2025年安徽省阜阳市初中学业水平考试一模英语试卷（含答案，含听力原文，无音频）

2025年安徽省初中学业水平考试
英语冲刺卷(一)
说明:共四部分,十大题,满分120分。作答时间为120分钟。
第一部分　听力　(共四大题,满分20分)
Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
(　　)1.How did the boy go to Hangzhou
A.　　　B.　　　C.
(　　)2.What did the boy do yesterday
A. B. C.
(　　)3.What does the man want to buy
A.Some cookies. B.Some candies. C.Some boxes.
(　　)4.How long does the sports meeting last in the girl's school
A.Four days. B.Three days. C.Two days.
(　　)5.Where does the conversation probably take place
A.At school. B.In a supermarket. C.In a clothes shop.
Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
　　听下面一段对话,回答第6、7题。
(　　)6.What is Betty doing
A.She's making a model spaceship.
B.She's working on math problems.
C.She's watching a TV program about space travel.
(　　)7.What does Betty want to be when she grows up
A.A scientist. B.A teacher. C.An astronaut.
　　听下面一段对话,回答第8至10题。
(　　)8.Where is the new shopping center
A.Next to the bank.
B.Opposite the theater.
C.Behind the post office.
(　　)9.What does Mary want to buy
A.Shoes. B.Hats. C.Bags.
(　　)10.When will the speakers go to the shopping center
A.On Monday. B.On Saturday. C.On Sunday.
Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题,请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
(　　)11.Which subject was the speaker poor at
A.English. B.Chinese. C.Math.
(　　)12.What changed the speaker's life
A.A painting competition.
B.An English speaking competition.
C.A writing competition.
(　　)13.Who encouraged the speaker to take part in the competition
A.Her mother. B.Her teacher. C.Her classmates.
(　　)14.How often did the speaker go to the city library
A.Four times a week. B.Three times a week. C.Twice a week.
(　　)15.What did the speaker's classmates do when they heard the good news
A.They gave the speaker presents.
B.They hugged the speaker.
C.They cheered.
Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
How to have a good school life
Be 16.　　　　 at school ·Join in lots of activities. ·Put up hands 17.　　　　.
Keep fit ·Eat a good breakfast. ·Have enough sleep. ·Play enough sports to keep your body 18.　　　　.
Face the problem ·Don't make small problems very 19.　　　　 or serious. ·Don't forget to ask for help.
Enjoy the weekends ·Don't 20.　　　　 time lying in bed on Saturday or Sunday morning.
第二部分　语言知识运用　(共三大题,满分35分)
Ⅴ.单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
(　　)21.Our teacher encourages us to form a good 　　　　of writing Chinese characters.
A.joy B.habit C.luck D.courage
(　　)22.—Which place would you like to go for your school trip, Beijing or Shanghai
— 　　　　. I only want to go to Huizhou, which is an amazing place.
A.Each B.Either C.Neither D.Both
(　　)23.Doctors tell us that eating 　　　　will help us be happy and healthy.
A.properly B.lately C.quickly D.gradually
(　　)24.—Hiking is becoming more and more popular among young people.
—Exactly. It can make us get 　　　　to nature.
A.slower B.closer C.hotter D.smarter
(　　)25.—It is reported that in some schools, students grow vegetables in their free time.
—That's true. The planting work 　　　　as a kind of physical exercise for students.
A.has regarded B.regarded
C.is regarded D.was regarded
(　　)26.The weather is changeable recently. People may　　　　four seasons in one week.
A.play B.check C.protect D.experience
(　　)27.The students of Grade Nine were taught how to 　　　　stress yesterday.
A.put away B.turn out C.get on D.deal with
(　　)28.I 　　　　a few pages of the book Journey to the West till now. I will finish the rest as soon as possible.
A.have read B.will read C.was reading D.reads
(　　)29.Chinese space projects will go forward 　　　　we pull together to achieve the dream.
A.though B.so that C.as long as D.unless
(　　)30.—I'm afraid I can't do well in the running race.
—　　　　. I will stand by you and cheer for you.
