2025 年 (上) 九年级英语学科期中学能诊断卷
考生须知:
1. 全卷共 76 小题,满分为 120 分。考试时间为 100 分钟。
2. 全卷分为四个部分,全部在“答题纸”上作答。选择题的答案必须用 2B 铅笔填涂;非选择题
的答案必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔写在“答题纸”的相应位置上。
3. 请用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔在“答题纸”上先填写姓名和准考证号。
第一部分 听力 (共三节,满分 20 分)
第一节 (共 5 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
听下面五段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选
项,并填涂在答题卡的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟。
听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the girl want to buy 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. A skirt. B. A coat. C. A T-shirt.
2. What is Charlie’s hobby 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Reading books. B. Drawing pictures. C. Listening to music.
3. When will the meeting start 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. At 10: 30 a.m. B. At 10: 45 a.m. C. At 11: 00 a.m.
4. Where will Lisa go this weekend 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. To the zoo. B. To the museum. C. To the park.
5. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
A. Teacher and student. B. Father and daughter. C. Shop worker and customer.
第二节 (共 5 小题,每小题 1. 5 分,满分 7. 5 分)
听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳
选项,并填涂在答题卡的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒
钟。听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答下列小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
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6. What’s Sam’s plan for this summer
A. To stay on a farm. B. To learn how to drive. C. To join a science camp.
7. How long will the summer plan take Sam
A. About 10 days. B. About 15 days. C. About 24 days.
听下面一段较长对话,回答下列小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
8. Why did Susan join a voluntary group
A. To clean the beach. B. To save sea animals. C. To help the poor.
9. What does Susan think of her voluntary work
A. Easy but tiring. B. Hard but meaningful. C. Interesting and easy.
10. How can Peter join the voluntary group
A. By making a call. B. By writing an email. C. By visiting the website.
第三节 (共 5 小题,每小题 1. 5 分,满分 7. 5 分)
听下面一段独白。独白后有五个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。独白读两遍。 【此
处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
11. Who is Simon
A. Gina’s classmate. B. Gina’s teacher. C. Gina’s father.
12. What does Gina like most about English classes
A. Jokes. B. Games. C. Stories.
13. What does Gina think of Simon
A. Strict. B. Polite. C. Humorous.
14. What problem does Gina have in English learning
A. She is bad at speaking English.
B. She can’t remember the new words.
C. She has trouble with English listening.
15. Why does Gina write the email
A. To tell Simon to make some changes.
B. To ask for advice about learning English.
C. To invite Simon to practise English together.
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第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分 40 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题,每小题 2 分,满分 30 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C 和 D) 中选出最佳选项。
A
Homemade smoothies are a fun and easy way to let your kids play with their food in the best way possible! It’s a great
way to let them explore their taste buds while learning about healthy choices
The best part about homemade smoothies is that you can make them just the way you like. Your children can pick their
favourite fruits. They can mix different fruits to make new tastes. And they can put fun things on top, like biscuits or
chocolates.
Ingredients
★1—2 cups of fresh or frozen (冷冻的) fruit, like bananas, strawberries, etc
★1 cup of milk or juice
★half a cup of yogurt
Instructions
★Add 1-2 cups of fruit to your blender.
★Pour in 1 cup of milk or juice.
★Add half a cup of yogurt and any add-ins you enjoy such as honey or cream.
★Blend (搅拌) until smooth.
★Taste the smoothie and put your favourite toppings. Add different fruits to make the taste better if necessary. Enjoy
it!
Making smoothies is a great hands-on activity that the whole family can enjoy!
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16. Who is the text probably written for
A. Children. B. Parents. C. Teachers. D. Students.
17. What can we know about homemade smoothies according to the passage
A. The best part is kids will make them for parents.
B. Start blending before you pour in milk or juice.
C. Only fresh fruit is good for homemade smoothies.
D. Everyone in the family can enjoy the hands-on activity.
18. In which part of the website can the text be found
A. Fire Safety. B. Outdoor Fun. C. Healthy Meat. D. Homemade Drinks.
B
①It’s time to fasten your seat belts and get ready for a ride into the future. The last few years has seen rapid
tech development and the next 10 years are sure to be even more mind-blowing. So sit back, relax and let’s dive
into the world of tomorrow.
