2024-2025 学年度第二学期期中阶段性检测
七年级英语试题
温馨提示：
1.本试卷共两部分，共 120 分，考试时间 120 分钟。
2.请不要在本试卷上答题，1-40 题请在答题卡指定的位置上涂答案，其余题目请在答
题卡指定的位置上认真答题。
一、听力选择 (1～15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
(一) 根据你听到的内容，选出相应的图片，完成1～5 小题。
A B C D
E F G H
(二) 根据你听到的对话，判断下列句子是否符合你听到的对话内容，符合的用“T”表
示，不符合的用“F”表示。
6. Anne and Tom talks about the rules at home.
7. It’s Tom’s first day at this school.
8. They can eat snakes in class.
9. They can’t drink water in class.
10. They mustn’t bring their mobile phones to class.
(三) 短文理解，根据所听到的短文内容，选择正确答案 。
11. What is the speaker (说话者) talking about
A. Subjects. B. Future. C. Animals.
12. What are Tony’s favorite animals
2024-2025 学年度第二学期期中阶段性检测 七年级英语试题 第1 页 共8 页
A. Pandas. B. Tigers. C. Giraffes.
13. What does Jack think of (认为) tigers
A. Scary. B. Cool. C. Cute.
14. Who likes elephants best
A. Susan. B. Jenny. C. Sally.
15. Who is Sally
A. Jenny’s cousin. B. Jenny’s sister. C. Jenny’s classmate
请同学们把试卷翻到第四大题，继续做听力填空题。
二、完形填空。(16～25 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
阅读下面短文，从 16～25 各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C 和 D)中，选出最佳选项。
One of American people’s favorite foods is the hamburger. 16 are hamburger s
popular (受欢迎的) in America Because most Americans live a fast-paced (快节奏的) life
and they don’t want to 17 too much time cooking. For them, 18 are easy to get.
The best 19 to buy hamburgers is the fast food restaurant. People 20 thei r
food there, and then they just wait for a few minutes 21 their food is ready .
They can 22 the food there or take it home. In the fast food restaurant, people ca n
also buy 23 foods, such as chickens, ice cream and potato chips.
Now hamburgers are popular in a lot of 24 in the world. Many people love to ea t
them. But we should remember that eating too many hamburgers is not good 25 ou r
health.
16. A. When B. Why C. Where D. Ho w
17. A. pay B. spend C. use D. take
18. A. noodles B. cakes C. salad D. hamburgers
19. A. idea B. time C. place D. way
20. A. order B. put C. enjoy D. leave
21. A. so B. before C. after D. because
22. A. eat B. buy C. find D. cook
23. A. another B. a C. an D. other
24. A. rooms B. countries C. schools D. offices
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25. A. for B. at C. to D. with
三、 阅读理解 (26~40 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 30 分)
阅读下面两篇短文，从 26~31 各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C 和 D)中，选出最佳选项。
A
Welcome to Greenland Zoo. There are many kinds of animals from different places.
Here you can see the elephants, the tigers and the peacocks (孔雀) from Asia, the giraffes
from Africa and the koalas from Australia. There are also some cute pandas from China.
You can take photos of them, but you can’t get close or give food to them. There is a sign ,
saying “Don’t feed the animals.”
Opening Time: Weekdays: 9:00 a.m. - 4:00 p.m.; Weekends: 8:30 a.m. - 5:30 p.m.
Ticket (票) Price: Adults (成年人): $ 20 for each perso n
Children: $ 5 for each child under 18.
For more information, please call us at 6561234.
26.Where are the tigers from in the Greenland Zoo
A. Antarctica. B. Asia. C. Africa. D. Australia.
27. What does the underlined (划线的) word “sign” mean (意思是) in Chinese
A. 办公室 B. 学校 C. 体育馆 D. 指示牌
28. What time can people visit Greenland Zoo
A. At 8:30 a.m. on Mondays. B. At 4:30 p.m. on Tuesdays.
C. At 9:00 a.m. on Saturdays. D. At 6:00 p.m. on Sundays.
B
Families and schools have rules to help boys and girls. Some of them think the rules
are very important, but some don’t think so. Sally and her cousin Jane are good students in
the same school. They think rules are important in their life. One day, Sally has a good idea.
She wants to write a book of rules to help some naughty (调皮的) boys in her school. She
thinks the book can help them be good students. If a boy doesn’t follow the rules, he has to
help his family do a thing.
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Sally asks Jane for help. Sally makes some school rules like “Do homework first.” and
“Don’t be late for school.” There are also some interesting rules in the book “Don’t eat
other people’s food.” and “Be happy.” Jane draws some pictures for the book.
When those naughty boys read the book, they like it very much. And they do as it says .
Their parents want to read the book too.
