天门市2024-2025学年度第二学期期末考试七年级
英 语 试 题
本卷共6页, 满分90分, 考试时间100分钟
注意事项:
1. 答题前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷第1页装订线内和答题卡上。
2. 选择题的答案选出后, 必须使用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应的答案标号涂黑。如需改动, 先用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题答案必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡对应的区域内, 写在试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后, 请将本试卷和答题卡一并上交。
一、单词辨音:从每小题所给的四个选项中选出划线部分读音与其它三个不同的一项。(共5小题,每题1分,计5分)
1. A. salt B. hate C. race D. baseball
2. A. lend B. relax C. fresh D. festival
3. A. hunter B. duck C. suddenly D. truth
4. A. leaf B. meal C. eagle D. instead
5. A. glad B. gun C. group D. giraffe
二、单项选择:从每小题的四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。(共10小题,每题1分,计10分)
6. —Does your sister usually go to school by bike
—Yes, she does. Look, the bike in front of the building is .
A. mine B. his C. yours D. hers
7. —We should be polite to everyone we meet in our life.
—Of course. “Please” is a word.
wrong B. fresh C. magical D. new
is at the door. Can you please answer it
A. Somebody B. Nobody C. Everybody D. Anybody
9. —Mom, I don’t want to go to school with the uniform.
—But you , honey. It’s a rule, you know that.
have to B. can C. mustn’t D. can’t
10. —Lucy, where’s your sister —Look! She in the yard with our dog.
A. played B. will play C. plays D. is playing
11. —There is a huge difference between China and Thailand.
—I agree with you. That is why we should each other’s culture.
choose B. affect C. respect D. follow
12. the old worker has little knowledge, he has a lot of experience.
If B. Because C. Although D. But
13. Which ice cream do you want, Emma You can’t have all of them. You must make a .
A. wish B. menu C. choice D. call
14. I look silly with this new haircut (发型). All my classmates will me.
A. laugh at B. agree with C. belong to D. worry about
15. —Thanks for helping me find my dog. — .
A. That sounds good B. You’re welcome C. Have a good time D. That’s for sure
三、完形填空:先阅读短文,然后从每小题的四个选项中选出一个可以填入短文中相应空白处的最佳选项。(共10小题,每题1分,计10分)
Hannah opens a box and jumps up, “Thanks, Dad! I’ll be a good 16 like Justin!”
The gift is just what she wants. Justin, Hannah’s cousin, says he can teach the girl 17 she has her own skateboard.
Carrying her new skateboard, Hannah 18 gets to the skate park with Justin.
19 goes well. Then Justin shows Hannah a trick. “Cool!” The girl goes faster and jumps like Justin—but she loses 20 and falls off her skateboard!
Some laughter comes and it makes Hannah feel 21 . “This is really bad! No more skateboarding for me!” she wants to leave.
Just then, she hears a voice, “Good boy! Come on!” A mother is 22 her baby boy to learn to walk.
Hannah watches as the little boy slowly stands up. He takes one little step and falls down, crying. “Have one more 23 , honey! You can do it!” his mother softly says and the little boy stops crying. He takes the mother’s hand and 24 again!
Minutes later, Hannah walks back. “Falling is really common! In fact, everybody falls off sometimes.” her cousin says.
“Right! I just need more exercise.” Hannah asks, “How do you do that trick ”
“Put your right foot here. Then push (推) 25 your left foot.”
That whole afternoon, Hannah keeps getting on the skateboard, falling off it and getting better.
When she does one more trick successfully, Justin calls, “You’re a real skateboarder now!”
16. A. loser B. waiter C. skateboarder D. swimmer
17. A. but B. when C. so D. before
18. A. excitedly B. hardly C. heavily D. sadly
19. A. Anything B. Everything C. Nothing D. Something
20. A. weight B. way C. balance D. heart
21. A. awful B. funny C. sleepy D. poor
22. A. treating B. excusing C. encouraging D. serving
23. A. try B. result C. jump D. choice
24. A. puts on B. picks up C. goes with D. stands up
25. A. on B. at C. with D. in
四、短文填空。(共10小题,每题1分,满分10分)
阅读短文,从方框中选出正确的词并用其适当形式填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
early, chicken, interesting, trip, how, take, be, cloud, fish, pick
My uncle has a big farm in Michigan. I went on a 26 with my family there last weekend. It was Saturday morning. We got up 27 and left home at 6 o’clock. We went there by car. It
28 us three hours to get there.
When we got there, my uncle and aunt 29 busy on the farm. I helped them feed the 30
and horses. In the afternoon, my aunt taught me 31 to milk a cow. It was really 32 to do that. On Sunday morning, my cousins and I went 33 . It was exciting. My uncle has many apple trees. All of us went to 34 apples on Sunday afternoon. But it got very 35 and we worried it would rain. Luckily, it didn’t. The sun came out again soon.