A.Come on B.Sorry to hear that
C.I'm afraid I can't D.That's too bad
Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
At the age of 16, Gabriel Rochet wants to change the world in his own way. He is a young 　31　 lover and the creator of the Paxo phone.
Rochet said that the 　32　 of his phone is much lower than today's smartphones. Unlike traditional phones, Paxo phones can be put together by normal people. People can buy the parts on the Internet and 　33　 online teaching videos.Rochet wanted to show that it was 　34　 for normal people to assemble (组装) their own phones.“If you have experience, it may take you less than an hour. 　35　 for beginners, it may take a day,” he said.
He pointed out that the smartphone industry can be 　36　 to the environment. Paxo phones are made of a small number of parts. Fewer parts mean less 　37　. Of course, Paxo phones can't do as much as most smartphones. A Paxo phone includes a 2G network, a screen and so on. You can make phone calls and send 　38　 with it. There are now three Apps and two games in the phone. “We will soon 　39　 4G networks,” Rochet said.
The Paxo phone project has drawn much 　40　 and many people want to help with its development. It's reported that about 20 people volunteered to work on the next version (版本).
(　　)31.A.art B.technology C.culture D.history
(　　)32.A.price B.use C.space D.time
(　　)33.A.stay away B.learn from C.forget about D.look out
(　　)34.A.lucky B.tidy C.difficult D.possible
(　　)35.A.But B.Because C.Though D.Since
(　　)36.A.weak B.rapid C.harmful D.sweet
(　　)37.A.truth B.area C.waste D.secret
(　　)38.A.papers B.messages C.notes D.gifts
(　　)39.A.develop B.grow C.continue D.invent
(　　)40.A.information B.tradition C.pollution D.attention
B
In the 1980s, women in the countryside of Southern China liked to wear blue calico (印花布) clothes. Recently, students in a school got the chance to see and learn about the cool 　41　 clothing.
The “research of traditional Chinese clothing” class at a middle school in Anhui went deep into learning about blue calico. The students 　42　 the challenge of making their own bags through tie-dyeing (扎染). It is a dyeing 　43　 used to make blue calico. “First, place the cloth bag the way you like. Then use bands to hold it and add the 　44　 dye (染料). 　45　 it a few times to move the extra dye,” said He Xinyue, a Grade 8 student.
“Tie-dyeing is an amazing 　46　. Everyone does it a bit differently, and you 　47　 know exactly how it will look in the end. Tie-dyeing connects the 　48　 of traditional wash paintings with the oil paintings,” said Ma Qianyu, a Grade 8 student.
“Clothing is a part of traditional culture. In my opinion, the skill should be 　49　 in our life,” said Chen Xi, the teacher of the class.“The students will later go to Nanjing Museum to get more 　50　 about people's life in Jiangsu and the folk culture there.”
(　　)41.A.patient B.traditional C.expensive D.easy
(　　)42.A.took on B.gave up C.turned down D.put off
(　　)43.A.success B.record C.skill D.business
(　　)44.A.sad B.colorful C.boring D.wide
(　　)45.A.Wash B.Act C.Throw D.Pick
(　　)46.A.suggestion B.center C.art D.museum
(　　)47.A.often B.always C.usually D.never
(　　)48.A.time B.space C.style D.cost
(　　)49.A.changed B.kept C.missed D.ended
(　　)50.A.choice B.trust C.relation D.knowledge
Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
A:The cake is done! Have a try!
B:OK. Did you make it by yourself
A:Yes. 51.　　　
B:Mm... It tastes sweet! 52.　　　
A:Not really. Look at the middle. I know you have a sweet tooth, but too much sugar is not healthy for us. 53.　　　
B:Great! What a clever girl you are! 54.　　　
A:No, I didn't have time to buy any.
B:55.　　　
A:Sounds great. Let's start!
A.I don't like sweet food.
B.Cooking is my hobby.
C.I can't wait to eat them.
D.So I added some strawberries.
E.Do you have any ice cream
F.You must have added lots of sugar to make it.
