福州市八县（市）协作校2024-2025学年第二学期期中联考
高一英语试卷
【完卷时间:120分; 满分:150分】
听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How much is the shirt
A. ￡19.15. B. ￡9.15. C. ￡9.18.
答案是B。
1. What is the woman going to do
A. Repair the steps. B. Borrow a hammer. C. Call the Smiths.
2. Where might the speakers be
A.In a park. B. At the beach. C. At the pool.
3. What does the man order
A. A coffee with sugar. B. A blueberry ice cream.
C. A chocolate ice cream.
4. When might the woman’s parents come to visit
A. In March. B. In April. C. In July.
5. What is the cat’s main color
A. Black. B. White. C. Gray.
(共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7 题。
6. Why won’t the man eat bread
A. He dislikes it. B. He is allergic to wheat.
C. He is trying to lose weight.
7. What is the woman’s favorite food
A. Noodles. B. Toast with fruit. C.Sandwiches.
听第7段材料，回答第8～10题。
8. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Childhood sports memories. B. The best game they ever saw.
C. Their favorite sports.
9. What sport did the man use to play
A. Basketball. B.Baseball. C. American football.
10. Why does the woman suggest watching the team from Oakland
A. Because she likes the coach. B. Because the players are the best.
C. Because their live games are shown online.
听第8段材料，回答第11～13题。
11. What does the woman ask to do at first
A. Fix her car. B. Put gas in her car. C. Get her tires checked.
12. How much should the woman pay together
A. $40. B. $45. C. $50.
13. What does the man tell the woman about the car
A. The battery is out of order. B. The tires are a little old.
C. The engine should be changed immediately.
听第9段材料，回答第14～16题。
14. Where would the woman go tonight
A. The office. B. The concert. C. The Lakers game.
15. Why did the woman refuse the man’s offer
A. Because she has to finish a report.
B. Because she is trying to get a promotion.
C. Because she is in her boss’s debt.
16. What is the man most likely to do now
A. Sell the ticket. B. Talk to the head office. C. Give a speech.
听第10段材料，回答第17～20题。
17. Where did the story take place
A.In an office. B.In a waiting room. C. In a coffee shop.
18. What did the woman like doing
A. Telling jokes. B. Watching people. C. Traveling.
19. What can we learn about the couple
A. They were newly married. B. They looked small and dusty.
C. They sat far away from the woman.
20. Why was the woman writing stories
A. Because she was a professional writer.
B. Because she could relax by doing this.
C. Because she wanted to change careers.
阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
The Impact of Social Media on Mental Health
In recent years, social media platforms like Instagram, TikTok, and Snapchat have become very popular among teenagers. These platforms help people stay in touch and share their lives. However, studies show that using social media too much can affect mental health.
Spending too much time online may cause anxiety, loneliness, and low self-esteem. Many people feel pressure to look perfect on social media, which can make them feel bad about themselves. On the other hand, social media can also be helpful when used wisely. It allows people to find supportive communities, share their creativity, and stay updated on important news.
In conclusion, social media is a powerful tool that can have both positive and negative effects on mental health. While it helps people connect and express themselves, excessive use can lead to stress and self-doubt. Finding a balance and using social media mindfully is the key to making the most of it.
What is one possible negative effect of using social media too much
A. It may cause anxiety and loneliness.
B. It helps people stay connected.
C. It makes people more confident.
D. It encourages people to be more creative.
22. Why do some people feel bad about themselves when using social media
A. They don’t have enough followers. B. They feel pressure to look perfect.
C. They spend too little time online. D. They cannot post creative content.
23. What is one way social media can be helpful
A. It stops people from feeling lonely.
B. It reduces the time people spend online.
C. It always makes people feel good.
D. It helps people find supportive communities.
24.Which of the following social media platforms is NOT mentioned in the passage
A. Facebook B. Snapchat C. TikTok D. Instagram
25. Which of the following is the best way to use social media wisely
A. Only look at pictures of famous celebrities.
B. Spend as much time as possible online.
C. Avoid all social media completely.
D. Follow positive content and connect with supportive people.
B
London's rainy streets shone with neon lights as Nina scanned through WeChat, watching her family in Shanghai prepare traditional rice dumplings. Missing the warmth of their reunion, she sighed. Then an idea struck her: what if she could bring the festival spirit to her flat
That evening, Nina built a DIY electronic lantern.Using augmented reality(AR) software, she added digital flames that looked real to the paper decorations. When her father watched her show the lantern online, his voice shook with pride. "Your creation connects our worlds!" he said.