五、阅读理解:A-B篇:先阅读图表或短文,然后从每小题的四个选项中选出一个与短文内容相符的最佳选项;C篇:阅读短文,从方框内所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,使短文通顺、连贯。选项中有一项为多余选项;D篇:阅读短文,用英文填空或回答问题。(共20小题,每题2分,计40分)
A
A Wonderful Night at DA YANG Aquarium (水族馆)
Have you ever seen sea animals at night What do they do Eat Sleep Swim Let’s go and enjoy the happy time. Time: 6:30 pm—8:30 pm Saturday
Tour A Tour B Tour C Tour D
6:30 pm—7:00 pm 7:00 pm—7:30 pm 7:30 pm—8:00 pm 8:00 pm—8:30 pm
Walking with the penguins Playing with the seals (海豹) Feeding the fish Taking pictures with the dolphins
* You can enjoy dinner at our restaurant under the water from 6:00 pm to 6:30 pm. * You can’t eat anything while you are watching sea animals. * Each tour costs 15 yuan. You can buy the tickets at the gate of the aquarium. * You can decide which tour you want to join after you arrive at the aquarium. * You can only spend time with one of the four kinds of sea animals in one tour.
36. If you want to play with the seals, which tour should you choose
A. Tour A. B. Tour B. C. Tour C. D. Tour D.
37. If you want to enjoy 4 tours, how much will you pay for them
A.15 yuan. B. 30 yuan. C. 45 yuan. D. 60 yuan.
38. How long can you enjoy the activities at the aquarium at most in one tour
A. Half an hour. B. One hour. C. One and a half hour. D. Two hours.
39. What do we know according to the passage
A. You can go to the aquarium to see sea animals on Sunday night.
B. You can spend time with all four kinds of sea animals in one tour.
C. You can decide which tour you want to join after you arrive at the aquarium.
D. You can have dinner at their restaurant under the water from 8:00 pm to 8:30 pm.
40. In which part of a newspaper can we find the passage
A. Travel. B. Health. C. Job. D. Food.
B
The panda is one of the rarest (最珍稀的) animals. It is the favourite of people all over the world.
Many people think pandas are cute. In fact, they are also clever! The IQ of pandas is nearly the same as that of the children at the age of eight. Pandas are shy and friendly. They like playing with their family and friends.
Pandas are good at climbing, and they are great climbers. They can also swim very well. But pandas cannot be seen well in the dark bamboo (竹子) forests. The black and white fur may help pandas a lot. Their enemies (敌人) may not find them easily in the dark bamboo forests.
Pandas love bamboo very much. 99% of the panda’s food is bamboo. They eat about 10 to 20 kilos of bamboo a day. That is as heavy as 100 bowls (碗) of rice! To stay healthy, they have to eat a lot and eat fast. They spend 50%-60% of the time a day in eating, and they keep eating 2-3 hours each time. The pandas are a kind of bear. Most bears eat much to keep fat for the winter sleep, but pandas don’t. Pandas in the forest have to keep eating bamboo all year round.
41. What are pandas like according to Paragraph 2
A. Smart and rare. B. Smart and shy. C. Cute and rare. D. Fat and friendly.
42. What does the underlined word “them” refer to (指代)
A. The bears. B. The forests. C. The enemies. D. The pandas.
43. What can we learn from the last paragraph
A. Pandas eat 100 bowls of rice a day.
B. Most of the panda’s food is bamboo.
C. Pandas eat 10-20 kilos of bamboo a week.
D. Pandas eat much to keep fat for the winter sleep.
44. How long does a panda eat a day
A. About 2-3 hours. B. About 5-6 hours.
C. About 12-14 hours. D. About 22-24 hours.
45. What would be the best structure (结构) of the passage
(
②
③
④
①
) (
①
②
③
④
) (
①
②
③
④
) (
①
②
③
④
)
A. B. C. D.
C
Running should not be a dangerous activity. 46
Take your time. If you are interested in running, you may want to run often. 47 It’s also important not to run too fast at the beginning.
Take breaks. Resting is as important as training (训练). 48 You should take a break or do an easier run the next day. Some runners follow the 80/20 plan: 80% of their runs each week are easy and only 20% are hard.
49 It can stop you from getting hurt (受伤) easily and even improve your speed (速度). You can do exercises at home to make you strong, such as sit-ups.
Have a good diet. 50 Drink a lot of water and eat food like eggs and chicken. These can help you full of energy.
A. Have a strong body. B. You can run as fast as you can. C. Your body needs time to rest after hard runs. D. However, doing it too much can make you get hurt. E. Eating and drinking the right things is also important. F. For your own safety, learn the following advice and try to be a good runner!
