重庆市沙坪坝区2024-2025学年八年级下学期 期中英语试题(含答案及听力音频,无听力原文)

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名称 重庆市沙坪坝区2024-2025学年八年级下学期 期中英语试题(含答案及听力音频,无听力原文)
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2025 年重庆初 2026 届初二下半期考试
英 语 试 题 卷
(全卷共十个大题 满分:150 分 考试时间:120 分钟)
注意事项:
1. 答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写在答题卡上。
2. 作答时,务必将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷及草稿纸上无效。
3. 考试结束后,将答题卡交回。
第 I 卷(共 95 分)
I. 听力测试。(共 35 分)
第一节(每小题 1 分,共 6 分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子,从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最恰当的答语,并把答题卡上对应题目
的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. No problem. B. See you. C. Yes, please.
2. A. How nice you are! B. OK, I will. C. Nice to meet you!
3. A. That’s right. B. It doesn’t matter. C. Good idea.
4. A. So do I. B. I agree. C. You did it.
5. A. I had a fever. B. I was listening to music. C. I’m playing basketball.
6. A. By train. B. I’m fine. C. It was wonderful.
第二节(每小题 1.5 分,共 9 分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题,从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题
目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. / am/ B. / ɑ k/ C. / d/
8. A. A watch. B. A pair of sports shoes. C. A pair of trousers.
9. A. The music. B. The story. C. The actor.
10. A. Mike. B. Jim. C. Mike and Jim.
11. A. Yesterday morning. B. Last night. C. This morning.
12. A. B. C.
第三节(每小题 1.5 分,共 6 分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话,从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的
答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料,回答第 13 和 14 小题。
13. What did Emma want to give up
A. The singing competition. B. The music class. C. The math exam.
14. What’s the relationship between the speakers
A. Teacher and student. B. Husband and wife. C. Father and daughter.
听第二段材料,回答第 15 和 16 小题。
15. What was Peter doing when the rainstorm came
A. Helping his mom. B. Waiting for the bus. C. Driving a car.
16. How did Mary go back home at last
A. By car. B. By bus. C. On foot.
第四节(每小题 1.5 分,共 6 分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容,从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡对应题目的
答案标号涂黑。
17. What did Jenny do on May Day
A. She visited her grandma.
B. She went to the countryside.
C. She helped her mom wash the clothes.
18. Why did Jessica read books for her grandma
A. Because she is good at reading.
B. Because her grandma can’t read.
C. Because her grandma likes reading.
19. How did David feel about his experience in the countryside
A. Terrible. B. Unforgettable. C. Exciting.
20. According to the speaker, what did these students get from their May Day activities
A. The happiness of helping others.
B. The achievement of winning a game.
C. The excitement of visiting new places.
第五节(每小题 2 分,共 8 分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容,在空格处填上最恰当的词或词块,并把答案填写到答题卡上对应
的位置。
The date of the festival April, 30th
The name of the play Hansel and Gretel
The number of the performers 21
The preparation Adding an ending, practicing and 22 notices
The role I played The 23
My opinion about the role A 24 person
II. 语法选择。(每小题 1 分,共 10 分)
根据短文内容,从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个语法正确的答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号
涂黑。
Twelve years ago, I just started high school. But quickly I fell in love 25 photography (摄影). I made
my first short film in my first film class, and my teacher saw 26 in me. He said, “You’ve got a good eye.
You should think about doing this for a living.” That moment 27 my life and I began my journey to
become 28 artist.
The idea of using the camera to create something excited me. A week later, I started to take photos of different
things. At first, I liked to record (记录) nature more than people 29 I was very shy. But as I became more
30 in the art, I wanted badly to bring out the beauty in people. I started by taking pictures of 31 .
However, the photos only showed my expressionless (毫无表情的) face.
One day, I happened to meet Linda and showed her my photos. She advised me 32 myself better first.
