绝密※启用前
阿坝州2025春季高2027届期末质量检测
英语试题
本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
注意事项:
答题前, 务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。
答选择题时，必须使用2B铅笔填涂对应题目的答案标号，如需改动，用橡皮擦擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。
答非选择题时，必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔，将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。
所有题目必须在答题卡上作答，在试题卷上答题无效。
考试结束后, 只将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题：每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1．Who got hurt in the accident
A．Two women. B．A baby. C．The man driver.
2．What is the woman doing
A．Asking for help. B．Giving suggestions. C．Organizing a summer camp.
3．Where is the Teaching Building
A．At the end of Main Path.
B．On the right of the bridge.
C．Across from the Music Building.
4．Why did Emma go to Lily’s house yesterday
A．To borrow a book. B．To play volleyball. C．To send strawberries.
5．What are the speakers mainly talking about
A．Good news. B．Friendship. C．Common interests.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
6．How will the woman go to London
A．By plane. B．By ship. C．By train.
7．What is the man most likely to do during the vacation
A．Take a business trip. B．Go to the beach. C．Move to Edinburgh.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
8．What type of video did the man watch at first
A．The video about software.
B．The video about health.
C．The video about pets.
9．What does the woman think of watching the short video
A．It is interesting. B．It is a waste of time. C．It is a good way to kill time.
10．What will the man probably do after watching the video
A．Exercise in the gym.
B．Continue to enjoy more.
C．Recommend another one to the woman.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
11．What condition is the woman’s computer in now
A．It has a blue screen. B．The fan can make a sound. C．The screen can show images.
12．What does the man suggest doing
A．Connecting the computer to electricity.
B．Drying out the computer keyboard.
C．Bringing the computer to his repair shop.
13．Where does this conversation most probably take place
A．In a shop. B．At the man’s home. C．On the phone.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
14．Why does Sara go to the library
A．To look up some words.
B．To borrow some dictionaries.
C．To collect some materials for papers.
15．When does the conversation happen
A．At the end of the term. B．In the middle of the term. C．At the beginning of the term.
16．What is the man searching for
A．His notebook. B．His note cards. C．His bag.
17．Where will the man go first
A．To the study hall. B．To the coffee house. C．To the reading room.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
18．What’s the aim of Buy Nothing Day
A．To protest Black Friday.
B．To say no to expensive things.
C．To help people spend wisely.
19．Which of the following actions is not mentioned for the celebration
A．Giving away coats. B．Exchanging gifts. C．Going for a walk.
20．What is the main purpose of the speech
A．To introduce a special festival.
B．To compare two festivals.
C．To tell people think twice before acting.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出最佳选项。
A
If you want to experience the local farm life, you can come to the following four places.
Green Acres Dairy Farm
Guests here can take part in the daily milk production process, a hands-on experience supervised by the friendly and knowledgeable farm staff. There are also cheese-making workshops where visitors learn the art of transforming fresh milk into various delicious cheeses, which must be reserved (预订) in groups of 4 or more in advance.
Fuji Orchard Farm
Fuji Orchard Farm is a good place for fruit lovers. During the harvest season (usually from late August to early November), guests can pick their own apples directly from the trees. The farm offers a variety of apple species, each with its own distinct flavor and texture. There are also apple-cider-making demonstrations, where visitors can taste the freshly made cider.
Pampas Gaucho Ranch
Horseback riding is a major highlight, with experienced locals guiding guests across the vast grasslands. Guests can learn how to herd (牧放) cattle, a traditional skill passed down through generations. At night, there are traditional barbecue feasts, where juicy meat are cooked over an open fire and served with local drinks.
Kangaroo Valley Farm
Set in the beautiful Kangaroo Valley, this farm is home to a diverse range of Australian wildlife. Guest scan hand-feed kangaroos in a dedicated wildlife area. There are also sheep-shearing demonstrations, showing the process of obtaining wool from the sheep. The farm has a large vegetable garden, and visitors can participate in the harvest and even help prepare a meal using the fresh produce.
21．What do visitors need to do if they want to learn to make cheese
A．Make a booking.
B．Collect milk in person.
C．Take part in groups of three.
D．Understand the milk production process in advance.
22．Where can visitors experience apple picking
A．At Green Acres Dairy Farm. B．At Fuji Orchard Farm.
C．At Pampas Gaucho Ranch. D．At Kangaroo Valley Farm.