The next day, her university classmates gathered. As Nina showed how waving a hand made a dragon appear and spin around—she realized something special was happening. Lucas was amazed by how old traditions and new tech mixed together, while Chinese student Mei shared stories about her family's lantern-making secrets.
The following morning, Nina spent the day improving the AR software,adding more customizable（可定制的） elements like different sounds and designs. She even added a fun tool where people could record voices that played when the lantern turned on.
By evening, Nina's virtual（虚拟的）lantern event had become a worldwide activity. Students from Berlin, Sydney, and New York joined, adding their own cultural styles to the digital lanterns. Through Nina’s AR app, the London sky lit up with moving dragons, cherry blossoms, and stars. As she explored the online event, Nina noticed a message from her grandfather. He sent a photo of their hometown village, where real silk lanterns floated alongside digital ones. "Although it lacks the smell of real silk and candle wax, your lantern's light carries the same hope our family believed in. The old and new can coexist," he wrote. "Your light has shown us the way." Nina smiled, understanding finally that festivals aren't about being perfect, but about bringing people together.
Nina realized this was just the beginning. The AR lantern project had started conversations about saving traditions in the digital age. Universities from different countries were now reaching out, interested in working with her on festivals mixing tech and culture. As rain continued to fall on London, Nina felt a sense of purpose she'd never experienced before. The festival spirit she'd sought had found her, turned into something without borders and always changing.
26.What did Nina create to connect with her family
A. A traditional Chinese dress. B. A video call software.
C. An electronic lantern. D. A handwritten letter.
27.How did Nina's classmates react to her AR lantern
A.They were indifferent. B.They were impressed.
C.They thought it was too traditional. D.They found it difficult to use.
28.What does Nina’s grandfather imply by saying "the old and new can coexist" in the context
A. Traditional materials should replace digital technology.
B. Cultural heritage can adapt to modern creations.
C. Younger generations must stop using digital tools.
D. Physical lanterns are better than virtual ones.
29.Which aspect of the AR lantern project is NOT mentioned as a cultural impact
A. Helping students from different countries work together.
B. Starting discussions about technology’s role in tradition.
C. Enabling global participation in local festivals.
D. Keeping family-specific skills private.
30.What is the main message conveyed through Nina's story
A. Traditional festivals require strict protection.
B. Technology can better help cultural connections.
C. London has better tech resources than Shanghai.
D. Young people should give up old traditions.
C
In the digital age, social media has become a cornerstone of modern teenagers' lives. However, a recent study from Cambridge University warns that overuse may cause significant mental health risks. The study tracked 10,000 teenagers and found that those spending over three hours daily on social media had a 40% higher risk of developing depressive symptoms(症状).
Neuroscientists have identified a potential biological mechanism behind this trend. Too much screen exposure can disturb the development of the prefrontal cortex, a brain region important for decision-making and emotional control. MRI scans revealed that frequent (频繁的) social media users showed reduced activity in this area compared to their peers who had limited screen time.
The negative impacts of social media overuse extend beyond depression. Research has also linked it to increased anxiety, loneliness, and a fear of missing out(FOMO). Moreover, the blue light from screens can influence sleep patterns, further causing mental health issues. Cyberbullying is another significant concern, with studies indicating a strong connection between negative self-cognitions(自我认知) and depressive symptoms.
To deal with these problems, experts and organizations are proposing balanced solutions. In Finland, schools have built tech-free lunch zones to encourage face-to-face interactions and reduce screen time. The "Digital Detox" movement, which promotes 24-hour weekly disconnection periods, is also gaining support. These periods allow individuals to focus on offline activities, improve their mental well-being, and strengthen interpersonal relationships. Mental health apps like MoodKit are being used to reduce cyberbullying anxiety through guided mindfulness exercises.