②AI powered personal assistants (助手). They are going to become a common part of our life, helping us
manage our timetables and answer all our questions. AI systems will be able to learn from our likes and habits,
helping them provide us with a more personalized experience.
③Space tourism. Space tourism is going to come true with private companies offering trips to space for those
who can afford them. This will give people a chance to experience space travel and will lead to a greater view of
our place in the universe. Soon enough, a summer vacation on the moon won’t be such a big deal.
④Better biotechnology (生物科技). Development in biotechnology, such as gene editing, will help us treat
illnesses that doctors weren’t able to deal with in the past. Soon, we might find ways to fix genetic problems that
make people sick. Also, new medicine can help our bodies grow back parts that are hurt or broken,
⑤More immersive reality (沉浸式现实). Imagine going on a field trip to the Great Barrier Reef or doing a
walkabout in the Louvre Museum without leaving your classroom. With immersive reality, you can explore
different parts of the world and experience hands-on learning in a completely new and interesting way.
⑥Which of these future technologies are you most excited for The future isn’t just coming; it’s ours to create.
19. How will AI give humans a more personalized experience in the future
A. By using the Internet. B. By sharing space travel experiences.
C. By studying their likes and habits. D. By answering all their questions.
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20. What can we know from the underlined sentence in Paragraph 3
A. A trip to the moon will take a long time.
B. Everyone will be able to afford a trip to the moon.
C. Taking a vacation on the moon will become common.
D. Only private companies can take visitors to the moon.
21. What will immersive reality help students do according to the passage
A. Manage their timetables. B. Visit Mars in a spaceship.
C. Fix genetic problems in their bodies. D. Experience hands-on learning in a new way.
22. Which of the following is the right structure of the passage
A. B. C. D.
C
Wake up early enough and, depending on where you are, you’ll likely hear a pleasant chorus of birds chirping
(叽叽喳喳) their tiny hearts out. It’s natural to hear that in the early morning, but why
According to the Woodland Trust, this early singing is known as the dawn chorus, and it can start as early as 4
a.m. and last for several hours. Birds do it to get mates (配偶) and warn other birds to keep away. One opinion as to
why they choose to communicate these important messages in early morning is because it’s too dark to do other
bird activities. Instead of looking for food outside, they turn to sing.
Some believe that birds use the morning singing to show they’re strong and full of power. By singing with
happiness, they’re letting other birds know they survived the night—no easy job in nature—and would make for an
excellent mate.
Like a good recording studio, the early morning hours also allow birds to produce a clear sound thanks to the
cooler, drier air. Because birds have their own special sounds, that helps other birds within listening distance tell
who they are easily.
There used to be a popular opinion that birds sang so much in the mornings because the sounds could travel
greater distances because of less atmospheric turbulence (湍流), but researchers at the University of Western
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Ontario proved it wrong in 2003. They played recordings of sparrows at dawn and midday. The songs didn’t travel
farther at dawn, but they were more consistent (连贯的).
Birds don’t have a lot of energy. So it makes sense for them to sing when they’re most likely to be heard. For a
bird, an early morning session is like having the perfect environment for their performance.
23. What is the dawn chorus
A. Birds singing in the morning. B. Birds singing at noon.
C. Birds singing in the evening. D. Birds singing at late night.
24. According to Paragraph 3, why do birds sing in the morning
A. To keep away from danger. B. To look for food more easily.
C. To warn other birds to stay away. D. To show they are strong and powerful.
25. What does the underlined word “it” refer to in Paragraph 5
A. Birds only sing in the morning. B. Sparrows are different from other birds.
C. Birds’ singing travels much farther in the morning. D. The air is cooler and drier in the early morning.
26. What’s the main idea of the passage
A. The reasons why birds sing in the morning.
B. The research to study how birds find mates.
C. The ways to hear birds singing in the morning.
D. The opinions to explain why birds’ singing travels far.
D
Li Cuili, a farmer from a village in Henan Province, was thought to be a strange woman when she decided to
open a library at her store, providing books for villagers to read for free in 2008.
That idea first came from a mother’s love for her child. That year, she watched a show in her village with her
son. To her surprise, the show was vulgar (低俗的) and awful for children. Feeling worried that children would
grow up in such an environment, she wanted to change the situation and began to offer books to villagers.