23．What can visitors do at Pampas Gaucho Ranch
A．Hand-feed kangaroos.
B．Learn cattle-herding skills.
C．Help prepare meals using fresh produce.
D．Participate in a traditional tea ceremony.
B
My dad doesn’t seem like the kind of guy who would bake great bread, but he is and he does. Every Saturday he produces homemade bread. When he’s finished, the whole house smells delicious.
The rest of the week, Dad works as a mechanic (机修工). The car repair shop where Dad works is running so well that he is always busy. He is under a lot of stress. I think Dad began baking bread to help him relax.
I’ve been feeling kind of stressed out myself since I found out I failed to join the school swim team. Now I’ll have to wait a whole year to try out again. Besides, I’m taking some difficult classes this year.
I think Dad knew I was feeling bad. Last Saturday he asked me how things were going. I said OK, even though I didn’t feel OK at all. He looked at me for a moment, and then he said it was time for me to help. Then he headed to the kitchen.
I followed right behind him. Once we were there, Dad got out his big mixing bowl, handed me a large wooden spoon, and told me to mix while he added the ingredients (配料). Dad isn’t big on measuring. He knows how much of each ingredient to use, and the bread always turns out great.
When I had finished, Dad showed me how to knead the dough (揉面团). Next came the most difficult part — doing nothing. We put the dough back into the bowl and then we waited for more than an hour for the dough to slowly rise and double in size. Next, we divided it into two and waited for it to rise again. After that, we put the dough into pans (烤盘) and waited another hour for the dough to rise and double.
Dad said the waiting is always the hardest part. “Listen to me, Diana. It’s hard to resist putting the dough directly into the baking oven, but if you do, the bread will be hard. The most important lesson of all is learning to be patient.” Dad taught me more than how to bake bread.
24．What can we learn about the author’s father
A．He is living a relaxing life.
B．He has a special way to deal with stress.
C．He tries his best to raise his family.
D．He is more like a baker than a mechanic
25．Why is the author feeling stressed
A．Her school life isn’t satisfying.
B．She is tired of making bread.
C．She couldn’t finish her homework.
D．She failed some difficult exams.
26．What does the underlined sentence “Dad isn’t big on measuring” in Paragraph 5 mean
A．Dad is fond of measuring.
B．Dad is inexperienced in bread baking.
C．Dad is careful about ingredients.
D．Dad doesn’t like measuring.
27．What is the best title of the passage
A．A Valuable Life Lesson. B．Enjoyable Housework.
C．Father’s Unique Way to Relax. D．The Secret of Delicious Bread.
C
The Liberty Bell is an iconic symbol of American independence located in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania. Put to use in 1752, it first cracked when rung after arriving in Philadelphia, and was twice recast by local workmen John Pass and John Stow, whose last names appeared on the bell.
Although no immediate announcement was made of the Second Continental Congress’s vote for independence, bells were rung on July 8 to mark the reading of the Declaration of Independence, with the Liberty Bell believed to be among them. The bell was adopted as a symbol by the organizations supporting freedom, which named it the “Liberty Bell” in the 1830s.
In the early 19th century, the Liberty Bell acquired its first large crack, which happened when it was rung after the death of Chief Justice John Marshall in 1835. Although the bell did not ring for independence on July 4, 1776, an 1847 short story claimed that it had, leading to its fame as a symbol of American freedom. From 1885, the City of Philadelphia allowed the bell to go to different events that celebrate the love for one’s country, leading to additional cracking and souvenir hunters chipping pieces away. The bell was later moved to the National Park Service’s custody (监管) after World War II.
During the Cold War and the 1960s, the Liberty Bell became a popular site for protests, which was used as a symbol of freedom. So it was moved from its original home in Independence Hall to a nearby glass pavilion (亭) on Independence Mall in 1976 and then to the larger Liberty Bell Center in 2003. Over the years, the bell has appeared on coins, stamps, and in corporate logos.
To learn more about the bell’s significance, visitors can take a virtual reality tour or visit the National Park Service’s official website.
28．What is this text mainly about
A．The Liberty Bell and John Marshall. B．The reasons why the Liberty Bell cracked.
C．Protests near the Liberty Bell during the Cold War. D．The history and significance of the Liberty Bell.
29．When did the Liberty Bell have the first large crack
A．During the Cold War and the 1960s. B．When it arrived in Philadelphia in 1752.
