内蒙古自治区包头市2024-2025学年高二下学期期末考试英语试题（含答案，无听力原文及音频）
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| 名称 | 内蒙古自治区包头市2024-2025学年高二下学期期末考试英语试题（含答案，无听力原文及音频） |  | |
| 格式 | docx | ||
| 文件大小 | 38.4KB | ||
| 资源类型 | 教案 | ||
| 版本资源 | 人教版（2019） | ||
| 科目 | 英语 | ||
| 更新时间 | 2025-07-22 14:39:22 | ||
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文档简介
试卷类型：A
绝密★启用前
2024—2025学年度第二学期高二年级期末教学质量检测试卷
英语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷分笔试和听力两部分。答卷前，务必将自己的姓名、座位号写在答题卡上。将条形码粘贴在规定区域。本试卷满分150分。
2. 考生将笔试部分和听力部分答案写在英语答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the woman going to do this afternoon
A. Take an important test. B. Hang out with Alex. C. Prepare for an exam.
2. How much should the man pay
A. $2.10. B. $2.30. C. $2.90.
3. What is probably the woman
A. A customer. B. A shop assistant. C. A manager.
4. What does Lily think of eating raw food
A. Harmful. B. Healthy. C. Strange.
5. Why does the woman move to a new place
A. For convenience. B. For friendly neighbors. C. For a quiet environment.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. How does the woman finally send the parcel
A. By regular mail. B. By overnight mail. C. By email.
7. What does the woman want to buy
A. A package. B. Two stamps. C. Some envelopes.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Who will the man talk to
A. Mrs. Collins. B. Mr. Hunter. C. Miss Brown.
9. When will the speakers meet
A. At 11:00 am. B. At 2:00 pm. C. At 2:15 pm.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What will the woman probably use the car for
A. Going on long trips. B. Picking up her kid. C. Visiting her hometown.
11. Why does the man know so much about cars
A. He’s a car salesman. B. He’s interested in cars. C. He’s a professional driver.
12. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Electric cars.
B. Environment protection.
C. Advantages of gas-powered cars.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What has caused the woman to quit her current job
A. The low salary. B. The long working hours. C. The job’s dark future.
14. How did the woman know about the position
A. From a newspaper. B. From the Internet. C. From a friend.
15. What does the woman want to be
A. A director. B. A fashion editor. C. An advertising designed.
16. How does the woman probably sound
A. Nervous. B. Annoyed. C. Confident.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How many African countries has Dieuveil Malonga visited
A. 30. B. 38. C. 54.
18. What has Dieuveil Malonga done
A. He has set up a website.
B. He has offered cooking courses.
C. He has planted many African vegetables.
19. Where did Dieuveil Malonga start to learn to cook
A. In France. B. In Germany. C. In Rwanda.
20. What can we learn about the restaurant
A. It is devoted to training more African chefs.
B. It promotes traditional African cooking methods.
C. It is not cheap at all even to have an average meal there.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Unique City Tours: Beyond the Ordinary
Gone are the days when city tours meant following a dusty guidebook to famous sites. Today, passionate locals offer creative tours that reveal a city’s true soul. Let’s explore four unique ways to experience iconic cities!
Craft beer tour of Berlin with Alex Schmidt
Berlin’s craft beer tour, led by Alex Schmidt, explores hidden neighborhoods and microbreweries. “We taste 8 beers in Friedrichshain,” he says, including alcohol-free options. The tour mixes history with modem culture, showing Berlin’s vibrant food scene.
Kayak tour of Venice with Ginevra Testa
In Venice, Ginevra Testa leads kayak tours through the city’s waterways. Unlike romantic gondola rides, kayaking lets visitors see Venice from a local’s perspective. “Evening tours show the sky’s colors reflecting on the water—people sometimes cry!” she says. Kayaks are eco-friendly, and guides on the water work with gondoliers to avoid motorboats that harm the city.
Running tour of Barcelona with Mattia Giannini
In Barcelona, Mattia Giannini’s running tours let you explore the city while exercising. From 5km to half-marathons, his routes cover 80% of Barcelona’s highlights, like Gaudi’s buildings and beaches. “No one gets left behind,” he says, even offering bikes to tired runners. And remember the best tours usually start early to avoid the rising temperatures and touristic tide.
Police tour of London with Francis Mullan
In London, ex-policeman Francis Mullan’s tour goes beyond typical crime stories. Visiting sites like Great Scotland. Yard and a Sherlock Holmes pub, he shares real police stories. “It’s about understanding what it’s like to serve,” he says, offering a relaxed 2-hour walk.
These tours prove that the best way to know a city is through the eyes of those who love it most!