29. What’s the relationship (关系) between Sally and Jane
A. Sisters. B. Cousins. C. Friends. D. Classmates.
30. Why does Sally want to write the book
A. Because she is good at writing.
B. Because she wants to be a good student.
C. Because she wants to help some naughty boys.
D. Because she knows many interesting rules.
31. What does the underlined (划线的) word “it” refer to (指的是)
A. The book. B. The rule. C. The teacher. D. The school.
C
读下面的文章，然后判断文章后面 32~35 小题，正确的答案写 T，错误的答案写 F。
Hello, everyone. My name is Wu Hua. I live on a busy street, but it’s lucky that my
community (社区) is very quiet. There is a new restaurant in our community. It’s not big
but very modern. My parents and I often go there to eat. My father often orders fish and it
is his favorite. My mother likes dumplings and I like noodles. The restaurant has beef
noodles, mutton noodles and vegetable noodles. I always choose beef noodles for lunch.
Sometimes I have Mapo tofo, rice and chickens soup. The delicious chicken soup is the
restaurant’s special dish. Some dishes are half price there on Sunday, so there are many
people on that day.
Next Sunday is my thirteenth birthday. My parents want to have a party for me in the restaurant. I will invite my friends to my party, and I’m sure they will love the restaurant.
32. The restaurant is small and modern.
2024-2025 学年度第二学期期中阶段性检测 七年级英语试题 第 4 页 共 8 页
33. Wu Hua’s father likes fish best.
34. Mapo tofo is the restaurant’s special dish.
35. Wu Hua’s birthday is next Saturday.
D
七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分 ）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入 36~40 小题横线上的最佳选项。
I’m Wang Ling. 36 From Monday to Friday, I have to get up at 6:30 a.m. 37 Afte r
breakfast, I take the bus to school. After school I have to go home, so I have no time to play
with my friends. 38 I can’t watch TV before I finish my homework. I usuall y
spend about one hour doing my homework. 39 After dinner I can watch T V
for half an hour. Then I have to practise the piano in my room. At ten o’clock, I
take a shower. 40 On weekends, I have to wash my clothes. I have to clean m y
room. I don’t have fun. What can I do
A. Then I go to bed.
B. I have to eat breakfast before seven.
C. There are many rules in my home.
D. I have dinner at seven in the evening.
E. After I get home, I have to do my homework first.
F. I often play football with my friends.
G. I practice the piano every day.
四、 听力填空（41~45 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分 ）
听下面一段短文，请根据所听内容完成下面的填空。每个空一词。把答案写在答题卡
41~45 小题的横线上。
41. Elephants have large ears and __________ trunks.
42. They can also remember places with food and water __________ many years .
2024-2025 学年度第二学期期中阶段性检测 七年级英语试题 第 5 页 共 8 页
43. But people __________ down many trees.
44. People also __________ elephants for their ivory .
45. Let’s __________ the forests and not buy things made of ivory.
五、单词填空（46~55 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分 ）
从方框内选择适当的词，并用其正确形式填空。 把答案写在答题卡 46～55 小题的横线上。
water, and, because, they, Second, bad, say, friend, a,
vegetable s
Healthy eating is important for a healthy body and mind. Both what we eat 46 how w e
eat are important. I have some good eating habits. I eat three meals 47 day, and I
have 48 on time. I eat a lot of 49 too. Some of my 50 don’t like carrots o r
other vegetables.
However, I have some 51 habits too. First, I drink too many soft drinks. I lov e
soft drinks 52 they taste so good. But soft drinks usually have a lot of sugar. They’r e
bad for me. 53 , I don’t drink enough 54 . I love juice, but my mum 55 tha t
it’s not good to drink too much of it.
六、整理笔记（56～60 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
读下面的文章，请在答题卡 56～60 每个题目下做简单的笔记。
How to live to 100
Do you want to live to 100 Here are some helpful tips.
Start your day with a healthy breakfast. An egg, milk and bread are great for
breakfast. They make you strong. For lunch and dinner, you can have rice, vegetables and
some meat. Try to eat healthy snacks like an apple or orange but not sweets. Sweets give
you energy, but too many of them are bad for your health.
To stay fit, try to exercise for about 30 minutes every day. You can swim, run or play
football. Walking is also good exercise.
So, change your lifestyle today! You can feel young and healthy with the right food and
exercise.
Breakfast: 56 ;
Lunch and dinner: 5 7
2024-2025 学年度第二学期期中阶段性检测 七年级英语试题 第 6 页 共 8 页
Have a healthy diet Healthy snakes: 5 8
How to live to 100
59 every day Swim, run, play football;
60 is also good exercise.