C．When it rang for independence on July 4, 1776. D．After the death of Chief Justice John Marshall.
30．Why was the Liberty Bell moved to a nearby glass pavilion on Independence Mall
A．It was used as a popular site for protests. B．It would be replaced with a new one.
C．It should have been accessible to visitors. D．It was close to Independence Hall.
31．Where is this text most likely to be published
A．In a history book. B．In a tourism magazine.
C．In a book about architecture. D．In a magazine about stamp collection.
D
Adults should prioritize book reading, which helps promote mental health, according to a global study conducted in 2023. Researchers surveyed 15,000 participants aged 25-60 across 25 countries, combining questionnaires with cognitive tests. The findings highlight alarming trends and solutions.
In the past decade, weekly reading rates dropped sharply. Only 33% of adults read books weekly, compared to 51% in2013. Chinese adults demonstrated slightly higher engagement, with 38% reading printed books monthly — higher than the global average of 29%. However, 63% admitted to spending over 3.5 hours daily on short video or social media. European nations like Italy and Spain mirrored this pattern, where 68% cited “exhaustion from work” as the primary barrier.
Regular readers demonstrated significant advantages. Those dedicating over 5 hours weekly to books scored 28% higher in memory and problem-solving assessments. Emotionally, 43% of frequent readers reported effective stress management techniques, versus 19% among non-readers. Brain scans showed that sustained reading strengthens neural pathways in the prefrontal cortex (大脑前额叶皮层), which governs decision-making. Dr. Helen Park, a neurologist from Yale, explains: “Deep reading acts as cognitive training, much like lifting weights for the mind.”
Cultural divides appeared in content preferences. Asian readers prioritized educational materials — 58% chose history, science, or career-related books. In contrast, 61% of Western participants favored fiction for relaxation. Digital adoption also varied: e-books accounted for 70% of adult reading in the U. S. and U. K., while 76% of Asian readers preferred printed books. Researchers link this to cultural traditions; for instance, China’s book-friendly society concept emphasizes tactile (触觉的) and visual engagement with texts.
The study proposes actionable strategies. Governments are urged to launch workplace reading initiatives — companies like Siemens and Huawei now offer 20-minute paid “reading breaks” daily, observing 15-20% productivity increases. Schools should inspire parental reading through community programs. “Reading isn’t a luxury — it’s a lifelong health investment,” insists Dr. Carlos Mendez, the study’s lead author. “Even 12 minutes daily builds mental resilience (恢复力) across lifetimes.”
32．What method did researchers use to study reading’s impact on the brain
A．Interviews with educators. B．Analysis of book sales data.
C．Social media usage tracking. D．Brain scans and cognitive tests.
33．Why might Chinese readers prefer printed books
A．Limited access to e-books. B．Influence of traditional values.
C．Lower costs of printed materials. D．Government restrictions on digital content.
34．How does Dr. Carlos Mendez view reading
A．Asa luxury for the wealthy. B．As a popular trend in society.
C．As a way to restore mental power. D．As a substitute for physical exercise.
35．Which is the best title for the text
A．Reading Decline: Causes and Fixes
B．Work Stress: The Main Barrier to Reading
C．Digital Books vs. Paper Books:A Global Debate
D．Short Videos: The Killer of Traditional Reading
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
When preparing fruit and vegetables, many people prefer to peel them. Here comes a question. 36
Fruit and vegetables are rich sources of vitamins, minerals, fiber and some good plant chemicals. Not consuming enough of these foods is linked to an increased risk of some chronic diseases. But eating 400g of fruit and vegetables a day, as the WHO recommends, is difficult to achieve for many people. 37 They can certainly contribute. For example, nutritionally important amounts of vitamins, such as vitamin C and riboflavin (核黄素), and minerals such as iron and zine, are found in the peels of seven root vegetables: beetroot, field mustard, wild carrot, sweet potatoes, radish, ginger and white potatoes. And the US Department of Agriculture shows that unpeeled apples contain 15% more vitamin C, 267% more vitamin K, 20% more calcium, 19% more potassium and 85% more fiber than their peeled equivalents.
38 According to the UN’s Food and Agriculture Organization, uneaten food, including peels, generates 8% - 10% of the world’s greenhouse gas emissions. Food rotting in landfills releases a lot of methane. New Zealand alone reports an annual wastage of 13,658 tonnes of vegetable peels and 986 tonnes of fruit peels — a country with a population of only 5.1 million people.