It took me another six 33 to practice taking pictures of myself. Slowly, I became more confident with the
camera.
I finally began taking photos of others. After 34 a long time improving my skills, I learned that
photography is more than just taking pictures — it’s also a journey of knowing oneself.
25. A. in B. with C. at
26. A. something B. nothing C. anything
27. A. changed B. changes C. change
28. A. a B. an C. the
29. A. because B. so C. but
30. A. interest B. interesting C. interested
31. A. I B. me C. myself
32. A. know B. knowing C. to know
33. A. month B. months C. months’
34. A. spent B. spend C. spending
III. 完形填空。(每小题 1 分,共 10 分)
根据短文内容,从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对
应题目的答案标号涂黑。
People love to compete — whether it’s rushing to get on a bus or comparing social media “likes”. We often
think of competitions as “win or lose”. A famous race car driver Dale Earnhardt once said, “Second place is just the
35 loser.”
36 the competitive spirit is as natural as breathing air, it does not always lead humans to a better
future. Luckily, there is a way to 37 this problem: Instead of always going for gold, we can shoot for the
bronze (铜牌) sometimes.
If second place is the first loser, just like Dale Earnhardt said, third place can be the real 38 — at least
when it comes to happiness and longevity (长 寿 ). A study shows that in the Olympics, most bronze winners
seemed 39 than silver (银牌) winners. During award ceremonies (颁奖礼), bronze winners smiled more
than silver winners. Another study shows that the sports players who won silver lived to be 72 years old. Gold
winners lived to 76. They 40 the silver winners by 4 years. But the first prize in longevity went to bronze
winners who lived to 78. Why Researchers explain that silver winners see themselves 41 the first loser
because they look up to the top and compare themselves only with the gold winners, while the bronze winners
compared themselves with all the others who 42 made it onto the podium (领奖台) at all.
It’s silly for many people to believe that 43 comes from fighting for gold all the time, because most
competitions against others only cause stress and lower happiness. The only thing you have to do is to compare
44 with yourself. Try to make yourself clear. And then you will have a feeling of “winning”.
35. A. first B. second C. third D. last
36. A. Because B. Although C. But D. So
37. A. take out B. put up C. work out D. make up
38. A. cheat B. winner C. performer D. visitor
39. A. angrier B. sadder C. friendlier D. happier
40. A. beat B. won C. lost D. hid
41. A. with B. in C. as D. after
42. A. always B. usually C. sometimes D. never
43. A. happiness B. pressure C. trouble D. competition
44. A. me B. you C. them D. us
IV. 阅读理解。(每小题 2 分,共 30 分)
阅读下列材料,从 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
Summer is coming. It is important to know about swimming safety.
Swim Safety Do’s Swim Safety Don’ts
Know how deep the water is. 45 Never swim outside during
No jumping if less than 9 feet. a storm
All children should take a Don’t use pool toys as life
swimming class jackets
Take away toys from the Never eat in the water.
water.
Be more careful when No running or pushing.
swimming in the sea.
45. Which of the following pictures can be put into No. 45
A. B. C. D.
46. What should children do to keep safe in the water
A. Feel free to swim in the sea. B. Swim with parents on stormy days.
C. Know how deep the water is. D. Play games and push other kids.
47. Which magazine is the text probably from
A. Tasty Times. B. Art Living. C. Sports and Health. D. Culture and History.
B
(One day, Gulliver was caught in a storm and his ship hit a rock. He was washed to the beach. Then he
walked to find a city but he was so tired that he fell asleep. When he woke up, he found himself in Lilliput and a lot
of small people were around him.)
The Emperor and I spoke to each other but neither of us understood a single word. I tried many languages but
no one could understand my words, not even the cleverest of the Emperor's followers.
