Mongolia.D. England.
22. Which of the following festivals is in memory of a musician
A. Elvis Week.B. Naadam.
C. Glastonbury Festival.D. World Bodypainting Festival.
23. What can we learn about the Glastonbury Festival
A. Its setting is the downtown area.B. It attracts dancers to perform there.
C. It is held to celebrate the farm’s harvest.D. Its ticket price has greatly increased.
B
John Koh is one who finds joy in learning.
He graduated with a diploma (毕业文凭) in accounting in his youth, but after a decade in the industry, he decided to make a change. He took an undergraduate course in social work at the age of 33. He graduated in 2010 and went on to do a Master’s degree in social work in 2014.
His most recent educational attempt, which he took on last year, is a Master’s degree in gerontology.
Gerontology is the scientific study of old age, the process of aging, and the particular problems of old people. As the population in the United States continues to age, earning a degree in gerontology could be a good investment in one’s future. “It became more in demand in 2017,” he described. “I’d always been interested in it, but what motivated me to take on the Master’s program was when my wife started studying again. Watching her enjoy her studies gave me the desire to go back to studies too.” As an adult learner, John said, “When I started to study social work, I really enjoyed it because I already had work experience, plus I had been serving in the Dialect Service looking after the elderly. Whatever I was taught in school, I applied it to my work; whatever I learned at work, I related back to my studies. Work experience really benefits the learning.” John also noticed that his grades were a lot better when he was doing his Master’s degree, compared to his undergraduate studies.
As a passionate lifelong learner, John Koh believes communication with family members is another important thing. “Support is very important,” said John. “I told my daughter that Papa was studying and that on certain days I would have to focus on my tasks. It’s actually a good example for the next generation — that’s why my daughter likes to read too!”
24. What did finally encourage John to study gerontology
A. His work experience of social work.B. His wife’s taking pleasure in her studies.
C. The demand to support his large family.D. The great future of gerontology research.
25. What did John think of his studies as an adult learner
A. Difficult.B. Stressful.C. Enjoyable.D. Special.
26. Why does John’s daughter enjoy reading
A. It is influenced by her father.B. She is required by her teacher.
C. It is her duty to read every day.D. She gets rewards from her father.
27Which might be the most suitable title for the text
A. What Is Gerontology B. A Story of Lifelong Learning
C. The Aging Problem in the USD. Benefits of Lifelong Learning
C
The idea that red means stop and green means go affects more than just traffic light colors in our lives. We have been taught from a young age that red means danger, while green means safety.
But why were those particular colors chosen for traffic lights Before there were traffic lights for cars, there were traffic signals for trains. At first, railroad companies used red to mean stop, white to mean go and green to mean caution. But train conductors ran into a problem with the color white meaning go — bright white could easily be mistaken for stars at night. Railway companies eventually moved to the color green for go. It’s been that way ever since.
Red is the color with the longest wavelength (波长). That means that as it travels through the air, it gets diffused (分散) less than other colors, so it can be seen from a greater distance. For a real-world example, think about how the light turns red as the sun sets. Even though the human eye is most sensitive to a yellowish-green highlighter color, it can see red from further away. But this could happen by chance. It’s not clear whether that was chosen based on wavelength, contrast against green nature or natural connection of red with things like blood. It could be a mix of all three!
Yellow has a shorter wavelength than red but a longer wavelength than green. This means that red is noticeable the furthest away, yellow in the middle and green the least distance away — a helpful advanced warning for needing to slow or stop.
However, believe it or not, yellow was once used to mean stop. Back in the 1900s, some stop signs were yellow because it was too hard to see a red sign in a poorly lit area. Eventually, highly reflective (反光的) materials were developed, and red stop signs were born. Since yellow can be seen well at all times of the day, school areas, some traffic signs and school buses continue to be painted the color. Keep these safe driving tips in the back of your mind whenever you see a yellow light.
28. What was the problem with white meaning go
A. It could not be seen at night.B. It was a color showing danger.
C. It was not popular at that time.D. It could mislead train conductors.
29. Why does the light turn red as the sun sets
A. Human eyes are most sensitive to red.
B. Red travels through the air fastest.
C. The sun changes its color as it sets.
D. Red has the longest wavelength.
30. What can we learn about yellow from the text
A. It was used in limited areas.
B. It had been used as a stop sign.
C. It is hard to see without enough light.
D. It requires highly reflective materials.
31. What is the author’s purpose in writing the text
A. To explain the choice of traffic light colors.
B. To spread the knowledge of colors.
C. To introduce the invention of traffic lights.
D. To increase people’s traffic awareness.
D
In Denmark, bicycling is one of the primary forms of transportation. In sunshine, rain and snow, you will see cyclists on their way to work, to the grocery store, or to social events. The bike is a Dane’s best friend.
Danish cycling culture is as old as the bicycle itself. Bikes were first introduced to the country in the 1880s, and during the 1920s and 1930s, the bicycle became a widespread symbol of equality and freedom. People of all social classes began biking side by side — in the cities on their way to work and in the countryside on their days off.