1. Where can visitors taste various kinds of beers
A. In Berlin. B. In Venice.
C. In Barcelona. D. In London.
2. What is a key feature of Ginevra Testa’s kayak tours in Venice
A. They operate only during daytime hours.
B They use motorboats to navigate quickly.
C. They offer low-impact travel on the water.
D. They include guided visits to St Mark’s Basilica.
3. What does the author suggest visitors do to explore Barcelona uniquely
A. Join morning running tours to avoid crowds.
B. Attend art exhibitions in hidden neighborhoods.
C. Experience romantic gondola rides on the water.
D. Take guided walks through detective-themed sites.
B
Katie DeWitt, a high school junior in Spokane, Washington, has been flying planes since she was 14 — years before she could drive a car. Her first flight was terrifying: “I was kind of freaking out,” she says, but once in the air, she loved the view. Katie is part of the Air-Force Junior ROTC program, which partners with Northwest Flight Service to teach teens to fly.
Evie Nesselrode, a senior at another school, joined the program at 16. Though they attend different schools, Katie and Evie study physics, aircraft mechanics, and math together in flight school. “Flying uses precalculus and algebra (预科微积分和代数),” says Evie. “It makes my brain stronger.” Pilots need math daily: Addition & subtraction to calculate a plane’s weight (too heavy is unsafe for takeoff); Algebra to find flight time based on speed; Geometry to judge runway turns and takeoff angles (a too-steep angle can hit the plane’s tail).
Students practice in the classroom and in the air, always with an adult copilot until they log 30 flight hours. Evie, now dizzy-free, plans to join the Air Force through New Mexico Institute. Katie also aims for a flying career. “Not many people get this opportunity,” she says. “I have big goals, and I’ll work hard for them.”
This program shows how math connects to real-life adventures — and how teens can chase bold dreams with training and determination.
4. What is the meaning of the underlined phrase “freaking out” in paragraph 1
A. Nervous. B. Excited.
C. Calm. D. Disappointed.
5. What can be inferred from the passage about the math requirements for pilots
A. Geometry is the most important math branch for pilots during flight.
B. Math skills are crucial and widely applied in various aspects of flying.
C. Pilots only need basic arithmetic skills like addition and subtraction.
D. Pilots can totally rely on modem technology instead of math knowledge.
6. Which of the following words can best describe the two teenagers
A. Kind-hearted. B. Ambitious.
C. Pessimistic D. Generous.
7. What is the passage mainly about
A. The challenges of learning to fly planes at a young age.
B. How two teenagers use math skills in their flight training.
C. Teenagers pursuing flying dreams with math and determination.
D. The importance of the Air Force Junior ROTC program to teenagers.
C
Many health problems in America — like obesity, heart disease, and diabetes — are linked to poor diet. While some people choose unhealthy foods, others live in “food deserts.” — areas where fresh, nutritious food is hard to find. These neighborhoods, often in low-income urban or rural areas, lack supermarkets and instead have plenty of fast-food restaurants and convenience stores selling processed foods.
Why do food deserts exist Supermarket chains prefer wealthy areas, so poor neighborhoods may have to travel miles for fresh produce. People without cars rely on, buses or nearby stores that offer little nutrition. Fast-food restaurants are also more common in low-income areas, making it easier to choose unhealthy meals. This leads to higher rates of health issues: research shows people in poor neighborhoods are more likely to suffer from obesity and diabetes than those in rich areas.
Solutions exist but they’re challenging. The U.S. government has tried programs like the Healthy Food Financing initiative to attract supermarkets to food deserts, offering tax breaks. However, local-efforts often have a bigger munity gardens, farmers’ markets, and small food stores can provide fresh food while building a sense of community. Though these need time and money, they help people access healthy eating and bring neighbors together.
Food deserts are more than just a food problem — they’re a health crisis. By supporting both government policies and local projects, we can ensure everyone has the right to nutritious food, no matter where they live.
8. Which of the following can be called a food desert
A. A wealthy suburb with three supermarkets.
B. A remote rural town with a weekly farmers’ market.
C. An urban center with fresh produce stands on every block.
D. A poor area with only convenience stores and fast-food outlets.
9. Why do poor neighborhoods often lack supermarkets
A. Residents in poor areas dislike fresh produce.
B. Supermarkets find it hard to hire workers there.
C. Local governments restrict supermarket construction.
D. Supermarkets prefer areas with higher purchasing power.
10. What is the main idea of paragraph 3
A. The challenges of opening small food stores in cities.
B. The importance of community gardens in rural areas.
C. Solutions to food deserts at government and local levels.
D. The U.S. government’s failed attempts to solve food deserts.
11. What is the best title for the text
A. Government Policies for Healthy Eating
B. Fast Food’s Impact on Communities
C. The Link Between Diet and Health in America
D. Food Deserts: Long Way in Nutrition Access
D
Hidden away in the mountains of western Tanzania is one of the largest lakes in the world: Lake Tanganyika.