After about two hours, the Emperor left with his wife, children and their servants. He
ordered some strong guards (警卫) to stop the crowd of people hurting me. An officer told
the guards to hold six men who made me angry. These men were given to me and I had to
choose their punishment (惩罚). I put five of them in my pocket. Then I pretended (假装)
to eat the sixth man. The poor man shouted terribly. The guards were worried when they
saw my knife in my hand. But I only cut the binding (捆绑物) round his hands. Then I put him on his feet and let
him go. I lifted the other five men out of my pocket and put them on the ground, too.
The people and the guards were very happy with my great kindness. They told the Emperor about it. The
Emperor ordered his men to make a bed for me and they had to join six hundred of their little beds together to make
one bed for me. At the same time, the Emperor asked all his advisers for their advice on how to deal with me. They
were very worried. If they set me free, I might be dangerous. I was eating so much food that soon all the people
would be very hungry. The farmers could not grow enough food to feed all of us. The wise men thought that they
should kill me. But it was impossible for them to dig a hole big enough to bury me. My dead body would smell
terrible. This might cause much illness all over the country.
——Adapted from Gulliver's Travels
48. What does the underlined word "them" in Paragraph 2 probably refer to
A. The servants. B. The six men. C. The guards. D. The Emperor's children.
49. What's the correct order of the following statements according to the passage
① Gulliver didn't punish the six tiny people and let them go.
② The Emperor asked his men to make a big bed for Gulliver.
③ The Emperor ordered some strong guards to protect Gulliver.
④ Gulliver's ship was caught in a storm and hit a rock.
A. ④③①② B. ③④①② C. ④①②③ D. ③①④②
50. What can we infer from this passage
A. No one in Lilliput could understand Gulliver's words.
B. The angry people in Lilliput would kill the Emperor.
C. It was difficult for the people in Lilliput to deal with Gulliver.
D. Gulliver left safely after living in Lilliput for a long time.
51. What's the best title for this passage
A. Learning Languages in Lilliput. B. The Emperor's Wrong Decisions.
C. A Dangerous Storm and A New Home. D. Gulliver's Early Experience in Lilliput.
C
These days, many kids like collecting special items called "goods" (商品). Fans in China often call them
"guzi". Among these goods, the most popular is the badge (徽章), known as "baji".
These badges are usually small and round, and there are pictures of characters from famous cartoons on them.
However, not every company (公司) can sell badges. Only some cartoon companies have the right to sell those
badges, and their prices differ a lot. Usually, common badges might cost 15 to 30 yuan while prices of some limited
edition (限量版) ones can go crazy. For example, a badge of a character from "Haikyu!!" once
sold for 72,000 yuan.
Why are teenagers so into badges Maybe in their eyes, it's a way to show love for their
favorite cartoons. When fans wear a badge of their favorite character on their bag or jacket, they
feel close to that character and the story. It's like carrying a piece of that magical world with
them. Besides, ▲ . At anime conventions (漫展), you can see some badge lovers talking
to each other, buying or selling badges, and making friends. They know they're part of a big group of people who
love the same things.
But sometimes, this love can turn into something bad. Some fans spend too much money on badges. They
might use the money for breakfast to buy an expensive badge. Others get really angry if they can't get the badge
they want, or if someone else has a better collection. This is because they care so much about showing they're the
biggest fans.
Collecting "baji" and other "guzi" can be a fun hobby. It's great to express your love for cartoons and make
friends. But it's also important to remember not to spend too much money or get too stressed about it. After all, the
real magic of cartoons is in the stories and the feelings they give us, not just in the badges we collect.
