吉林省通化市梅河口市第五中学2024-2025学年高二下学期5月期中英语试卷（含答案，无听力原文及音频）

高二英语期中考试
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
注意，听力部分答题时请先将答案标在试卷上，听力部分结束前你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where will the woman go
A. The office. B. The gym. C. The garage.
2. What are the speakers talking about
A. The woman’s hometown. B. A spelling mistake. C. A travel plan.
3. What do we know about Peter
A. He is quiet. B. He studied very hard. C. He failed to get into college.
4. How does the man usually go to work
A. By train. B. By bus. C. By car.
5. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Boss and secretary. B. Waitress and customer. C. Teacher and student.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7题。
6. What does the man want to do
A. Get a job. B. Book a room. C. Interview the woman.
7. When will the man come to the hotel
A. Next Monday. B. Next Wednesday. C. Next Friday.
听第 7 段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. Why does the woman talk to the man
A. To get a discount. B. To ask for his opinion. C. To try on a dress.
9. What color does the woman dislike
A. Red. B. Blue. C. Yellow.
10. What is the woman’s final decision
A. Take the purple dress. B. Wait for a promotion. C. Go to other stores.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. Where are the speakers
A. At a school. B. At a restaurant. C. At a language center.
12. Which course is the woman in
A. The third course. B. The fourth course. C. The fifth course.
13. What is the man dissatisfied with about the class
A. The number of students. B. The time. C. The teacher.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What activity does Meg like most
A. Jogging. B. Hiking. C. Running.
15. Why does Meg like baking
A. She likes desserts. B. She finds it relaxing. C. She can share the food with others.
16. What is probably the man
A. A sportsman. B. A teacher. C. A host.
17. What does the man think of running
A. Challenging. B. Tiring. C. Relaxing.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What will control the tree house’s temperature
A. The roof. B. The leaves. C. The soil.
19. What is the most important design of a lizard house
A. Changing colors. B. Collecting sunlight. C. Producing energy.
20. Why can the chimney be a useful air conditioner
A. It allows cool air to come in.
B. It is easy for hot air to flow out.
C. It can protect the house from strong heat.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
If you are good at writing, here are some competitions to show your talents.
Creative Writing Award for Poetry
Genres: Poetry
The Aesthetica Creative Writing Award celebrates outstanding writers. It’s open to Poetry and Short Fiction submissions on any theme, especially works reflecting our changing world. Winners gain recognition and opportunities for publication.
Top Prize: 2,500
Additional prizes: Publication in the Aesthetic a Creative Writing Annual | Two online masterclasses with Arvon | A course from the Poetry School
Deadline: Aug 31
The Reedsy Prompts Contest
Genres: Fiction and Short Story
Every Friday, Reedsy sends out five writing prompts (提示). Enter your response within a week for a chance at $250. Winners may also be included in Reedsy’s magazine, Prompted.
Top Prize: $250
Additional prizes: $25 credit toward Reedsy editorial services
Deadline: Dec 31
Solas Awards
Genres: Essay, Non-fiction, and Travel
The Solas Awards honor writers whose work inspires others to explore. We seek the best travel stories — funny, thought-provoking, adventurous, uplifting, scary, inspiring and touching. We hope these awards will encourage those who love to travel and share their experiences.
Top Prize: $1,000
Additional prizes: Publication
Deadline: Sept 21
The Bath Children’s Novel Award
Genres: Children’s Fiction
This 5,000 international prize is for new writers of children’s fiction. Submit the first 5,000 words plus a one-page summary of your book. Shortlistees receive feedback from young judges and editorial feedback on their extract and summary.