Governments around the world are also taking action. South Korea has carried out fines for parents who allow their children to use devices after 10 PM. China plans to join cyberhealth education into high school curricula(课程) to raise awareness about the potential risks of too much screen time. These measures aim to equip teenagers with the knowledge and skills needed to deal with the digital world safely and responsibly.
As teenage tech advocate Liam observes, "Practical strategies, not restrictions, will develop healthy digital habits." This approach emphasizes the importance of educating teenagers about the potential risks of social media overuse while providing them with tools and resources to manage their screen time effectively. By developing a balanced relationship with technology, we can help ensure that teenagers can enjoy the benefits of social media without harming their mental health.
31.What is the key finding of the Cambridge University study
A. Social media improves academic performance.
B. Teens using devices over 3 hours daily face 40% higher depression risk.
C. Family income determines social media addiction.
D. All teenagers experience cyberbullying.
32.What brain function is mainly affected by too much screen time according to MRI scans
A. Language comprehension B. Long-term memory storage
C. Decision-making and emotional control D.Visual processing
33. Which measure combines technology with mental health support
A. Finland's school lunch policy B. South Korea's parental fines
C. MoodKit's mindfulness exercises D. China's curriculum reforms
34.What measure should governments take according to the passage
A. Include cyberhealth in curriculum. B. Ban social media platforms.
C. Control ads content. D. Provide mental health clinics.
35. What conclusion does Liam's statement suggest
A. Complete device bans are necessary.
B. Educational tools beat strict prohibitions.
C. Governments should control internet access.
D. Schools must stop technology use.
第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Getting feedback is something everyone experiences. For artists and creators, it can feel really hard or even upsetting at times. But learning to accept and use criticism is actually one of the keys to success in their work. 36
When someone criticizes your work, try to stay calm. 37 This certainly doesn't mean that you can't share your thoughts, but first, listen carefully to what they say.
Getting feedback is just the beginning. The real challenge is understanding what parts of the feedback matter. 38 While certain feedback may seem unhelpful, it could teach you something useful.
39 Think about who is giving the feedback. Is it an expert who knows your field well Or is it someone who just prefers a different style Knowing their background and how they share their opinions can help you decide what’s worth paying attention to.
However, an immediate reaction for some is to go on the defensive and start explaining why the criticism is wrong. 40 It's one thing to get a negative comment about a particular aspect of your work and never hear it again. It’s another if similar feedback keeps rising to the surface. Over time, you may notice a pattern in how people are responding to your work. At that point, it's important to remain open and take an objective step back.
A. By taking a breath, keeping your ears open, and not being defensive, you can learn a lot.
B. Take the time to sit back and think before responding to what's said.
C. Some of the best artists are risk-takers.
D. That's why critique is typically an important part of any art school courses.
E. Or are you an artist who is afraid to experiment with your tried and true style
F. One way to avoid this is to evaluate criticism over time.
G. It's important to realize that every piece of feedback has valuable information that can be used.
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分 15分）
Electric vehicles (EVs) have become more popular as climate change concerns grow. Unlike gasoline cars, EVs run on electricity, making them an 41 choice for reducing emissions(排放). As battery technology 42 , EVs have become ideal for daily use, with longer driving ranges. 43 , there is still a shortage of charging stations in many areas, making it inconvenient for drivers. Governments 44 more stations, but this remains a challenge.
Despite their benefits, EVs still face some obstacles(障碍). For example, the high cost of purchasing an EV is a 45 for many consumers. Although prices have 46 , the technology is still in its early stages and needs further improvement. Battery production also raises concerns about the environmental impact of mining materials such as lithium(锂) and cobalt(钴), which 47 to make batteries. To address this, researchers are working on better recycling methods to make EVs more manageable. Moreover, as EV use increases, cities 48 their infrastructure（基础设施） to support more charging stations.
The future of EVs looks 49 , with more companies investing in the technology. It is expected that by 2030, a majority of cars on the road will be electric. The growth of the EV industry could 50 economic growth and reduce emissions, creating a 51 cycle of benefits. While challenges remain, experts believe the transition（过渡） to EVs is 52 . With more governments offering incentives, EVs are becoming more affordable for people. As battery technology improves, EVs will become even more sustainable and less reliant on fossil fuels, making them a key part of the future. 53 in government policies will play a key role in accelerating（加速） EV growth. These policies are likely to make EVs more popular and widespread in the future. Moreover, the EV shift is expected to 54 traffic congestion（拥塞） in cities. With clean air and 55 noise, urban areas will become more livable.