52. Why are some badges very expensive
A. Because they are made of gold. B. Because their sizes are usually very big.
C. Because they are limited editions. D. Because they have no popular characters.
53. Which sentence has the same meaning of "right" as that in Paragraph 2
A. Most people are used to using their right hands.
B. We should be able to right the wrongs of our past.
C. You have no right to stop me going into this public park.
D. Things aren't right between the two brothers after the fight.
54. Which sentence can be put in the ▲
A. some fans like to buy or sell badges at online stores
B. teenagers usually ask their parents to pay for them
C. pictures of characters on badges are from popular cartoons
D. it helps fans feel like they are a member of some group
55. What's the main purpose of this passage
A. To explain why teenagers are crazy about goods.
B. To introduce different kinds of famous cartoons.
C. To stop teenagers from buying any kind of badges.
D. To advise teenagers not to get lost in collecting badges.
D
①In April 2025, a huge sandstorm covered many parts of China. It started in northern deserts and moved
south, even reaching places like Guangdong and Hainan. People were surprised because southern areas hardly see
such sandstorms.
②The sandstorm began with strong winds. Cold air from the north met warm, wet air in the south. This
created powerful winds that pushed sand southeast. In some places, winds blew as fast as 148 kilometers per hour.
These winds picked up sand from deserts like the Gobi in northern China and Mongolia (外蒙古). The sand rose
high into the sky and traveled long distances. Scientists called this a "sand highway" in the air.
③Another reason was the dry weather. Southern China had not seen much rain before the sandstorm. Without
rain, the dust (灰尘) stayed in the air longer. This turned the sky yellow and reduced visibility (能见度). In some
cities, people couldn't see clearly beyond 500 meters.
④Desertification (荒漠化) made the problem worse. In Mongolia, overgrazing by animals and climate change
turned grasslands into deserts. This created more loose sand. About 70% of the sand in Beijing's air came from
Mongolia. Strong winds easily carried this sand into China.
⑤In Beijing, over 690 flights were canceled (取消). Trains stopped running, and soccer matches were put off.
Schools advised students to stay indoors. Parks were closed for safety. People wore masks to protect their lungs.
Doctors warned that breathing dusty air could cause health problems. Fallen trees and broken cars are seen in
neighborhoods.
⑥By April 13th, the sand crossed the Yangtze River. Being unprepared, southern cities were also influenced.
People in cities like Shenzhen saw sandstorm for the first time, and they found windows and floors covered with
dust. In Hainan, beach-goers found their sunny skies replaced by dusty haze, which kept them indoors.
⑦China has been fighting sandstorms for years. Since 1978, a tree-planting project called the "Great Green
Wall" has added millions of trees to northern deserts. These trees help block sand. But sand from Mongolia still
crosses the border. In 2023, China and Mongolia started working together to plant more trees and share
environmental technology.
56. How does the writer start the passage
A. By asking a question. B. By showing the fact.
C. By listing some numbers. D. By comparing two examples.
57. Which of the following pictures can best show the cities influenced by the sandstorm started in April
(图例: 沙尘暴 扬沙或浮尘)
A. B. C. D.
58. Which of the following best shows the structure of this passage
A. B. C. D.
59. What will be written in the next paragraph
A. How China continues dealing with sandstorms.
B. How people celebrated when the sandstorm ended.
C. What difference the sandstorm made to people's life.
D. What people's life in Mongolia is like nowadays.
V. 口语应用。(每小题 2 分,共 10 分)
阅读下面对话,从方框内 7 个选项中选择 5 个恰当的句子完成此对话,并把答题卡上对应题目的答
案标号涂黑。
A. Why not talk to her and explain
Tom: Amy, you look terrible. 60
B. Sports can make you more relaxed.
Amy: Hi, Tom. I had a big fight with my mom last night.
C. What happened
Tom: Oh no! What for
D. She shouldn't compare you with anyone else. Amy: She didn't allow me to watch TV, but I just wanted to
E. That's a good idea.
relax after school.
Tom: I get it. Teenagers really need some free time. 61 F. Parents think studying is the most important.
Amy: I tried, but she didn't listen. Besides, she kept comparing G. Hope things work out soon.
me with other students.
Tom: That's not fair. 62 Comparing usually makes us feel bad about ourselves.
Amy: Yeah, I feel so stressed. All I want to do is to relax.
Tom: Maybe you can write her a letter to express your feelings and needs.