D
Classroom rules tell us how things must be done or what students should do and shouldn’t do at school. It is important for each of us to follow rules and make our classroom a nice place for learning.
My rules are very clear and simple. I think that the best learning time is the beginning of the day. Students should get to school for a half-hour reading before class. My first rule is that everyone should be in class on time. Second, everything we learn is mainly from class teaching. So in every class, we should listen to the instructions (指令) and quickly get to work on the activity. Third, if we want to learn better, we should do our homework carefully. Our teachers are able to know how we are going on with our lessons from our work. So, it is a must to hand in our class work and homework on time. The fourth rule is that everyone must do their own work. Cheating (抄袭) will not be allowed. The last rule is important, too. We should keep our classroom as clean as possible. We remember to throw waste things into the waste basket, not on the floor. And don’t write on the desks, tables or chairs. In this way, we will have a good environment for learning.
51. The writer thinks the best learning time is . (10个词以内)
52&53. Fill in the blanks according to the passage.
My Rules
First 52 . (10个词以内)
Second Listen to the instructions and quickly get to work on the activity.
Third Do our homework carefully and 53 . (10个词以内)
Fourth Do our own work. No cheating.
Fifth Keep our classroom as clean as possible.
54. How do we keep our classroom clean according to the passage
(20个词以内)
55. Do you think classroom rules are important Why
(结合自身实际,20个词以内)
六、书面表达。(计15分)
56. 假设你是李华,现在是周日下午2点,你正在给你的英国好友Mike写电子邮件,请在邮件中介绍一下你所在城市目前的天气情况,并描述一下你的家人们现在的活动情况。
写作要求:
(1)短文应包含图片的所有信息,可适当发挥;
(2)文中不得出现真实的人名、校名、地名等;
(3)词数70词左右,信件格式已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Mike,
How’s it going
Good luck!
Yours,
Li Hua2024-2025学年度第二学期期末考试七年级
英 语 试 题 答 案
一、试题参考答案:
一、单词辨音。(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
1—5 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. D
二、单项选择。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
6—10 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D
11—15 11. C 12. C 13. C 14.A 15. B
三、完型填空。(共10小题,每题1分,计10分)
16—20 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. B 20. C
21—25 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. C
四、短文填空。(共10小题,每题1分,计10分)
26—30 26.trip 27. early 28. took 29. were 30. chickens
31—35 31. how 32. interesting 33. fishing 34. pick 35. cloudy
五、阅读理解。(共20小题,每题2分,计40分)
36—40 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. C 40.A
41—45 41. B 42. D 43. B 44. C 45. A
46—50 46. F 47. D 48. C 49. A 50. E
51. the beginning of the day
52. Be in class on time.
53. hand in our class work and homework on time
54. We should throw waste things into the waste basket and don’t write on the desks, tables or chairs.
55. Yes, I do. Because they create a good environment for learning./Because they make our classroom a nice place or learning./Because no rules, no order. … (符合题意即可)
六、书面表达。(共1题,计15分)
Possible Version:
Dear Mike,
How’s it going
Now it is 2:00 pm on Sunday. The weather is fine. My family and I are busy. My grandfather is reading a newspaper. My grandmother is watering the flowers in the garden. My father’s car is dirty, so he is cleaning his car. My mother is playing with my sister in the living room. What am I doing I’m writing to you. We are having a good time.
Good luck!
Yours,
Li Hua
二、试题评分说明:
(一)选择题类:所有选择题类试题,错选、漏选或多选均不给分。
(二)非选择题类:非选择题类试题,可能存在多种答案,凡符合题意,且在语义、语法、语用上都正确的其他答案,应予评分。大小写错误扣分。
(三)书面表达:
1. 评分原则:
(1)采用整体印象评分法。评分时,先整体阅读短文,根据其内容和语言,初步确定其所属档次,然后在该档次内选择合理的分数。
(2)注重内容表达。评分时要重点看短文所传达的信息是否有效,能否完成题目要求。
(3)如果短文词数少于50或出现真实的人名和地名,降1档次评分。
2. 评分标准:
档 次 评 分 标 准
第一档 (13~15分) 要点齐全,语句通顺,行文流畅,能够清楚表达自己的意思,使用了较为丰富的语法结构和词汇,基本没有语言知识错误。
第二档 (10~12分) 要点齐全,句子比较通顺,行文比较连贯,能够比较清楚表达自己的意思,但有少许语言知识错误。
第三档 (7~9分) 能写出部分要点,意思表达基本清楚,但有些句子不够通顺,行文欠连贯,有较多语言知识错误。
第四档 (4~6分) 只能写出与主题相关的少许句子,基本不能成文,语言知识错误过多,表达不清楚,影响理解。
第五档 (0~3分) 只能写出与主题相关的个别句子、零散词汇。