Top Prize: 5,000
Additional prizes: 1,800 course for one longlistee
Deadline: Nov 30
21. What do Creative Writing Award for Poetry and Solas Awards have in common
A. They both accept fiction submissions.
B. They encourage world-changing works.
C. They have the same submission deadline.
D. They offer winners publication opportunities.
22. What do we know about The Reedsy Prompts Contest
A. It offers winners the least top prize.
B. It welcomes non-fiction and short story.
C. Writers should enter their response every Friday.
D. Contributors’ works will be included in Prompted.
23. Which contest is specifically for new writers of children’s fiction
A. Creative Writing Award for Poetry. B. The Reedsy Prompts Contest.
C. Solas Awards. D. The Bath Children’s Novel Award.
B
After celebrating his 40th birthday on Nov 5, renowned Kenyan marathon runner Eliud Kipchoge embarked on his fifth trip to China.
Kipchoge was raised on a farm. As a child, he would often ride his bicycle to sell milk and run to and from school each day. In 2002, he began focusing on running, initially specializing in the 5,000 meters, a discipline he pursued for 11 years. In 2013, Kipchoge transitioned to marathon running, starting another 11-year journey that would redefine the sport.
From his debut marathon in 2013 to breaking the world record twice and winning two Olympic gold medals, Kipchoge has not only achieved extraordinary personal milestones but also inspired a global community of runners.
Looking back on his career, Kipchoge attributes his journey to a deep love for running and a desire to showcase his talent on the world stage. For years, he has stuck to a strict daily routine. His day begins at 5 am when he rises for a morning run. Afterward, he returns home for a tea break, followed by some light exercises before lunch. In the afternoon, he heads out for another run, then spends the rest of the day focusing on recovery and relaxation before preparing for bed.
Besides his passion for the sport, Kipchoge’s remarkable career comes from his inner drive to push the limits of human endurance. In 2019, he became the first athlete to run a marathon in under two hours, proving his motto (座右铭) that “no human is limited”.
“It is not just about running to win or breaking records. It’s about the satisfaction you feel after finishing a marathon-knowing that you can run anything, that you can accomplish (实现) anything in this world,” Kipchoge told China Daily.
24. What can we learn about Eliud Kipchoge’s early life
A. He was brought up on a farm.
B. He specialized in the 5,000 meters at 11.
C. He was forced to run to school as a child.
D. He started running marathons by accident.
25. What may Kipchoge agree with according to the text
A. Winning is the most important.
B. Passion contributes greatly to success.
C. Talented people can achieve success effortlessly.
D. Satisfaction makes people overestimate their abilities.
26 What does the underlined word “it” in the last paragraph refer to
A. His motto. B. His daily routine.
C. Running a marathon. D. His remarkable career.
27. Which of the following words can best describe Kipchoge
A. Helpful and generous. B. Loving and ambitious.
C. Talented and warmhearted. D. Persistent and highly-motivated.
C
There is a famous story about how Walt Disney was inspired to build Disneyland. The story goes that during an afternoon visit to Griffith Park located near the Burbank Studios, Walt took a seat while his two young daughters rode the merry-go-round. Walt thought there should be a place where both children and their parents could enjoy spending some time together in an environment that would be both entertaining and pleasing to the eye, so with this thought came the idea for Disneyland.
Walt’s original plan was to build an eight-acre park located near the Burbank Studios that would be a place for his employees and their families. Those plans were put on hold because of the start of World War II. By 1952, Walt had created a special department to build the park.
Finally in 1953, the first steps in building the park happened when Walt hired the Stanford Research Institute to make a survey to determine the best possible location for the future park. Considering population growth and the future freeway construction, they finally found a location in Anaheim and 160 acres of land were bought for the site of the new park.
The building of the park was very expensive and to create funding for the project Walt developed the idea of the “Walt Disney’s Disneyland” television show. It turned out to be a marvelous idea — not only gaining the money to build the park but also presenting the park to the American public.
Construction officially began on July 21, 1954, and it was an ambitious (野心勃勃的) building schedule of less than one year to complete the new park for the projected opening day. Walt watched over the park’s construction and progress continued with just a few minor hold-ups. Finally, the park was ready for the Opening Day on July 17, 1955.