Amy: 63 I'll give it a try. Thank you, Tom.
Tom: Not a big deal. 64
第Ⅱ卷(共 55 分)
VI. 任务型阅读。(65-66 每小题 2 分,67-68 每小题 3 分,共 10 分)
阅读下面短文,根据短文内容,完成下面各题。
Darren Watkins Jr., known online as "iShowSpeed" or "Jia Kang Ge", is a 20-year-old American YouTuber.
With over 37 million fans, his recent trip to China became very popular around the world. Millions of people
watched his live streams (直播) when he visited China. During his stay, Speed went to eight cities, like Shanghai,
Beijing, and Chongqing. This is an unforgettable journey for him.
What most impressed (使印象深刻) Speed was China's colorful culture. Speed did many cool things in China.
In Henan, he went to the Shaolin Temple and learned kung fu. It was hard work, but he enjoyed it a lot. He would
never forget wearing traditional Chinese clothes for the first time. He tried some local foods, like douzhi, tasted
strange at first, but he was brave enough to give them a try.
In big cities like Beijing and Shanghai, Speed experienced China's high-speed trains. He found it unbelievable
that the train could go so fast and smoothly. The mobile payment systems were also a big shock to him. Whether in
a store or a supermarket, Chinese people always use their phones to pay. He soon learned to use apps like Alipay
and found it super easy and convenient. Such modern technologies surprised him a lot.
During Speed's visit in China, a man from Rongchang, Chongqing, invited him to have a bite of "Rongchang
braised goose" and gave him many gifts made in Rongchang. Feeling thankful, Speed asked him to visit America
some day in return. "Rongchang Brother" isn't the only one who has shown the friendly act. Two aunties gave him
a "necklace" of chilies and a string of homemade pork sausages. Besides, one of his fans even dressed up like his
favorite soccer player Cristiano Ronaldo to welcome him. Wherever he went, people always treated him nicely.
Speed's live streams showed everyone how lively and free China really is. By sharing his real experiences, he
broke down the wrong ideas that some Western people had about China. As a foreigner said on his YouTube, "Now
we can see the real China, not just what others tell us." His videos taught everyone that it's important to see things
for yourself instead of believing everything you hear. After all, seeing is believing.
65. Did Speed's trip to China become very popular all over the world
_________________________________________________________________________________
66. How many cities in China did Speed visit this time
_________________________________________________________________________________
67. According to this passage, what makes this journey unforgettable for Speed
_________________________________________________________________________________
68. If your foreign friend wants to visit China, which city will you advise him or her to visit And explain.
_________________________________________________________________________________
VII. 读后转述。(每空 2.5 分,共 10 分)
阅读下面材料,完成方框中的读书报告,每空填入一个意思相符的词块或句子。
Have you ever asked somebody a question but they didn't reply because they were looking at their phone Or
have you gone online to play a game just for 10 minutes but when you check the time, hours passed An
organization Fairplay wants people to really think about how much time they spend using digital devices (电子设
备), such as a smartphone, or a computer. It wants people to have one day a week to live screen-free — live a day
without using any of these devices. What do you think Should people have one screen-free day a week
YES
NO
Many people spend too much time
Is the influence(影响)of digital
online. That can be bad for health.
devices good or bad That depends. For
People may have trouble in sleeping and
example, playing online games too long
concentrating (专 注 ) for long will
can cause trouble but receiving a funny
become harder. Less time spent online
dog video from a friend can make you
means more time to live in the real
feel happy. So, people should be more
world. First of all, people can take up
careful about how long they're online
more hobbies, like playing sports or
and how this makes them feel. Also, it's
reading a book. These activities help
impossible to spend a whole day without
them feel more relaxed as well as more
using these devices. They are already a
creative. What's more, people can spend
necessary part of everyone's daily life.
more time with family so that they can
Besides, what if you find yourself in
build a good relationship with their
danger and need to call someone
family members.