At the very beginning, no villager came forward. Li decided to interest children first. She offered sugar to
children who came to read, borrow books and write book reviews. In this way, more and more children came. Their
parents were surprised to discover children behaved much better than before as they went to Li’s library to read at
once after school. Then villagers began to speak highly of Li’s efforts and offer support, and many of them began to
borrow books as well and worked as volunteers at the library in their free time. Villagers have seen Li’s library
grow from a small space with only 200 books to a village cultural center, with a collection of 5, 000-6, 000books.
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With the growing popularity of her library, Li met a new problem-she could not get enough books. When she
went out to get books in different ways, some people pointed at her and badmouthed her. She started to doubt
whether it was meaningful. ▲ Once, Li asked Liu Caijin, one of her readers, what she wanted to become in
the future. To her surprise, Liu thanked her a lot and said, “I want to open a book store, providing books for people
to read for free, just like you.” Li was deeply moved and decided to keep on.
Li named the library Weiguang, which means“dim (微弱 ) light”. “It is only about putting several books on
the shelves of a village store. It was nothing big at first. Yet, no matter how dim the light, it has the power to keep
the fire burning. The library has turned a new page for the children in my village, ” says Li.
27. Why was Li Cuili thought to be a strange woman in 2008
A. Because she opened a new store.
B. Because she watched a vulgar show in the village.
C. Because she provided books for villagers to read for free.
D. Because she gave sugar to children in her village.
28. What can we know from Paragraph 3
A. Why no one went to Li’s library. B. Where the books are kept in the library.
C. How Li got the idea of opening a library. D. What changes the library has brought to the village.
29. Which of the following can be put in the “ ▲ ” in Paragraph 4
A. So she cried day and night. B. But her readers encouraged her.
C. And she closed her library down. D. Then she moved to the city center.
30. What can be the best title of the passage
A. Turning a New Page for Children B. Building a Village Cultural Center
C. Getting Into the Habit of Writing Books D. Bringing Hope to Children in the West
第二节 (共 5 小题,每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
阅读下面材料,从方框中所给的 A—E 五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项),将其序号填入第
1—4 小题,并回答第 5 小题。
Dog Days magazine had a chance to talk with trainer Mary Fineday at the Bloomsday Dog Show in Rochester,
New York.
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Dog Days: Thank you for meeting with us on such a busy day. We can’t wait to meet your dog. ____31____
Mary Fineday: Sure. I’m brushing Anna, my dog. Her golden fur (皮毛) can easily get dirty when she runs
around. I want to make sure she looks perfect for the competition.
Dog Days: ____32____
Mary Fineday: She’s three and a half years old, and we’ve raised her from the day she was born. She eats the
finest cuts of meat and exercises on a track (轨道) that was built just for her.
Dog Days: ____33____ Does Anna enjoy the dog show as much as you do
Mary Fineday: Anna has a great time. She loves the attention and the chance to show her skills. She’s trained
to run and jump at exactly the right time. She knows she’ll get a prize if she does well.
Dog Days: ____34____ $50, 000, if Anna wins.
Mary Fineday: It’s true. If we win, we’ll donate part of the prize money to dog charities. The rest of it will go
toward taking care of Anna and the other dogs at our dog club.
A. That’s one lucky dog!
B. Where did you get Anna
C. You will get a nice prize, too.
D. How long have you had Anna
E Can you tell us what you’re doing right now
What do you think of Mary Fineday Why (不超过 20 词)
_______________35_______________
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节,满分 40 分)
第一节 完形填空 (共 15 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
Liam was a shy boy. One day, his English teacher, Mr. Thompson, said there would be a poetry competition.
“Liam, you should enter,” Mr. Thompson ___36___ after class.
Liam’s heart lost a beat, “I’m not sure I’m good enough.”
Mr. Thompson smiled ___37___ . “You have a wonderful voice, Liam. Let it be heard.”
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That evening, alone in his room, his mind was full of ___38___ and fear. What if he lost face in front of
everyone
His sister, Emma, ___39___ , “Hey, how’s the poem coming along ”
“It’s…I don’t even know where to start.” Liam replied, feeling unsure about ___40___ .