G.What about making some ice cream by ourselves
第三部分　阅读　(共两节,满分40分)
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
第一节　阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
THIS YEAR'S AFTER-SCHOOL ACTIVITIES
—ALL YOU NEED TO KNOW!
　　Teaching Training
Spend two hours on Saturday afternoon in the local primary school. You can help develop the students' reading and writing skills, and help them with creative projects. You will find out if teaching is as easy as you think.
Bike Repairing Course
Have you ever asked your parents to pay for repairing a bike Make them happier by taking the bike repairing course! The course is from 15:00 to 17:00 on Monday on the playground.The teacher with rich experience will teach you useful skills.
Cooking Course
Our cooking course will show you how to make the most delicious meals. Get healthier by developing your cooking skills every Friday evening in our school dining hall. The course is from 17:00 to 19:00.You can have a chance of tasting the food your classmates make.
(　　)56.How long will the teaching training last each time
A.An hour. B.Forty-five minutes.
C.One and a half hours. D.Two hours.
(　　)57.Where will the bike repairing course take place
A.In the school library. B.On the playground.
C.In the school dining hall. D.In the classroom.
(　　)58.What time will the cooking course end
A.At 15:00. B.At 17:00. C.At 19:00. D.At 20:00.
B
After three tries, Millie finally passed the first aid test. She remembered clearly what to do when someone is senseless. Here are the three key steps of CPR—Airway:open the airway; Breathing:check and do rescue (急救) breathing; Circulation:do chest compression (胸外按压). Millie remembered the three steps as ABCs.
Millie really wanted to test her skills. Every day she kept looking for possible accidents, hoping that she could have a chance to rescue others.
One day at school, her friend Stacy ran to her suddenly. “It's Bobby! He's senseless!” Millie ran to help quickly.But all of a sudden, she couldn't remember her ABCs. Then she took a deep breath to make herself calm down. “A is for airway.” She checked Bobby's mouth. It was clear. As she was about to take the second step, she thought, “Oh, no.His breath smells bad.” She remembered how important it was. So she pinched (捏住) his nose and was about to give the rescue breathing when Bobby began laughing and so did Stacy.Millie understood that it was all a joke. She became angry and left. Then Stacy and Bobby realized their mistake. They thought it was wrong to make jokes about things like that. So they apologized to Millie and said they would never do this again. Millie said to her friends, “Well, at least I got a chance to practice, and maybe I'd rather not have to do it in real life, anyway!”
(　　)59.Why did Millie keep looking for possible accidents
A.To reduce accidents. B.To pass her first aid test.
C.To test her first aid skills. D.To win praise from friends.
(　　)60.What happened at first when Millie went to help
A.She laughed loudly. B.She forgot her ABCs.
C.She checked Bobby's mouth. D.She took a short breath.
(　　)61.What does the underlined word “It” in Paragraph 3 refer to
A.Bobby's nose. B.Bobby's breath.
C.Bobby's mouth. D.Bobby's throat.
(　　)62.Which of the following can best describe Millie
A.Creative. B.Stupid.
C.Strict. D.Kind-hearted.
C
Shi Guangyin was born in Dingbian County, Shaanxi Province in 1952. He is a hero of the sand control.
In his childhood, his 5-year-old friend was killed by the strong sandstorm. In order to protect themselves from the sandstorm, his family had moved nine times. At last, he decided to fight against the sand to the end.
In 1972, the 20-year-old Shi Guangyin led the villagers to plant poplar trees and willow trees. In three years, he managed more than 10,000 mu of desert and successfully set up the first desert oasis (绿洲) in his hometown.In 1984, he set up a sand-control company.
In the spring of 1988, he led the villagers to fight the desert named Wolf Sand for the third time. By creating sand barriers (屏障) to stop the hit of sand, about 80% of the plants were able to keep alive all the time.
On March 12, 2008, Shi Guangyin's only son died in a car accident while fighting against the sand. Shi Guangyin continued fighting against the sand although he was in great pain.
What he did has completely improved the terrible environment. Over the years, Shi's company turned 20,000 hectares of barren (贫瘠的) land green. Thanks to his leadership, forest coverage in Dingbian County has risen from 3.8 percent in 1980 to 33.5 percent today.