Summary
This passage discusses if 69 . People have different opinions about this
matter.
Some people agree with this idea because they think 70 . too much screen
time is bad for health. With a screen-free day, they can spend more time living in the
real world. First, people can relax by spending more time on hobbies. What's more,
people can 71 . build good relationships well with their family by spending
more time with them.
However, others don't think so. In their opinion, the influence of the digital
devices 72 . depends on how long people are online and how this makes them
feel. Also, these devices are part of people's daily life and can sometimes save people
from danger.
69._______________70._______________71._______________72._______________
VIII. 用所给词的适当形式填空。(每空 1 分,共 5 分)
73. Every year, thousands of ______ (tour) come to Chongqing and have a look at this 8D magic city.
74. Yesterday, Li Ming ______ (remind) me to return the book to the library. But I completely forgot.
75. ______ (recent), I've realized that enjoying learning is more important than just getting good grades.
76. When Sally finds it hard to fall ______ (sleep), she usually drinks warm milk & listens to soft music.
77. Mary remembered ______ (turn) off the light when she left home. But it was on when she came back.
IX. 完成句子。(78-81 小题,每空 1 分,82 小题 2 分,共 10 分)
根据所给提示,完成句子。每空一词,含缩略词。
78. Life in the town used to be quiet and peaceful.(改为一般疑问句)
______ life in the town ______ to be quiet and peaceful
79. I was helping my mom with housework at that time.(对划线部分提问)
______ ______you doing at that time
80. Qomolangma is higher than any other mountain in the world.(改为同义句)
Qomolangma is ______ ______mountain in the world.
81. 她安静地坐在那儿,享受着温暖的阳光与和煦的微风。(完成译句)
She sat there ______ ______, enjoying the warm sunshine and gentle breeze.
82. nothing, possible, is, you, make, happen, it, unless(连词成句)
____________________________________________________________
X. 书面表达。(满分 20 分)
第六届"中外人文交流小使者"展示活动将于下月举行。现招募中华传统文化的推介小使者。请根据以下
内容,用英语写一封自荐信,向活动负责人展示你的优势与推广计划。
内容:
1. 表达你对中国传统文化的热爱和了解;
2. 分享一次你传播中国传统文化的经历;
3. 简述你自己关于传统文化的推广计划;
4. ......
要求:
1. 80-120 词;
2. 文中不得出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称;
3. 信的开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
参考信息:
organize/arrange an activity (组织活动), make videos, hold a story-telling competition,
organize a cultural experience activity (组织文化体验活动), hold a knowledge competition (举办知识
竞赛), conduct a workshop (开展工作坊) ...
Dear teachers,
My name is Li Ming, a student from Class 3, Grade 8. I am writing to recommend myself as a young
ambassador for promoting traditional Chinese culture. _______________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
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Yours,
Li Ming
参考答案和评分标准
I.听力测试(共 35 分)
1-6 AACBBC (每小题 1 分,共 6 分)
7-12 ABACCB (每小题 1.5 分,共 9 分)
13-16 ABAA (每小题 1.5 分,共 9 分)
17-20 CCBA (每小题 1.5 分,共 9 分)
21. Six/ 6 22. putting up 23. father/Father(作角色讲) 24. weak
(每小题 2 分,共 8 分)(大小写错误扣一分,不给词根分)
II.语法选择 (每小题 1 分,共 10 分)
25-29 BAABA 30-34 CCCBC
III.完形填空 (每小题 1 分,共 10 分)
35-39 ABCBD 40-44 ACDAB
IV.阅读理解 (每小题 2 分,共 30 分)
45-47 ACC 48-51 BACD 52-55 CCDD 56-59 BACA
V.口语交际 (每小题 2 分,共 10 分)
60-64 CADEG
VI.任务型阅读 (65-66 每小题 2 分,67-68 每小题 3 分,共 10 分)
65. Yes. / Yes, it did. (大小写错误,代词、助动词使用错误或未标句号,扣 1 分。)
66.8/Eight/8 cities/Eight cities.(大小写错误,或未标句号,扣 1 分。)
67. China’s colorful culture(s), high/modern technology/technologies and friendly/nice(Chinese)
people.