Emma moved closer, “Why not write about ___41___ you care about ”
Liam nodded slowly. “Yeah, I think I could do that. ___42___ what if it’s not good enough ”
“Liam, you’re always good enough. Just be brave. Write from your heart. That’s what people ___43___ with. ”
His face lit up, “Thanks, Emma. I think I know ___44___ to write.”
The day of the competition arrived. Liam’s heart raced at first. But then he remembered Mr. Thompson’s
encouragement and Emma’s ___45___. Taking a deep breath, he began to read, his voice clear and ___46___.
As he spoke, the room seemed to disappear, leaving only him and his words. He felt a connection with the
audience (观众) , as if they were ___47___ in his journey. When he finished, the room was ___48___ for a
moment. A moment later, applause (掌声) filled the air. He had done it! Later, Mr. Thompson hugged him,
___49___ shining in his eyes.
Liam realized that with a bit of encouragement and the ___50___ to express oneself, one can overcome fears
and create something wonderful!
36. A. shouted B. agreed C. answered D. suggested
37. A. warmly B. bravely C. angrily D. nervously
38. A. joy B. doubt C. happiness D. attention
39. A. drove away B. walked in C. turned around D. woke up
40. A. herself B. myself C. himself D. itself
41. A. anything B. nothing C. something D. everything
42. A. So B. But C. And D. Or
43. A. compare B. argue C. deal D. connect
44. A. why B. what C. where D. when
45. A. duty B. training C. humour D. support
46. A. weak B. sweet C. nervous D. confident
47. A. hiding B. sharing C. waiting D. thinking
48. A. silent B. empty C. bright D. crowded
49. A. pride B. worry C. sadness D. regret
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50. A. time B. money C. courage D. luck
第二节 词汇运用 (共 15 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
A)
将方框中所给的词语的适当形式填入短文中,每词仅用一次。
visitor, through, joy, more than,
open
The world’s funniest museum has opened in Zagreb, the capital city of Croatia. The HaHa House ___51___ its
doors on January 10th, 2025, and aims to make people of all ages laugh. On arrival, visitors must first pass
___52___ the museum’s “happiness scanner (扫描仪) ” before they get to experience ___53___ 40 other humorous
areas. One of the most famous is the “Happy Portal”, which takes ___54___ to the “Playground of Laughter”.
Creator Andrea Golubic said the museum is her way of “spreading ___55___ and connecting through laughter”.
B)
阅读下面短文,根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词 正确形式。每空一词。
Dear Johanna,
How are you My name is Melissa. I’ve been looking forward to having a pen pal for a long time. I hope we
can become great ___56___ (朋友).
Ever since I got your name and ___57___ (地址) from my teacher, Mrs. Sands, I have been thinking about
what to write. First, I thought of ___58___ (描述) what it’s like to go to school here in Minnesota, but then I
figured you could look up Minnesota on the Internet and read about it ___59___ (你自己). Then I had the idea to
tell you about my family, but I realized that the story of my little brother losing a ___60___ (牙齿) or the time we
got a new baby cat might be kind of ___61___ (无聊的). After that, I thought about asking you questions about
what it’s like to ___62___ (居住) in Belgium, but I was afraid you might think my questions were ___63___ (愚蠢
的). Then I thought for a while.
Now I ___64___ (猜测) I can tell you a little about myself. I have a round face with short brown hair. In fact,
you’ve probably ___65___ (已经) learned one thing about me. I sometimes have a hard time making up my mind!
I hope you will write me back anyway.
Yours,
Melissa
第三节 语法填空 (共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容 (1 个单词) 或括号内单词的正确形式。
第 10页/共 16页
When Geetha moves to the United States with her mom, she leaves her family behind in India. The change isn’
t ___66___ (easy). At school, people make fun of her. To feel better, Geetha plays her flute (长笛) and ___67___
(visit) the beach. She meets Miguel, and they help save ___68___ baby seal (海豹). Visiting the pup (幼崽) makes
Geetha happy. She and Miguel start a ___69___ (project) to clean up the beach.