A. risky B. expensive C. harmful D. efficient
A. damages B. declines C. stops D. improves
A. However B. Then C. And D. So
A .have built B. is building C. will build D. had built
A. barrier B. opportunity C. advantage D. feature
A. increased B. decreased C. stopped D. remained
A. will use B. have used C. is used D. have been used
A. adapt B. adapted C. are adapting D. had adapted
A. bright B. uncertain C. distant D. hopeless
A. damage B. boost C. reduce D. delay
A. negative B. positive C. complex D. uncertain
A .achievable B. unrealistic C. manageable D. difficult
A. Changes B. Differences C. Conflicts D. Similarities
A. block B. worsen C. relieve D. delay
A. no B. more C. not D. less
第二节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Learning a second language has become 56 (increasing) important in today's globalized world. It not only allows you to communicate with people from different countries but also opens up many opportunities in your career. Knowing another language is 57 valuable skill, as it can improve your chances of getting a good job. For example, many companies prefer employees who are bilingual because they can interact with clients from different parts of the world.
In addition 58 career benefits, learning a second language has cognitive （认知的）effects. Research shows that people 59 speak more than one language tend to have better memory, problem-solving skills, and 60 (high) concentration levels. Not only 61 they improve their cognitive abilities, but they also find it easier to switch between tasks.
Moreover, knowing a second language allows you to experience a new culture. You can travel to different countries and understand their traditions and lifestyles better. This cultural awareness can lead to personal growth and a greater 62 (appreciate) for diversity.
However, learning a second language 63 (require) time and effort. It can be 64 (challenge), especially if you are starting later in life. But with the right motivation and resources, anyone can succeed in learning a new language.
The best way 65 (learn) a language is through practice.
第四部分 课内知识（共三节，满分25分）
第一节 （共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
根据语境，选择下框中的单词替换句中划线部分的单词或短语，使之意思一致。
Since the roads are clear, we can finally visit the coast.
67. Honestly, your presentation needed improvement.
68. You should make use of the sunny weather to paint the house today.
69. After volunteering there, I became fond of the culture of the city.
70. Regardless of her fear of heights, she climbed to the top of the mountain.
71. I am deeply thankful for the kindness strangers showed me during my travels.
72.The final round of the competition was difficult, but we kept moving on.
第二节 （共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分）
根据语境，选择下框中的单词或短语，必要时用正确的形式填空。框中有两个为多余选项。
Taking exercise for half an hour every day is ____________ to her health.
The kitten ____________ its owner and ran into the garden.
The new drug is of great ________ , which can contribute a lot to the treatment of the disease.
The ____________ news made everyone in the room silent.
The library ____________ a fee if you return books late.
After the holidays, I started jogging and felt ____________ again.
The students saw a dog ____________ them and stopped to pet it.
Last year he ____________ his soccer matches by writing them in a notebook.
第三节 英汉互译（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
81. 这本小说探讨了人工智能的潜在危险及其对人类的影响。
___________________________________________________________________
82. 这座城市以其独特的建筑风格和丰富的文化遗产而闻名。
___________________________________________________________________
Scientists are conducting research on how plastic pollution affects marine life.
___________________________________________________________________
Many young people choose to participate in volunteer programs to help those in need.
___________________________________________________________________
It is important for students to plan their future careers based on their interest and skills.
___________________________________________________________________
第五部分 写作（满分25分）
假设你是李华，你的学校正在组织一场关于“人与自然和谐共生”（Harmony Between Humans and Nature）的主题演讲比赛。请你根据以下提示，写一篇英文演讲稿，内容包括：
说明人与自然和谐共生的重要性；
结合实例说明如何实现这一目标（如环保行动、科技创新等）；
号召大家为环保贡献力量。
注意：1.字数100词左右;
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
3.开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Harmony Between Humans and Nature
Good morning, everyone!