七、补全句子(61～65小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
根据汉语意思完成英语句子，每个空格填一个单词。把答案写在答题卡61～65小题的
横线上。
61. 你为什么不喜欢狐狸？
Why ___________ you like ___________
62. 你能把钢笔借给我吗 ？
Can you ___________ your pen ___________ me
63. 这辆黑色的轿车不属于我爸爸，它是我的。
The black car doesn’t ___________ to my father. It’s ___________.
64. 一天一个苹果，医生远离我。
An apple a day __________ the doctor ___________.
65. 他们太忙了，没时间吃东西 。
They are ___________ busy ___________ eat anything.
八、回答问题。 (66~70 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分 )
读下面的文章，回答问题，把答案写在答题卡 66～70 小题的横线上。
Dear Mr. Yang,
I’m not well these days. I don’t feel happy because there are too many rules!
At six o’clock in the morning, it’s time for me to get up. After brushing my teeth and
getting dressed, my mum asks me to listen to English news for half an hour. She says it’s
good for my listening skills (技能). Then I have breakfast. I can’t leave the dirty dishes in
the kitchen. I always arrive at school on time because I don’t want to be late for class. At
school, we have more rules. We can’t be noisy, don’t eat in class, treat our teachers and
classmates with respect...
In my free time, when I play basketball near my home, my father stops me angrily. But
basketball is my favorite sport and I want to relax. I have to start to do my homework after
I come back home. After dinner, I can’t have a rest either. I must read some books. And
then I have to go to bed before 10:00 .
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Rules! Rules! It’s awful! What can I do Please help me.
Yours.
Molly
66. What time does Molly get up every morning
67. Who asks Molly to listen to English news
68. Does Molly have more rules at school
69. What’s Molly’s favorite sport
70. Are there any rules in your family What do you think of (认为) them
九、书面表达 (满分 15 分）
71. 假如你是夏林，请根据下面表格中的提示和写作要求，用英语写一篇短文，介绍
自己和家人的运动情况。
Family members Favorite sport Why he / she likes it How often he /she does it
Father basketball fun, good exercise twice a week
Mother swimming relaxing three times a week
Xia Lin tennis interesting once or twice at weekends
写作要求：
1. 短文应包括以上所有提示信息，可适当发挥；
2. 文中不得出现真实的人名、校名等；
3. 词数 70 左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）。
Hello, everyone! My name is Xia Lin. ___________________________________________ _
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七年级英语参考答案
一、听力选择 (1～15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
1-5 HFGDA 6-10 FTFFT 11-15 CABAC
二、完形填空。(16～25 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
16-20 BBDCA 21-25 BADBA
三、 阅读理解 (26~31 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 30 分)
26-28 BDC 29-31 BCA 32-35 TTFF 36-40 CBEDA
四、 听力填空（41~45 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
41. long 42. after 43. cut 44. kill 45. save
五、单词填空 （46～55 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分）
46. and 47. a 48. them 49. vegetables 50. friends
51. bad 52. because 53. Second 54. water 55. says
六、整理笔记（56～60 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分）
56. An/an egg, milk and bread
57. rice, vegetables and some meat
58. an apple or orange
59. Exercise / exercise (for about 30 minutes)/Try to exercise for about 30 minutes
60. Walking 注意：W不大写扣1分
评卷时：本大题答案意思对即可，可以有不同过得表述。错三个词扣一分。
七、补全句子(61～65小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
61. don’t, foxes 62. lend, to 63. belong, mine 64. keeps, away 65. too, to
注意：每小题满分 2 分，每空一分。
八、回答问题。 (66~70 小题，每小题 2 分，满分 10 分)
66. She gets up at six o’clock in the morning./ At six o’clock./ At six o’clock in the morning.
67. Molly’s mom. / Her mom. /Her mom asks her to listen to English news.
68. Yes, she does./ Yes.
69. Basketball./ Her favorite sport is basketball.
70. 答案自定，表述合理即可。
九、书面表达 (满分15分）
一、评分原则：
1.本题总分为 15 分，按五个档次给分。
2.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次
的要求，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.词数不符合要求 的，从总分中减去 2 分。
4.评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文
的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
英、美拼写及词汇均可接受。
6.如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点：参考提供的要点。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档(很好)：（13—15 分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
■覆盖所有内容要点。
■应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
■语法结构和词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或高级词汇所致；具备较强的
语言运用能力。
■有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档(好)： （10—12 分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
■虽漏掉了 1、2 个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
■应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务要求。
■语法结构或词汇方面基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
■运用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(适当)：（7—9 分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
■虽漏掉了一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
■应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
■有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
■应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(较差)：（4—6 分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
■漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
■语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
■有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
■较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(差)： （1—3 分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
■明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
■语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
■缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。0 分未能传达给读者任何信
息：内容太少，无法判断；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。四、说明：
1.内容要点可用不同方式表达。
2.对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。