Environmentalists want to protect the beauty and biological diversity of this area from the harmful effects of overfishing and deforestation. However, in order to do this, they need the cooperation of people in the nearby village of Mahale. In this poor community, malaria and typhoid are existing and spreading uncontrollably, there is little access to doctors, and 13% of children die before age 5. How can we expect people who cannot save their own children to care about saving the environment
While it is true that the Mahale villagers are suffering, environmentalists argue that Lake Tanganyika is in an equally critical condition. This lake is home to hundreds of fish species found nowhere else on the globe. Eighty mammal species live in the surrounding forests and mountains. Ninety percent of Tanzania’s endangered chimpanzees reside in this area. Irreparable (不可挽回的) damage to this ecosystem will result in untold losses.
Furthermore, environmentalists see the destruction of the environment as a direct function of the villagers’ poverty: as the fish population decreases, people are forced to clear more land to grow rice and corn. As they clear more land, the soil run-off from deforestation further reduces the fish population, making it even more difficult for people to survive on fishing alone. This vicious cycle (恶性循环) hams both the Mahale villagers and the environment.
To meet their objective of protecting Lake Tanganyika, environmentalists are now using a combined strategy in Mahale: helping the villagers gain access to healthcare, educating fishermen and farmers about the impact of deforestation and their own role in the declining fish population, and protecting areas of the lake where fish lay eggs. Since natural resources can be the tool by which the people of Tanzania work themselves out of poverty, it is essential that these resources are managed well. By integrating health services with conservation activity, we can begin to heal the suffering in western Tanzania, for people and the land alike.
12. What might be the Mahale villagers’ attitude towards protecting the environment
A. Supportive. B. Opposed.
C. Indifferent. D. Confused.
13. Why do Mahale villagers clear more land
A. To follow government policies on land use.
B. To make up for the decline in fish availability.
C. To promote economic development through farming.
D. To protect Lake Tanganyika from environmental damage.
14. Why do the environmentalists help the villagers gain access to healthcare
A. Saving the villagers’ lives is more important than saving the lake.
B. Saving the villagers’ lives would directly result in less overfishing of the lake.
C. Addressing the villagers’ problem could encourage them to preserve the environment.
D. Offering healthcare could be a way for the environmentalists to live in the community.
15. The information presented in this passage can best be described as ________.
A. a problem and a solution
B. a question with two answers
C. an analysis of underlying causes
D. an explanation for a relationship
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分;满分12.5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Fitness, Sleep and Play: Keys to Balanced Living
Healthy living doesn’t require strict routines-small, consistent habits can make a big difference. Here’s how to integrate wellness into daily life through science-backed practices.
Fitness: Small Moves, Big Impact.
Experts suggest treating exercise like “snacks” throughout the day. The key is to link exercise with daily activities you already do, like cooking or waiting in line. ____16____ Research shows short, frequent activities can give similar benefits to gym workouts, from strength training to better heart health.
Another smart tip is pairing exercise with fun. Watch your favorite show only when you’re on an exercise bike or doing stretches. ____17____ Whether it’s a morning walk with a friend or a group workout, having someone to exercise with helps you stay consistent.
____18____
Aim for 7-9 hours of sleep, adjusting in15-minute increments to find what works for you. Start bedtime routines earlier — like reading or stretching — to see if you wake up refreshed. Many people stay up late to “steal” free time, a habit called “revenge bedtime procrastination.” Keep bedrooms cool (under 70℉) and use them only for sleep. Training your brain to see bed as a place to rest improves sleep quality.
Play: A Core Human Need.
Play isn’t just for kids — it helps you adapt to challenges and boosts creativity. ____19____ Building creating, or outdoor fun. Expert Stuart Brown identifies “play personalities,” from jokers to artist-creators. The SPARK method guides daily play:
Space: Make room for fun instead of only-chores.
Passion: ____20____
Attract: Try new things, like joining a class.
Rebellion: Do lighthearted things, like midnight skating.
Keep at it: See play as a daily need, not a task.
Whether painting, hiking, or dancing, play brings joy and reduces stress. “It’s a way of life that connects you to happiness,” say studies.
A. Sleep: Find Your Ideal Routine.
B. This makes fitness feel rewarding.
C. Study: Balance Work and Relaxation.
D. Do activities for joy, not to be perfect.
E. To find your play style, think about what you loved as a child.
F. Balanced living ensures physical and mental well-being equally.
G. Biking to work or taking walking meetings combines movement with tasks.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
At 32, Duan Yanyan could have had a stable career in Beijing. ____21____, he chose to work in Laoting county, Hebei, a place full of saline-alkali (盐碱) land. With a background in hardware development, he said, “Office work felt ____22____ from real farming. Being in the field helps me use machines, find problems, and fix them ____23____.”