It is my great honor to stand here and talk about a topic that concerns us all—harmony between humans and nature. _______________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Thank you!福州市八县(市)协作校2024-2025学年第二学期期中联考
高一英语 参考答案
第一部分 听力（共20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 CBCCA 6-10 BBCAA 11-15 BBBAC 16-20 ACBBA
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
21-25 ABDAD 26-30 CBBDB 31-35 BCCAB
第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
36-40 DAGBF
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分 15分）
41-45 DDACA 46-50 BDCAB 51-55 BAACD
第二节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
increasingly 57.a 58.to 59.who 60.higher
61.do 62.appreciation 63.requires 64.challenging 65.to learn
第四部分 课内知识（共三节，满分25分）
第一节 （共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
66-72 DEACFGB
第二节 （共8小题；每小题1分，满分8分）
73.beneficial 74.broke away from 75. significance 76.upsetting
77.charges 78.in shape 79.approaching 80.kept track of
第三节 英汉互译。（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
81. The novel explores the potential dangers of artificial intelligence and its impact on humanity.
1分 1分
82. The city is famous for its unique architectural style and rich cultural heritage.
1分 0.5分 0.5分
83. 科学家正在研究塑料污染 如何影响海洋生物。
1分 1分
84. 许多年轻人选择参加志愿者项目，以帮助有需要的人。
1分 1分
85. 对学生来说，根据他们的兴趣和技能 规划未来的职业是很重要的。
1分 1分
注: 81-85 小题中，每个分值为 0.5 的得分点如果出现语法、拼写、漏词等翻译错误，该得分点不得分；每个分值为 1 的得分点出现一处语法、拼写、漏词等翻译错误扣 0.5 分，扣完1分为止
第五部分 写作（满分25分）
Harmony Between Humans and Nature
Good morning, everyone!
It is my great honor to stand here and talk about a topic that concerns us all—harmony between humans and nature. In recent years, we have witnessed the damage caused by pollution and deforestation. If we continue to exploit nature without thinking, we will face serious consequences.
To achieve a balance, we must take action. For example, we can plant more trees, reduce plastic waste, and promote green energy. Technology also plays a key role—solar power and electric cars help us live more sustainably.
Only when we work together can we protect our planet. Let’s act now and build a greener future! Thank you!
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量， 确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．不足 80 词扣 2 分; 对词数没有上限，即超词不扣分。
4．评分时，应主要从以下三个方面考虑：
（1）内容要点；（2）应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性；（3）上下文的连贯性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。 英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 书写较差以至于影响交际的扣 1-2 分。
7. 摘抄阅读理解或前文的一律记 0 分。
内容要点
说明人与自然和谐共生的重要性；
结合实例说明如何实现这一目标（如环保行动、科技创新等）；
号召大家为环保贡献力量。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档 完全达到了预期的写作目的。 —覆盖所有内容要点。 —应用了多样且恰当的语法结构和词汇。语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但 为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 —有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
(21~25 分)
第四档 达到了预期的写作目的。 —覆盖所有内容要点，表述比较清楚合理。 —使用比较多样的语法结构和词汇。语法结构或词汇方面可能有些小错，但不 影响理解。 —比较有效地使用了语句间连接成分，使全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
（16~20 分)
第三档 基本达到了预期的写作目的。 —覆盖所有内容要点，有个别地方表述不够清楚合理。 —使用简单的语法结构和词汇，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理 解。 —基本有效地使用了语句间连接成分，使全文结构基本清晰，意义不够连贯。
（11~15 分）
第二档 未能达到预期的写作目的。 —漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 —语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了 对写作内容的理解。 —较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
（6~10 分）
第一档 完全未能达到预期的写作目的。 —遗漏或未能清楚描述大部分内容要求，大部分内容与写作目的不相关。 —语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写 作内容的理解。 —缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
（1~5 分）
0 分 未作答：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
听力原文
Text 1
W: Looks like you’re all set to repair the steps, John. You’ve got wood, pencils, nails, and a ruler.
M: I would be ready, if I could just find my hammer. (1)
W: Let me check with the Smiths. I think they borrowed it.
Text 2
W: Let’s go get into the water! I’m tired of lying in the sun. I think I’m getting sunburned.