The increased economy development of the late 1950s saw some Danes replacing bikes with motorcycles and automobiles. Just like their colleagues around the world, Danish urban planners believed the future belonged to cars, trucks, and ever-wider highways. In the early 1970s, however, the Mideast oil crisis terminated that development. “Car Free Sundays” were introduced in Copenhagen, and movements demanding Copenhagen to become car-free took place. Over time, concerns about air pollution, climate change, and the need for people to get enough exercise have helped bicycles make a big comeback. Denmark’s heavy taxes on petrol and automobiles are a factor, too.
Today, cycling is an inseparable part of Danish culture. Newcomers who do not know how to cycle are encouraged to learn as soon as they arrive. Danish children usually learn to bike before they begin school at the age of six — and often much earlier. In school, children learn about traffic rules, road safety, and the importance of wearing a helmet as well as good cycling habits. Another choice for families with children is the cargo bike — a sort of oversized tricycle with a large wooden box on the front. It’s estimated that a quarter of all Copenhagen families with two or more children own one of these cargo bikes for transporting kids, groceries, and other necessities. Danish cargo bikes have also won design awards and become a Danish export success.
Commuting by bike is the fastest, easiest and most environmentally friendly way to get around the cities of Denmark. And the numbers speak for themselves: Residents who cycle in Copenhagen request 1.1 million fewer sick days. Cyclists reduce CO2 emissions by 20,000 tonnes a year on average.
32. What led to the popularity of bicycles in Denmark during the 1920s and 1930s
A. The convenience of the bike.B. The development of the economy.
C. The idea that the bike symbolizes.D. The construction of wide highways.
33. What does the underlined word “terminated” mean in the 3rd paragraph
A. Improved.B. Permitted.C. Ended.D. restarted.
34. What do we know about cargo bikes from the 4th paragraph
A. They are owned by about 25% families.
B. They are designed for practical use.
C. They are the national symbol of Denmark.
D. They are unpopular among local residents.
35. Why does the author mention the data in the last paragraph
A. To prove the effectiveness of cycling.
B. To compare cycling with driving.
C. To show the popularity of cycling.
D. To conclude the financial benefits of cycling.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
Should We Create More National Parks to Save Endangered Animals
Don’t you find it worrying that more and more species of animals are in real danger of becoming extinct ___36___ And I think the best way to do this is for governments to create more national parks.
___37___ If this environment is destroyed — for example, when farmers clear a forest for new fields, or trees are cut down to make profits — many animals are unable to survive, and more species are likely to become extinct.
In addition, national parks protect animals from the danger of being hunted. A major reason why many species are endangered is that these animals are killed by hunters. They hunt animals to make money. ___38___
On the other hand, some people fight against the creation of national parks because they consider it is wrong to interfere with nature. They believe that wild animals are happier living in their natural environment. ___39___ They also point out that a few species are more likely to produce young animals in the wild than in national parks.
All in all, these disadvantages are far less important than the benefits of national parks. ___40___ As a matter of fact, they protect animals from their greatest enemies, that is, human beings.
A. To begin with, animals are important to humans.
B. Some hunters even hunt animals simply for sport.
C. I personally believe that we must save these animals.
D. These parks allow animals to live in a safe environment.
E. Firstly, national parks protect these animals’ natural environment.
F. They say though the animals may face danger, they enjoy a free life.
G. There is a heated discussion about whether to create more national parks.
第三部分语言知识运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Life is full of uncertainties, and every activity we do carries some level of ____41____ . Some activities, like snowboarding (单板滑雪运动), often have a higher possibility of injury. Ian Steger ____42____ this firsthand when he had a serious snowboarding accident but he was so ____43____ that Francis Zuber passed by.
In March, Ian and a group of friends went on a snowboarding trip in Washington State. During their ____44____ , things took a dangerous turn. While moving through the trees, Ian fell backward and crashed into one, finding himself ___45____ in a deep hole of snow.
Ian explained the ____46____ , “When we entered the trees, they were so ____47____ together that we each had to find our own paths. Unluckily, the path I ____48____ led me straight into a big tree well.” Fearing the worst, Ian thought he was facing his ____49____ moments. However, Francis Zuber, a skier, happened to pass by.
Francis saw a flash of red in the corner of his eye. He ____50____ a snowboard sticking out from the snow, which was ____51____ considering how far they were from any populated areas. Worried, Francis called out to Ian but didn’t receive any ____52____
Without hesitation (犹豫), Francis began to dig hard to save Ian from the snowy trap. In the end, he ____53____ it. Feeling extremely ____54____ , Ian hugged Francis, telling him, “I’m so glad you ____55____ my life today.”