28. What inspired Walt Disney to build Disneyland
A. The special design of Griffith Park.
B. A trip to a park with his daughters.
C. Requests from his family and employees.
D. The idea to build a park for his daughters.
29. What is mainly considered in choosing the location of Disneyland
A. Walt Disney’s personal preference.
B. The natural environment.
C. The advice of the public.
D. Local traffic.
30. What does the underlined word “marvelous” in Paragraph 4 mean
A. Funny. B. Wild.
C. Wonderful. D. Imaginative.
31. What can we learn about the construction process
A. It was smooth generally.
B. It was affected by World War II.
C. It was completed later than expected.
D. It was influenced by a shortage of money.
D
One day, there’ll be no need for you to brush your teeth by hand. Instead, a group of billions of nanoparticles (纳米粒子) could automatically do all that work for you. It would be especially life-changing for people who find it difficult or impossible to hold and move a toothbrush.
Steager, an engineer at the University of Pennsylvania (Penn) in Philadelphia and Hyun Koo, an inventor and dental researcher there, found a way to form the nanoparticles into long, skinny bristles (刷毛), a lot like the ones an a toothbrush. But these bristles shape-shift to fit whatever surface they encounter.
The tooth- cleaning robot works thanks to two magnets (磁铁). One goes each side of the teeth. The nanoparticles sit in a liquid between the magnets. When the magnets are turned off, the nanoparticles move randomly in the liquid. As soon as one magnet gets turned on, the nanoparticles gather together near its center. When the researchers turn on the other magnet and turn off the first one, the nanoparticles extend outward in long, skinny bristles. When there’s a tooth in the way, these bristles can’t stretch out as far as they want. So they push against the tooth’s surface. If there’s a gap between teeth, they push into the gap. Moving the magnets makes the bristles move against and between teeth. All that motion cleans the teeth. As a bonus, the nanoparticles also have strong power to kill viruses.
The new device is just a proof of concept. The researchers still need to turn it into a product that people will want to use. “There’s a lot of engineering to get from here to there but every good idea needs to have a start.” says Steager.
32. What is special about the tooth cleaner
A. It’s water-resistant. B. It looks like a toothbrush.
C. It’s appearance-changeable. D. It contains skinny bristles.
33. What is Paragraph 3 mainly about
A. The bristles’ formation. B. The working principle.
C. The virus-killing process. D. The magnets’ motion.
34. How does Steager feel about the future of the device
A. Uncertain. B. Unfavorable. C. Concerned. D. Positive.
35. Which of the following would be the best title
A. A Shape-Shifting Robotic Tooth Cleaner
B. Magnetic Nanoparticles for Tooth Growth
C. A New Concept for Automatic Health Care
D. An Antibacteria Liquid Tooth cleaner for Adults
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容,从文后的选项中选出能填人空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
In the 1920s, Russian psychologist Bluma Zeigarnik observed a strange thing. While dining out, she was impressed by the complex orders the waiters were able to remember at one time. 36 This observation gave rise to the study of what would become known as the Zeigarnik Effect.
The Zeigarnik Effect refers to our tendency to remember incomplete or interrupted tasks better than completed ones. At first glance the Zeigarnik Effect can seem like a handy adaptation: It’s good to remember the things we need to do, and it’s a positive thing to want to finish the things we start. 37
First, each incomplete task your brain reminds you about takes up a bit of your attention, making it harder to concentrate on whatever you’re currently working on. Second, even if we manage to physically disconnect from work, the Zeigarnik Effect ensures that our unfinished tasks follow us home. They bring trouble to our vacations, our weekends, and even our sleep. 38
So what can you do about it
Write your tasks down. Your brain is a terrible filing system. Instead of keeping tasks in your head, make a habit of writing them down as soon as they come to you.