Shi's grandson now takes up his job of sand control. They appeared at the 2024 CCTV Spring Festival Gala. They hope that more and more young people will work on sand control, so that more deserts will be decorated with green all year round.
(　　)63.What happened to Shi Guangyin on March 12, 2008
A.He was seriously ill. B.His son died from an accident.
C.Many villagers left his company. D.He set up a sand-control company.
(　　)64.What can we know from the text
A.Shi Guangyin's friend died in 1988.
B.Shi Guangyin set up a sand-control company in 1972.
C.Shi Guangyin stopped fighting against the sand after his son died.
D.Shi Guangyin's company has achieved a lot.
(　　)65.What's the best title for the text
A.A Successful Father
B.A Hero of the Sand Control
C.The Best Way to Protect the Environment
D.The First Desert Oasis in Shaanxi
D
Are you troubled by housework, such as cleaning tables or tidying your room A new robot is here to help! At the beginning of 2024, the robot Mobile Aloha made by scientists in the US became popular online.
In the videos posted, we can see the robot preparing dishes, from cutting vegetables to breaking eggs.It's also good at watering plants, petting cats, cleaning the floor and washing clothes.
Sounds good Well, another video posted by researchers may disappoint some people.Mobile Aloha isn't good at doing housework on its own. Instead, it learns from human actions before doing each kind of housework. When the situation changes, it can't work well without a human “teaching” it. Then it may break dishes, hit things and even burn a pot.The robot can successfully move chairs 80% of the time. For cooking dishes, the success rate is only 40%. In short, it's far from perfect.
In fact, AI robots are good at tasks such as solving math problems and playing chess, but they face challenges when it comes to simpler actions like cleaning. And it's the same for Mobile Aloha. For example, if its body doesn't move accurately—even just with a small deviation (偏差), its arm may move too far to pick up a glass.
“Robots are not ready to take over the world,” said some scientists.
(　　)66.What can we know from Paragraph 3
A.Mobile Aloha isn't useful at all.
B.Mobile Aloha is far from perfect.
C.Mobile Aloha learns from computers.
D.Mobile Aloha can do most of the housework.
(　　)67.What is Mobile Aloha good at
A. B. C. D.
(　　)68.What does the underlined word “accurately” probably mean
A.Badly. B.Suddenly. C.Correctly. D.Quickly.
(　　)69.What's the purpose of the text
A.To show what AI robots can do.
B.To introduce a housework robot.
C.To tell people robots aren't helpful.
D.To tell people how to teach robots.
E
There are many colors in nature.But do you know that the color has weight If you don't believe it, we can do a small experiment.
Firstly, put two objects which are of the same weight into two boxes.Then cover the boxes.Thirdly, wrap (包裹) one box with a red piece of paper, and the other one with a white piece of paper. Lastly, hold the boxes.It is probably that you will think the red one is a little heavier.
A scientist found that different colors have different weights in people's mind. The scientists tell us that colors also have smell.Can people really smell the color Of course not. Then why do the scientists say so That is because every color stands for a kind of light with a certain wavelength (波长). It reaches our brain through sense organs (感觉器官).
According to this discovery, people accept the colors they like, and refuse the colors they hate. And your body and mind will be healthy by using the colors you like. For example, if you like blue and hate red, after you stay in a room with red walls and furniture (家具) for two hours, you'll feel you have been there for four hours.But if the room is blue, you'll feel you have been there for only one hour.And if you walk out of a blue room and into a red room, your temperature will rise. That means your body temperature will change according to different colors. So, choose the color you like!
(　　)70.How many steps does the small experiment need
A.Two. B.Three. C.Four. D.Five.
(　　)71.What can we learn from the last paragraph
A.We should use the color we like to make ourselves healthy.
B.We should use more red things to make ourselves happy.
C.The color blue is lighter than the color red.
D.The weight of the color reaches our brain through sense organs.
(　　)72.In which part of a magazine can you read the text
A.Culture. B.History.
C.Science. D.Environment.