So why do people peel fruit and vegetables Some must be peeled as the outer portions are inedible, don’t taste nice, are hard to clean or cause harm, such as bananas, oranges, melons, pineapples, mangoes, avocados, onion and garlic. Also peeling may be a necessary part of the recipe, for example, when making mashed potato. 39
Also, some people peel fruit and vegetables because they are concerned about pesticides (杀虫剂) on the surface. Pesticide remains are certainly left on or just below the surface, although this varies according to plant species. 40 Indeed, the US Food and Drug Administration recommends that people wash produce thoroughly under cold water and scrub it with a hard brush to remove pesticides, dirt and chemicals.
A．Is peeling a necessary step before eating
B．There are important nutrients in the peels.
C．However, most of them can be removed by washing.
D．Are peels the most common food waste in the kitchen
E．But many peels are edible, and yet people still peel them anyway.
F．So could consuming fruit and vegetable peels help with this issue
G．Another reason not to discard peels is their effect on the environment.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Rain drummed endlessly on the pavement as Mom and I hurried home from the grocery store under her faded blue umbrella. As a girl of 16, I hated her “old-fashioned” 41 — why not order delivery or call a ride like everyone else “We could’ve avoided this,” I glared at my wet sneakers, 42 about her forgotten phone.
Suddenly, Mom 43 . “Look,” she whispered. Beneath a thorny rose bush, a tiny gray kitten trembled, its fur 44 bony ribs (肋骨). Without a word, Mom knelt on the wet sidewalk, regardless of her new pants. She 45 the umbrella over the creature, her silver-lined hair darkening in the rain. “Go to Mr. Chen’s store,” she 46 . “Ask for a box and a towel.”
I dashed, heavy rain splashing up my jeans. When I returned, Mom was singing 47 — a song she’d sung to me as a child. The kitten blinked up at her, its 48 mews softening. For 20 minutes, we waited together in the downpour until animal rescue 49 . Mom’s hands, wrinkled and steady, gently lifted the kitten into the box they carry.
The walk home was silent. Rain dripped from our noses, but an unfamiliar 50 bloomed in my chest. As we turned the corner, Mom said quietly, “Kindness doesn’t need 51 . It just needs a heart that 52 .”
That night, I dug out an old umbrella from the closet — bright yellow, with daisy patterns. “For next time,” I told her, avoiding her 53 gaze. Suddenly Mom realized and smiled, and I finally understood: her “oddness” wasn’t a weakness, but a language of love written in small, stubborn 54 . Now, when it rains, I walk slower. I watch for kittens — and for 55 to speak her unspoken love back to her.
41．A．clothes B．habits C．words D．ideas
42．A．complaining B．discussing
C．inquiring D．investigating
43．A．shook B．fell C．lay D．froze
44．A．hardening B．shading C．coating D．painting
45．A．angled B．folded C．waved D．swung
46．A．exploded B．screamed C．urged D．begged
47．A．casually B．softly C．proudly D．firmly
48．A．terrified B．curious C．interested D．sympathetic
49．A．returned B．warned C．left D．arrived
50．A．calmness B．warmth C．confidence D．anxiety
51．A．examples B．models C．equipment D．technology
52．A．breaks B．sinks C．notices D．races
53．A．concerned B．surprised C．satisfied D．relieved
54．A．acts B．needs C．opinions D．comments
55．A．courage B．belief C．chances D．reasons
第二节（共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Born in Lyon, France, in 1931, Chang Shana began to study the art of mural (壁画) painting in Dunhuang in 1945. Three years later, she went to the US for 56 (far) studies.
In 1950, she went back to China, and then she worked as an assistant to architect Lin Huiyin (1904-1955) at Tsinghua University. In 1953, she 57 (teach) at the Academy of Fine Arts and then at the Central Academy of Arts and Design.
In early 1943, her mother took her and her little brother to Dunhuang and Chang, 58 was only 12 at the time, has been attracted by the charm of Dunhuang art ever since. 59 (influence) by her father, Chang Shuhong, little Chang developed an interest in painting. Her father encouraged her 60 (study) French and Western and Chinese art history. She also had to go to the Dunhuang caves every day to copy the cave paintings. In winter, her father would also give her 61 (guide) in painting techniques. These activities laid a good foundation 62 her art.