In the book Safe Harbor, the ___70___ (success) writer and sea animal scientist Padma Venkatraman
encourages readers to find ways to help the environment. “Never think ___71___ you are doing is too small,”
Venkatraman says. “We need to think big as well as small. Learn ___72___ (speak) up and stand up for what we
need. ”
Safe Harbor not only tells a story about helping animals, ___73___ also explores things like the immigrant (移
民) experience, family, and dealing with changes ___74___ (wise). Venkatraman wants young readers to feel
encouraged to clean up the environment and ask ___75___ help in doing it. “All of us can do something,” she says.
第四部分 书面表达 (共 1 小题,满分 20 分)
76. 假如你是李华,你的英国好友 Mike 对中国传统节日很感兴趣。请你结合下表提示,给 Mike 写一
封邮件,介绍其中一项传统节日。
Festival Spring Festival Mid-Autumn Festival
Time in January or February in September or October
★have a big family dinner ★get together with families
★welcome the new year ★have mooncakes Activity
★visit relatives ★enjoy the moon
★… ★…
the biggest day of the year, saying the symbol of being together,
Meaning goodbye to the old year and missing family members far
welcoming the new start, … away, …
要求: (1) 邮件中必须包含表格中的信息,并适当发挥;
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(2) 文中不得出现真实的姓名、学校等信息;
(3) 词数 80 左右,文章的开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Mike,
Glad to hear from you.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
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2025 年 (上) 九年级英语学科期中学能诊断卷
考生须知:
1. 全卷共 76 小题,满分为 120 分。考试时间为 100 分钟。
2. 全卷分为四个部分,全部在“答题纸”上作答。选择题的答案必须用 2B 铅笔填涂;非选择题
的答案必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔写在“答题纸”的相应位置上。
3. 请用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔在“答题纸”上先填写姓名和准考证号。
第一部分 听力 (共三节,满分 20 分)
第一节 (共 5 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
听下面五段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选
项,并填涂在答题卡的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟。
听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话仅读一遍。
【1 题答案】
【答案】A
【2 题答案】
【答案】C
【3 题答案】
【答案】C
【4 题答案】
【答案】B
【5 题答案】
【答案】A
第二节 (共 5 小题,每小题 1. 5 分,满分 7. 5 分)
听下面两段较长对话。每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳
选项,并填涂在答题卡的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒
钟。听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
【6~7 题答案】
【答案】6. A 7. A
【8~10 题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. B 10. C
第三节 (共 5 小题,每小题 1. 5 分,满分 7. 5 分)
【11~15 题答案】
【答案】11. B 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. B
第 13页/共 16页
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分 40 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题,每小题 2 分,满分 30 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C 和 D) 中选出最佳选项。
A
【16~18 题答案】
【答案】16. B 17. D 18. D
B
【19~22 题答案】
【答案】19. C 20. C 21. D 22. B
C
【23~26 题答案】
【答案】23. A 24. D 25. C 26. A
D
【27~30 题答案】
【答案】27. C 28. D 29. B 30. A
第二节 (共 5 小题,每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
【31~35 题答案】
【答案】31. E 32. D
33. A 34. C
35. I think she is kind because she will donate part of the prize money to dog charities.
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节,满分 40 分)
第一节 完形填空 (共 15 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
【36~50 题答案】
【答案】36. D 37. A 38. B 39. B 40. C 41. C 42. B 43. D 44. B 45. D
46. D 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. C
第二节 词汇运用 (共 15 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
A)
【51~55 题答案】
【答案】51. opened
52. through
53. more than
54. visitors
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55. joy
B)
【56~65 题答案】
【答案】56. friends
57. address
58. describing
59. yourself
60. tooth 61. boring
62. live 63. silly##stupid
64. guess 65. already
第三节 语法填空 (共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
【66~75 题答案】
【答案】66. easy
67. visits 68. a
69. project
70. successful
71. what 72. to speak
73. but 74. wisely
75. for
第四部分 书面表达 (共 1 小题,满分 20 分)
【76 题答案】
【答案】
Dear Mike,
Glad to hear from you. I’m excited to share with you the details of the Spring Festival, the most important
festival in China!
It falls in January or February, marking the biggest day of the year. We do many interesting things together.
Families gather for a big dinner and light fireworks to welcome the new year. We also visit relatives to wish them a
happy new year. The festival is about saying goodbye to the past and welcoming a new start.
Welcome to China and experience it with me! I’m sure you’ll love it!
Yours,
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Li Hua
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