39 Make a plan for tomorrow before you end the work day so your unfinished tasks don’t remain in your mind after-hours.
Don’t forget to look back at how far you’ve come. 40 Therefore, review your completed tasks at the end of every week to celebrate what you’ve already.
A．Establish a work shutdown routine.
B．Have a system for expanding your job skills.
C．The problem when it comes to our productivity has two aspects.
D．Yet when customers checked out, these were totally forgotten.
E．We always quickly forget everything we’ve already accomplished.
F．We need a way to mentally disconnect in our hours away from work.
G．You have to actually complete all of your tasks to feel mental relief from it.
第三部分 语言知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完型填空（共15小题；每小题1分,满分15分）
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和 D)中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑.
When I was 19, I was in a really bad car accident. I woke up with a severe 41 injury and I learned that my IQ had dropped. Worse still, I had to 42 from college, and people said to me, “You’re not going to finish college. There are other things for you to do, but that’s not going to work out for you.” I had identified with being smart, and had been called 43 as a child. Having my 44 taken from me, I felt entirely 45 .
I worked and worked, and 46 graduated from college, which took me four years longer than others. After that, I applied to a graduate program and 47 someone, my advisor Susan to take me on, and so I 48 at Princeton. I still felt I was not supposed to be there. The night before my first-year 49 I was so afraid that I called her and said, “I’m 50 .” She said, “You’re going to stay, and this is what you’re going to do. You are going to 51 it and do every lecture that you ever get asked to do, even if you’re 52 until you have this moment where you say, ‘Oh my gosh, I’m doing it. I have become this.’”
So that’s what I did. I spent five years in graduate school and got my 53 . Now I am a public speaker. I realized that I had not only faked it till I made it, but I had faked it till I became it. Our 54 can change our behavior, and our behavior can change our 55 .
41. A. face B. head C. back D. skin
42. A. withdraw B. graduate C. escape D. return
43. A. patient B. reserved C. diligent D. gifted
44. A. mood B. commitment C. identity D. career
45. A. cheerful B. indifferent C. powerless D. optimistic
46. A. suddenly B. eventually C. naturally D. reluctantly
47. A. reminded B. convinced C. instructed D. allowed
48. A. ended up B. dropped out C. started over D. fell behind
49. A. exam B. interview C. lecture D. reception
50. A. staying B. coming C. dreaming D. quitting
51. A. ignore B. advertise C. recall D. fake
52. A. terrified B. inspired C. qualified D. discouraged
53. A. scholarship B. admission C. license D. degree
54. A. minds B. experience C. insight D. lessons
55. A. beliefs B. outcomes C. personality D. talent
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
There was less sea ice covering the oceans in February of this year than at any other point on record. “One of the____56____(consequence) of a warmer world is melting sea ice, and the record or near-record low sea ice cover at both poles has pushed global sea ice cover to an all-time minimum,” said Samantha Burgess ____57____ a statement. Global average temperatures in February of this year____58____(rise) 1.59°C above the per-industrial average,____59____(make) it the third-warmest February on record, according to the European Union’s climate service Copernicus.
These high temperatures impacted the global sea ice extent,____60____ includes both the Arctic, where sea ice is currently near its annual maximum, and the Antarctic. The satellite record for both regions extends back to 1979. In the Arctic, sea ice remained at 8 percent below average throughout February, missing an area of ice ____61____ (rough) the size of the UK. This was the third consecutive month ____62____ (set) a new monthly record low in the Arctic.
____63____(see) over the past two years, this decline in the ____64____ (north) hemisphere (半球) has combined with a longer-term decline in Antarctic sea ice. Antarctic sea ice seemed to recover to near average levels in December of last year ____65____ it then rapidly declined again. In February, the ice reached its fourth-lowest extent on record for the month, remaining 26 percent below average.