In 1982, Chang Shana took up the post of the deputy dean of the Central Academy of Arts and Design, and in 1983 she became the dean, 63 (quit) her job in 1998.
Apart from being 64 educator, Chang Shana has been 65 (active) engaged in the research and protection of Dunhuang culture.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是李华，得知外教Tom最近经常头痛，吃药后效果不佳。请你给他写一封电子邮件，推荐他尝试中医（traditional Chinese medicine）治疗。要点如下：
1. 中医的优点（advantages）：比如中医师根据患者个人情况提供个性化处方（For example, doctors of traditional Chinese medicine tend to offer patients a particular prescription based on their personal conditions）。可再列举1~2个中医优点。
2. 期待他早日康复。
注意：1. 词数80左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3. 邮件的开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Tom,
I am sorry to know you are being troubled by headaches and cannot recover after taking the medicine._________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Twenty years ago, when Jase was seven years old, he still vividly remembered that before Christmas arrived, his mum encouraged him to write letters to Santa Claus himself.
Every year youngsters write adorable notes addressed to Santa Claus, a town in Indiana and the only one to have a post office named after Santa Claus. She told him that Santa gets tons of letters from kids across the globe, so sometimes he isn’t able to get a kid everything on their list.
In his little house, Jase was writing a letter to Santa excitedly and quickly:
Dear Santa,
I’m Jase. I went to school this year. I’ve done so many good things this year. Our teacher often praises me in class. I like reading books, especially the picture book you gave me last Christmas. There is a brave firefighter in the book. When I grow up, I also want to become a hero like him. Could you give me superpowers this year Then I can be a superhero and save lives. I can be a firefighter! Please realise my wish!
It’s amazing how you deliver presents every year to kids like me all over the world.
Thank you so much.
After his father helped him send the letter, he waited for a reply every day. Weeks later, it was finally Christmas. When he ran down the stairs, he saw many packages under a tall Christmas tree in the living room, like a small mountain. He immediately saw Lego set and stickers from his younger sisters, Milly and Rosie. He stopped dead before the tree, looking for his present.
“A fire truck!” he shouted loudly. “Santa gave me superpowers! I’ll become a firefighter!” Jase had learned at school that firefighters were true heroes who saved people from danger. So the little boy wished to be a firefighter. He was so happy that he spent the whole day driving his toy truck. That evening, he couldn’t sleep. He took his truck down to the living room and drove it around. Suddenly, he felt something strange.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为150个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
When he turned around, he saw smoke from the Christmas tree._________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
“There’s a fire!” Jase shouted.____________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
阿坝州2025春季高2027届期末质量检测
英语试题参考答案
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B C A B A B C B A B C C A C B A C B A
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A B B B A D A D D A B D B C A A B G E C
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
B A D C A C B A D B D C B A C
第二节（共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56 57 58 59 60
further taught who Influenced to study
61 62 63 64 65
guidance for quitting an actively
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
Dear Tom,
I am sorry to know you are being troubled by headaches and cannot recover after taking the medicine. Therefore, I am writing to recommend you to have a try on traditional Chinese medicine.
Compared with Western medicine, traditional Chinese medicine possesses many advantages. For example, doctors of traditional Chinese medicine tend to offer patients a particular prescription based on their personal conditions to create a more effective treatment. Additionally, traditional Chinese medicine also relieves the patients of their suffering by acupuncture, which has minor side effects on them.
As a result, I strongly advise you to try it, hoping that you will be free of the headache and that your health will pick up so that all of us can enjoy your inspiring lessons soon.
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
When he turned around, he saw smoke from the Christmas tree. His parents had forgotten to put out some candles, which had caught the tree’s back and the curtains on fire. The fire was spreading fast. “Mum! Dad! There’s a fire in our house!” he shouted as he rushed upstairs and woke up his sisters. Milly woke up and ran downstairs with him, but Rosie was asleep, so he carried her in his arms. He then put his sisters in the truck and rushed to his parents’ room. “What’s wrong, Jase ” his mum asked. “Wait, what’s that smoke ”
“There’s a fire!” Jase shouted. The couple took the kids and rushed out of the house. They called 911, and firefighters arrived on the scene. Fortunately, Jase discovered it in time and avoided a terrible fire accident. One of the firefighters patted Jase’s shoulder and said, “Good job!” Jase smiled and said confidently, “I will become a real superhero like you in the future.” And today, Jase has helped several families from such events, and he’s indeed a superhero, a firefighter.