或者句子 China has a colorful culture, high/modern technology/technologies,and Chinese people are
friendly/nice.
67 题打分细则:(1)答到 1 点,无论语法或拼写有无错误,都给 1 分;
答到 2 点,无论语法或拼写有无错误,都给 2 分;
答到 3 点,有语法或拼写错误,得 2 分;
回答 3 个要点时,短语和句子混合回答,得 2 分;
无以上错误,得 3 分。
68.参考答案:Chongqing.Because Chongqing is my hometown. It’s a place with delicious food and
rich culture. Also, the views in Chongqing are fantastic. I can be the guide and tall him/her to
experience this 8-D magic city.
68 题打分细则:可以回答文中出现的城市或地点或者新的地点,但是如果原因完全或者只有 67
题的点或者和文章完全一样,只能得 1 分;
除此之外,只要言之有理,且无语法错误可得 3 分。语法错误,可酌情扣 1 分。
VII.读后转述 (每空 2.5 分,共 10 分)
69. people should have one screen-free day a week (未用陈述语序作答或有大小写、语法、单词
错误,扣 1; 既未使用陈述语序又有大小写、单词、语法错误,扣 1.5。)
其他可能答案: (1)people should live a day without using any of these digital devices once a
week./ (2)it’s necessary for people to have one screen-free day a week/ (3)it’s necessary for people to
live a day without using any of these digital devices once a week
70.spending too much time online is /can be bad for health (有大小写、单词、语法错误,扣 1 分;
直接抄原文“Many people....,. ..bad for health",只得 1 分)
注意:只答到 bad,而没有和 healthy,health 关联,扣 1 分
其他可能答案:
(1)it's bad / harmful for (people's) health/unhealthy to spend too much time online.(如果没有答到 to
do,扣 1.5)
(2)spending too much time online can cause health problems.
(3)spending too much time online is unhealthy
(4)it's good for their health(这里的 it 指代的是 this idea 即 people should have a ... day a week)
如果 69、70 题学生在句末打了句号,不扣分。
71.get on/along(有大小写、形式、单复数错误扣 1 分;单词拼写或者搭配错误,全扣完;写成
build/have a (better) relationship 等与 relationship 相关的回答,给 1 分。)
72. depends on(有大小写、形式、单复数错误扣 1 分;答到 depends,但介词搭配错误或没有搭配
介词,得 1 分:介词搭配不对,且 depends 有大小写、形式、单复数错误,不得分。)
其他可能答案:has (something) to do with; is connected with/ involved in; is up to
VIII.适当形式填空 (每空 1 分,共 5 分)
73. tourists 74. reminded 75.Recently 76.asleep 77. turning
IX.完成句子 (78-81 小题,每空 1 分,82 小题 2 分,共 10 分)
78.Did; use 79.What; were 80. the highest 81. in silence
82. Nothing is possible unless you make it happen./Unless you make it happen, nothing is possible.(
首字母未大写扣 1 分,其它错误全扣)
X.书面表达 (满分 20 分)
书面表达评卷标准:
先定档后定等
第一档:17-20 分
文章内容丰富,结构清楚,详略得当。行文时作者意思表达准确,句子类型丰富(状语从句,
定语从句,宾语从句等),有一定书本及课外词汇的积累和表达。
第二档: 15-16 分
文章有内容,行文能够基本表达作者意图,会用基本句型,有一定量的书本词汇的积累和表达。
第三档:12-14 分
基本能看出作者在写......语法错误,都应该给予 12 分及格分。
第四档:9-11 分
要点不齐,能表达......
第五档:8 分及以下。
根据书写和句子正确性酌情给分。
同课章节目录