M: But it’s too cold, and the waves are too high! Let’s throw a ball around instead. (2)
Text 3
W: Hi, sir. Welcome to Joni’s Ice Cream Shop. What can I get for you today Maybe you would like to try our new blueberry ice cream
M: I don’t really like blueberries. I would like one of the chocolate ice creams, (3) and a cup of coffee with no cream or sugar. Thanks!
Text 4
M: This weather is awful! It will go down in the record books for the most rainfall in the month of March in the last 50 years.
W: I heard. My parents usually come visit me for spring break, but they had to reschedule for the summer instead. (4)
Text 5
W: Have you seen my cat He’s black with white feet. (5)
M: He was sitting on that gray fence an hour ago. I think he was trying to catch a bird.
Text 6
W: Want me to pick up a sandwich for you at Subway
M: No, thanks. I don’t eat bread. (6)
W: Are you on a special diet or something
M: Well, sort of, but it’s not to lose weight. Actually, I am allergic to wheat. (6)
W: Oh! That must be inconvenient. So many foods are made from wheat.
M: Yes, but wheat-free foods are common now, so it’s not a huge problem.
W: I think I eat wheat for every meal! Generally, I eat a sandwich for lunch and some type of noodles for dinner. For breakfast, I love to eat French toast with strawberries. That’s my absolute favorite! (7)
Text 7 (第8题为总结题)
W: So, which sport do you prefer — basketball or baseball
M: To be honest, I don’t really care for either one.
W: I thought everyone liked basketball. Why don’t you like it
M: I used to play basketball when I was little, (9) but I never scored a basket. What’s your favorite sport
W: My absolute favorite is American football.
M: Have you ever seen a live game
W: Sure, many times. It’s an exciting game for people to watch.
M: I’ve never really understood the game.
W: It’s not that difficult. If you want to watch a game with me, I can explain the rules and strategy while we’re watching.
M: Thanks, that’d be nice. When’s the next game
W: Not for a while, but we could watch an old one on the Internet so I can explain the game to you.
M: That’s a good idea.
W: Let’s watch the team from Oakland. They have a good owner and a great coach. (10)
M: OK.
Text 8
M: Hi, there. Do you want me to fill up the tank (11)
W: Just forty dollars’ worth of gas, please. (11) (12) And can you check the engine for me I may need a new battery.
M: No problem, ma’am… OK, the battery is fine.
W: And could you do me one more favor and check the air in my tires
M: The tire pressure is fine, although I noticed they are a little old. (13) You should get those changed immediately. It can be very dangerous in wet weather.
W: Thank you for checking that for me. How much is that going to cost me (12)
M: That’s another five dollars. (12)
W: Can I pay with my credit card
M: Sure.
Text 9
M: Are you coming out with us tonight We saved you a ticket to the concert. (14)
W: Oh, I’d love to. I’ve been looking forward to this concert forever. But I have to work overtime…
M: I thought you said that you booked the day off a long time ago. (15)
W: I did, but I’ve just gotten this new promotion, and my boss gave me this big speech about how he expects me to take on more responsibility… (15)
M: Aw, man! I paid for the ticket already. Can’t you just explain it to him
W: I could, but I feel bad. He went out of his way to speak to the head office and recommend me for the position. He also gave me tickets to the Lakers game. I feel like I owe him this.
M: All right, then I will have to sell the extra ticket online. (16)
Text 10
The bell rang softly as the woman opened the front door to the coffee shop and stepped inside. (17) She immediately saw an open table in the far right corner of the busy café, and she walked to it quickly. From here, she could have a little peace and quiet, and it was also a perfect place for people-watching — one of her favorite activities. (18) She sat down and breathed heavily, dropping her heavy bag on the ground. After a while, an elderly couple sat down at a newly empty table beside her, and her attention picked up. The couple was small and a little dusty, and their wise faces held the evidence of many years of living. (19) Here was the potential for a story. The woman pulled out her laptop and opened a new document, all the while keeping her ear sharpened to the couple’s conversation near her. As she listened to them wander through past memories and old jokes, she clicked away on her keyboard. All the stress and deadlines of her office job slipped from her mind as her creative mind came to life. Her lunch break would be over soon, and then it would be business as usual. (20) But until then, she told the old strangers’ story, one click at a time…