　　第二节　阅读下面的短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
F
“Look at this,” I said to my friend Mandy, holding up a piece of bright-red paper. “There's a five-day art camp this summer!”
Mandy looked at the paper, “It's during the last week of July,” she said. “That's the same time as the Hill County Fair.” Mandy handed the paper back to me. “Tessa, you're good at art, but I'm not,” she smiled. “My little brother thought the flowers I painted were spaceships.”
“But you can learn to draw,” I said in my most encouraging voice. I really didn't want to go alone.
To relax myself, I went outside to draw. When I sat on the stone, I thought about the art camp and wished I could be a little braver. Mandy could make friends with other kids in 10 minutes, but I always feel nervous when I don't know anyone around me. So I decided to give up the camp.
A moment later, Mr. Weston, my neighbor, came. He told me something about the tree I drew. He said that roots (根) of the tree couldn't be too deep or they could not reach outward. After his leaving, I thought about what Mr. Weston had told me. It made me think about the art camp and my own roots. I wasn't reaching “my roots” out at all. Instead, I was planting myself into a deep place to feel safer. That night, I made a new decision. For anyone who has deep root, I would say:
73.How long does the art camp last (不超过5个词)
________________________________________________________________________
74.Who is Mr. Weston (不超过5个词)
________________________________________________________________________
75.What would the writer say at the end of the text (不超过15个词)
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第四部分　写　(共两大题,满分25分)
Ⅸ.单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
76.She felt that it was her duty to keep the classroom t　　　　 (整洁的).
77.As technology develops rapidly, more and more AI t　　　　(工具) will be used in the future.
78.As the home of tea, China hopes to s　　　　(传播) tea culture around the world.
79.Don't stay close to the people with flu, or you may get s　　　　(生病的).
80.Dear friends, do you s　　　　(依然) remember your goals
Ⅹ.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
假定你是李辉,你校英文网站发起了主题为“Do you prefer study in a group or study alone”的讨论。请你结合以下要点写一篇短文谈谈你的看法。
要点:1.Which way do you choose
2.Why do you choose that way
注意:1.短文必须包含以上要点,可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
2.文中不得出现真实姓名和地名;
3.词数80—100。
参考词汇:concentrate(v.集中注意力)
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英语冲刺(一)参考答案
听力部分录音稿
Ⅰ.短对话理解
你将听到五段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1.W:Have you ever been to Hangzhou
M:Yes. I flew there last month.
2.W:What did you do yesterday
M:I climbed Mount Huang with my parents.
3.W:What can I do for you
M:I'd like to buy a box of chocolate cookies.
4.M:Does your school have a sports meeting every year
W:Yes.We have a three-day sports meeting every autumn.
5.W:Bob, you really did a good job! You've got full marks this time! Here is your test paper.
M:Thanks, Miss Lin.
Ⅱ.长对话理解
你将听到两段对话。每段对话后有几个小题,请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
　　听下面一段对话,回答第6、7题。
M:What are you doing, Betty
W:Well, I'm making a model spaceship.
M:Great! Could you teach me how to make it
W:Sure. By the way, have you heard the news about the astronauts
M:Yes, they have reached the space station and started to work there.
W:They're cool! I'd like to be an astronaut when I grow up.
M:Hope your dream come true!
　　听下面一段对话,回答第8至10题。
M:Hello, Mary. Do you know a new shopping center opened around here last Monday
W:No. Where is it
M:It's opposite the theater.
W:Is there a parking lot in front of the shopping center
M:Yes, but it's small.
W:Is there any shoe shop I want to buy a pair of shoes.
M:Certainly. The shopping center mainly sells hats, shoes and all kinds of clothes.
W:Shall we go there this Saturday
M:Sorry. I have to look after my sister that day.
W:How about this Sunday
M:OK. Let's meet at the gate this Sunday morning.
W:See you then.