41. A. interest B. risk C. boredom D. success
42. A. discovered B. described C. mentioned D. guessed
43. A. glorious B. nervous C. creative D. lucky
44. A. visit B. adventure C. training D. discussion
45. A. beaten B. hidden C. trapped D. tested
46. A. situation B. method C. application D. invitation
47. A. close B. equal C. unique D. various
48. A. advised B. cleared C. chose D. saw
49. A. quiet B. final C. effective D. historic
50. A. heard B. imagined C. prevented D. noticed
51. A. related B. legal C. unusual D. impossible
52. A. report B. warning C. promise D. answer
53. A. made B. got C. put D. promoted
54 A. injured B. thankful C. curious D. satisfied
55. A. regarded B. touched C. spared D. saved
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
My first date with Chinese food was not a good experience. I thought it did not suit my taste. But after that, something unexpected happened and it ____56____ (great) aroused my interest in Chinese food.
One day, my Chinese labmates took me ____57____ a Chinese restaurant. Then he called the waiter for our orders. One by one, dishes ____58____ (serve).
It was my first time ____59____(see) such a meal, with more than 10 dishes on the table. As I am a slow eater, I was quite hesitant to try all ____60____ dishes. Besides, knowing from my past experience of Chinese food, I thought that I should only pick what I could eat. One of my labmates ____61____ (sit) next to me persuaded me to give each of the dishes a try. I tasted ____62____(they) one by one, little by little and ended up enjoying all of them.
The experience with my labmates opened my heart to more Chinese cuisine ____63____(adventure). As I visited city after city, I began my journey of Chinese food. I went to street food, local and fancy restaurants ____64____ I was quite amazed by the diversity of food in China.
One cannot deny that food is a main source of our ____65_____ (happy) and it is indeed our thirst for survival. China won my heart when it got through my stomach.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节应用文(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华，你校的英国朋友Chris想向你了解花萼山春游（spring outing）活动的安排，请写封邮件给他回信。内容包括：
1. 时间、地点；
2活动安排：爬山、野餐等；
3. 邀请他参加。
注意：1. 词数80左右；2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Chris,
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节读后续写(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The science teacher, Mr. Moose, decided that the school would have a paper airplane contest (比赛). Each student would design a paper airplane. And then they would take turns throwing their airplanes. The student whose airplane flew the farthest would win.
When Mr. Moose announced the paper airplane contest, all the students were very excited. Paul, who was on the wrestling (摔跤) team, said to other students. “I am the strongest. And I will be able to throw my airplane the farthest.”
However, another student, Brian, was thinking how he could win. He did not play any sports and was not very strong. But he loved airplanes and really wanted to win the contest.
Brian knew what he had to do. He went to the store and bought a big pile of paper. When he got home he took the paper into the backyard. He took a piece of paper and folded (折叠) an airplane. It didn’t go very far, so Brian took another piece and folded another airplane and threw it. This airplane went a little farther. Brian kept folding different kinds of airplanes and throwing them. Some went very far and some did not. Finally, when Brian had used all the paper, he walked up to the airplane that had flown the farthest and picked it up.
注意：1．续写词数应为150左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The contest day arrived in the end and all the students gathered on the playground.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Excitedly, Brian got the prize from Mr. Moose’s hand and all the students clapped their hands for him.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
答案
第一部分听力(满分30分)
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C
11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. C
第二部分阅读理解(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
A
【答案】21. C 22. A 23. D
B
【答案】24. B 25. C 26. A 27. B
C
【答案】28. D 29. D 30. B 31. A
D
【答案】32. C 33. C 34. B 35. D
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
【答案】36. C 37. E 38. B 39. F 40. D
第三部分语言知识运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【答案】41. B 42. B 43. D 44. B 45. C 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. D 51. C 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. D
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
【答案】56. greatly 57. to 58. were served 59. to see 60. the 61. sitting 62. them
63. adventures 64. where and 65. happiness
第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节应用文(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华，你校的英国朋友Chris想向你了解花萼山春游（spring outing）活动的安排，请写封邮件给他回信。内容包括：
1. 时间、地点；
2. 活动安排：爬山、野餐等；
3. 邀请他参加。
注意：1. 词数80左右；2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear Chris,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
【答案】
Dear Chris,
I am sincerely inviting you to join us to go for a spring outing to Hua e Mountain this weekend. Aiming to enhance our relation and build up our bodies, the trip involves climbing mountains and a picnic. As is scheduled, the activity will take place at 8:00 am on Saturday at the gate of our school and we hope all the students in our class will take an active part in it. Climbing is an important part of the trip. While pushing our strength to the limit, we are also breathing fresh air and appreciating the gorgeous scenery on the way.
Hope you won’t miss the joyful activity. Your attendance is greatly expected.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节读后续写(满分25分)
【答案】 The contest day arrived in the end and all the students gathered on the playground. Finally, it was Brian’s turn. He held the plane that he had folded the day before. It began to fly, farther and farther, until it landed 5 feet farther than Paul’s plane. The whole school cheered and were very happy. Brian won the contest. Mr. Moose awarded him a great prize: a toy airplane.
Excitedly, Brian got the prize from Mr. Moose’s hand and all the students clapped their hands for him. Brian won the contest because he had tried his best many times to solve the problem on how to make a plane fly farther. He made it by testing out many different designs and compare the results. When he found the best way to fly the farthest, he knew he succeeded.