阿坝州2025春季高2027届期末质量检测
英语试题听力材料
1．
M: The car was completely ruined and the man driver seriously injured. Did you see it
W: Yes. But luckily, two women and a baby were not hurt in the terrible accident.
2．
M: Hi, could you give me some advice My son and his friend plan to go on vacation by themselves this summer.
W: Sure. The first thing you should do is to decide what kind of vacation they would like. Why don’t you have a quick look at our special offers
3．
W：Excuse me. Can you tell me how to get to the Teaching Building
M：Sure. Follow Main Path in the garden, and then turn right on to the bridge. Turn left after the bridge. The Teaching Building is across from the Music Building.
4．
M: Hey, Lily. I noticed you playing volleyball with a girl at the park this morning. She was just as sweet as a strawberry.
W: Oh, that was my sister’s friend, Emma. She came over to borrow a history book.
5．
W: What matters most to me in a friendship is having common interests
M: In my view, the most important thing is understanding and support. Although I don’t have much in common with my friends, I can always share good news and bad feelings with them.
6．
W: I just bought a ticket to London. I’m so excited to see the city.
M: That’s great. When are you leaving
W: Next week. I’m taking the late-night flight. It’s cheaper.
M: London is a fantastic place. You’ll have so much fun.
W: I hope so. I’ll stay for a week and then take the train down to Edinburgh.
M: That sounds like an amazing vacation, I’m looking forward to a week at the seaside for my Christmas vacation. I just want to relax.
7．
M: I can’t stop watching short videos online!
W: Oh, I know how you feel. Many studies show that being addicted to videos is real and it has a bad effect on the brain.
M: Hmmm...It’s a little hard for me to break away from it. I started watching a cat video. And now I’ve watched more than ten videos about pets.
W: That is what video software does to you. After you watch a video, there are always suggestions for other videos you might enjoy. They are almost the same, so I think it is a waste of time.
M: I see, this is the last one I’m going to watch. Then I’m going to the gym.
W: I’ll go with you. I’ve put on a lot of weight recently.
M: Great. We should do more sports to keep healthy from now on.
8．
M：Hello. This is Jack Smith. I received your phone message about a problem with your computer. How can I help you
W：Oh, thanks for getting back to me so fast, I’m working online from home. I knocked over a glass of water on the keyboard by accident, and now my computer isn’t working.
M：OK, we should be able to do something about that.
W：Oh, good.
M：Does the light come on when you turn your computer on and can you hear the fan
W：I can hear the fan.
M：That is a good sign.
W：But the screen is just black.
M：OK, now don’t connect your computer to power source. Could you bring it to our shop so we can have a look at it
W：I can. By the way, will you be able to fix it quickly I have lots of work this week.
M：I will try my best.
9．
M: Hi, Sara. Why did you come to the library today
W: Hi! I’ve been using the dictionaries to look up some words for my art history class. What about you
M: I have two papers to finish at the end of this term, so I’m trying to start early by collecting some materials.
W: But it’s only the first week of the term. You really like to plan ahead. I’m a bit tired now. Would you like to go and get some coffee with me
M: Sure. Let me pack up my things. Oh, where are my note cards I thought I put them in my bag.
W: You lost your note cards
M: I’m not sure, but I can’t find them now.
W: Now, think about where you’ve been in the library since you arrived.
M: I think I first went to the reading room. Then I was in the study hall... I was sitting at a desk and looking at my notes. Oh...Let me go and check the study hall. When I come back, we can go to the coffee shop.
W: Sounds good.
10．
You might not know about “Buy Nothing Day”, but it has been celebrated on the same day as Black Friday since 1997. The rule is easy: don’t buy anything for 24 hours. Many people are surprised at how hard this can be. The goal is to get people to think more about their spending and make better choices about what they buy and where they buy it from. For example, you could try not to buy clothes that are cheap but only worn a few times. Making these kinds of decisions can help the environment and save you money. So, what else can you do on Buy Nothing Day Some people protest at malls, while others stay away from stores and go for a walk in nature instead, enjoying the beauty of the outdoors and taking a break from the ongoing shopping culture. Another popular idea is that people give away their winter coats in November, and anyone who needs can take one on Buy Nothing Day. This not only helps those in need but also promotes a culture of sharing. By joining Buying Nothing Day, you can see how important it is to think carefully about what you buy and how it affects your money and the environment.