Ⅲ.短文理解
你将听到一篇短文。短文后有五个小题,请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
When I was young, I was poor at math so I didn't feel confident about myself. I was too nervous to talk to anyone. I felt sad but I couldn't do anything to change this situation. Later, something happened to change my life. There was an English speaking competition. I didn't want to take part in it at first, but my mother encouraged me to have a try. We talked about different subjects and I chose the subject “Believe in yourself”. I practised it over 100 times. Every Saturday and Sunday, I went to the city library to search for information. Finally, I won first prize. When my classmates heard the good news, they couldn't wait to cheer. My mother hugged me and cried excitedly. Everything started to change and I became a confident student day by day. Life isn't easy, but you should believe in yourself.
Ⅳ.信息转换
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
You spend much time at school when you are young. But how can you have a good school life
Be active at school.You can join in lots of activities at school. In class, you should put up your hands quickly to answer the teacher's questions.
Keep fit. If you don't eat a good breakfast, you will be hungry and think about food in class. If you go to bed late and don't have enough sleep, you will be sleepy in class. What's more, you should also play enough sports every day to keep your body strong.
Face the problem. Don't make small problems very big or serious. Don't forget to ask for help. You are young, and no one thinks you must do everything quite well!
Enjoy the weekends. Don't waste time lying in bed on Saturday or Sunday morning. If you don't want to go out, you may read a book, practise English or help Mum with housework.
Follow the advice, and you will have a happy school life!
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分　听力
Ⅰ~Ⅲ.1~5　CBABA　6~10　ACBAC　11~15　CBACC
Ⅳ.16.active　17.quickly　18.strong　19.big　20.waste
评分标准:1~20题每小题1分。16~20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情扣分。
第二部分　语言知识运用
Ⅴ.21~25　BCABC　26~30　DDACA
评分标准:21~30题每小题1分。
Ⅵ.31~35　BABDA　36~40　CCBAD　41~45　BACBA　46~50　CDCBD
评分标准:31~50题每小题1分。
Ⅶ.51~55　BFDEG
评分标准:51~55题每小题1分。
第三部分　阅读
Ⅷ.56~58　DBC　59~62　CBCD　63~65　BDB　66~69　BACB　70~72　CAC
73.For five days.
74.The writer's neighbor./Tessa's neighbor.
75.If you want to grow, you have to start reaching out.
评分标准:56~75题每小题2分。
73~75题的答案使用完整或简略形式均可。能答出关键词语即可给分。所提供的答案仅供参考,其他答案给分与否可酌情处理。
第四部分　写
Ⅸ.76.tidy　77.tools　78.spread　79.sick　80.still
评分标准:76~80题每小题1分。
Ⅹ.书面表达
One Possible Version:
People enjoy different ways of studying.Some prefer studying alone, while others like studying in a group.
As for me, I choose to study in a group because I can concentrate more.If I sit alone, I may lose focus easily. The second reason I prefer studying in a group is that I can come up with more creative ideas when discussing with others.Different minds think differently, which leads to lots of creative answers.
All in all, I think studying in a group is really a useful way for me to learn better.
一、评分原则:
1.本题总分为20分,按五个档次给分。
2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,结合内容和语言表达,综合给定分数。
3.学生可以根据要点适当发挥,加入自己的观点。
4.词数少于80的,从总分中减去1分。
5.拼写错误多,书写较差以致影响表达,在所确定档次范围内减去1分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求:
第五档(很好):(17~20分)
涵盖所有内容要求,运用较多的语法结构和词汇,语言基本无误,有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑,内容充实,体现了活跃的思维和清晰的逻辑,具备了较强的语言运用能力,完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(好):(13~16分)
涵盖所有内容要求,运用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,有少量错误,但不影响对所写内容的理解,运用了简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯、完整,表达清楚,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(一般):(9~12分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务,运用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足任务要求,有一些错误,但不影响对所写内容的理解,内容不够连贯,信息基本可以传达。
第二档(较差):(5~8分)
明显漏掉主要内容,语法结构简单,词汇贫乏,有较多的错误,影响对所写内容的理解,缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯,信息未能清楚传达。
第一档(差):(0~4分)
明显漏掉主要内容,写了一些无关内容,有大量的错误,所写内容无法理解,信息未能传达。