第三部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
66. 假定你是李华，你校英文报正在举办以 “AI in My Life” 为主题的征文活动。请你写一篇短文投稿，内容包括：
（1）AI在你生活中的应用；
（2）你的感受和期待。
注意：
（1）写作词数应为80个左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Al in My Life
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节（满分25分）
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I never imagined that a single piece of paper could change my entire perspective on life. I was a librarian, a job that had defined my existence for over two decades. My days were spent among the quiet rows of books. I knew every corner of the library, every title on the shelves, and yet, I felt as if my own life was missing a chapter.
It was a typical Tuesday morning. I was sorting through a box of old donations, preparing to catalog some rare books, when I found a small, yellowed envelope between the pages of an ancient journal. It had no address, no stamp, and no indication of its origin. Curious, I carefully opened it.
The handwriting was elegant but faded, the ink barely visible against the paper. The letter read,
“Dear Stranger;
If you are reading this, know that you are not alone. Life has a way of making us feel isolated, as if our stories are insignificant. But every life matters. Every story is important. I hope the letter finds someone who needs to hear these words.
You are stronger than you think. You have the power to change your world, one small act at a time. Don’t be afraid to take risks, to follow your dreams, and to embrace the unknown. The greatest journeys begin with a single step.
With hope,
A Friend”
I read the letter over and over, feeling a strange mix of emotions. The words resonated deeply within me, as if they were written specifically for me. I had always been content with my life, but lately, I felt a growing sense of restlessness. The library was my sanctuary (庇护所), but it had also become my prison. I had lost sight of my own dreams, my own story.
That evening, as I closed the library, I couldn’t shake the feeling that the letter was a sign. I had always been cautious, preferring the safety of routine to the uncertainty of change. But the letter reminded me that life was meant to be lived, not just observed.
注意：
(1)续写词数应为150左右；(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1: The next morning, I walked into the library director’s office, saying with resolution, “I have an idea.”
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2: Weeks later the moveable library program started, bringing libraries to different communities.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
听力：1~5ACCBA 6~10BACBB 11~15CAACB 16~20ABCCA
21. D 22. A 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. C 27. D
28-30 BDC 31~35ACBDA 36-40 DCFAE
41-45 BADCC 46-50 BBACD 51-55 DADAB
56. consequences
57. in 58. rose
59. making 60. which
61. roughly
62. to set 63. Seen
64. northern
65. but##yet
Al in My Life
AI has integrated into multiple aspects of my daily life. Every morning, my smart alarm clock, guided by AI, wakes me up with a customized weather forecast and the latest news. Besides, AI-powered learning apps like Doubao offer me explanations and study tips and efficiently aid in my English practice.
Thanks to AI, my routine has become more convenient and my academic performance has been dramatically boosted. AI has truly become a reliable helper in my life.
Full of anticipation for the future of AI, I’m eager to see AI making great leaps in fields such as healthcare and education, and continuing to shape our lives in amazing ways.
The next morning, I walked into the library director’s office, saying with resolution, “I have an idea.” The director looked up from her desk, her eyes filled with curiosity. Taking a deep breath, I explained my idea to organize a moveable library program, bringing books and stories to those who had no access. I suggested reaching out to schools, nursing homes, and shelters - places where people might need a little bit of hope and connection. The director’s expression softened, and she nodded thoughtfully. “That’s a wonderful idea,” she agreed. With her support, I threw myself into the project. After hours of planning, contacting local organizations, and gathering resources, I enlisted the help of a few enthusiastic volunteers. The preparation work went smoothly.
Weeks later, the moveable library program started, bringing libraries to different communities. The first stop was a local elementary school, where we set up a reading corner in the library, equipped with colorful books and cozy seats. As I read aloud to a group of wide-eyed children, I saw their faces light up with wonder. For a moment, I forgot about my own doubts and fears. I was reminded of the joy that books could bring, and the importance of sharing that joy with others. The following months witnessed our library touched the lives of countless people in diverse places ranging from nursing homes, orphanages to hospitals. Each visit was a reminder of the letter’s words: “You have the power to change your world, one small act at a time.”