In 2023, Duan ____24____ Laoting Agricultural Group as a hardware engineer. He led a team to develop automated systems for the farm. They ____25____ 1,500 mu of low-yield land into rich fields. The rice yield went up to 700 kg per unit. How did they do it Using ____26____ like IoT, automated machines, and data apps. “Farmers can ____27____ soil moisture on their phones and control water with smart valves,” Duan explained. This not only cuts fertilizer waste but also ____28____ harvests. Unmanned equipment has also made labor costs ____29____.
The team also tried “green innovation”: raising crabs and crayfish in paddy fields. Flushing water often reduces soil salinity, and this _____30_____ both rice and seafood. Working with research institutes, they test new _____31_____. “Farmers used to _____32_____ unfamiliar seeds,” Duan said. “But showing them yield data after each harvest helps them _____33_____ us.”
Today, the team uses AI to make planting models _____34_____. “We want smart farming to be easy for everyone to _____35_____,” Duan said. “Our tech can help Chinese agriculture grow and more farmers live better lives.”
Through hard work, Duan shows that technology can turn poor land into rich farms—a lesson beyond any textbook.
21. A. However B. Besides C. Therefore D. Otherwise
22. A. similar B. connected C. disconnected D. free
23. A. suddenly B. directly C. carefully D. usually
24. A. started B. left C. joined D. visited
25. A. transformed B. divided C. destroyed D. covered
26. A. skills B. technologies C. methods D. rules
27. A. change B. monitor C. increase D. reduce
28. A. checks B. records C. improves D. measures
29. A. rise B. drop C. stop D. stay
30 A. helps B. harms C. needs D. tests
31. A. tools B. machines C. seeds D. apps
32. A. believe B. doubt C. accept D. grow
33. A. trust B. witness C. teach D. follow
34. A. cheaper B. bigger C. better D. faster
35. A. assess B. use C. share D. develop
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
US influencer (网红) IShowSpeed has taken Chinese social media by storm ____36____ (recent).
Born in 2005, IShowSpeed, ____37____ real name is Darren Watkins Jr., became famous for live streaming sports games and his travels across Europe and Asia. Chinese fans call him “Jia Kang Ge” because ____38____ his excited emotions and big body language.
In late March, he started a live-streaming tour in China, ____39____ (visit) places like Shanghai, Beijing, Henan, Sichuan and Chongqing. He experienced Chinese history and culture, tasted local food and met excited fans and people from all ____40____ (walk) of life.
In Shanghai, he joined park activities and learned about China’s electric cars. In Henan province, he visited the Shaolin Temple and ____41____ (learn) Kungfu. IShowSpeed’s videos give a real picture of ____42____ China is like and are changing how many people around the world see ____43____ country. “After watching his videos, I realized how foolish my previous views on China were. I feel that ____44____ I don’t go to China, I’ll regret for the rest of my life,” a US ____45____ (view) said on YouTube.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假设你是李华，你校计划举办暑期英语夏令营，现向学生征集活动方案。请给活动负责人Mr. Smith写一封英文推荐信，内容包括：
1. 推荐一项活动；
2. 说明推荐理由。
注意：1. 写作词数应为80个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Mr. Smith,
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The Fearful Music Exam
The frightening day of our required music exam arrived. Our parents praised our school’s modem music room with its grand piano and sound system. My mother said it was better than many concert halls. But to me, the piano looked like a sleeping dragon, causing my extreme nervousness and fright.
Being painfully shy, I always chose group activities like choir practice. When Mr. Reed taught solo singing every Friday — a compulsory part of our music course — I’d stand behind the tallest classmate, humming softly to avoid attention.
Now, it was the final Friday — exam day. My fingers turned icy when Mr. Reed announced: “Today, everyone must sing alone for your final grade. Those who fail will retake the exam after school next month.”
As classmates took turns at the front, my knees knocked together. Each sang steadily into the microphone, voices clear under the bright ceiling lights. Soon I’d have to do what terrified me most — singing solo before thirty classmates.
Suddenly I recalled a TV singer’s interview: Watch and learn. So I observed carefully — how they adjusted the microphone height, stood with feet apart, took a deep belly breath, and focused on the back wall while singing. After eight performances, hope flickered in me. Those four steps seemed manageable.
When Mr. Reed called my name, my shoes squeaked (嘎吱作响) on the wooden floor. Every face turned toward me. My neck burned hot. Holding the microphone tightly, I tried the steps: Adjust, Stand, Breathe and Focus. But my voice came out thin and shaky. Even worse, I completely forgot the lyrics at the chorus (副歌). A wave of whispers swept the room as I went back to my seat.
注意：
(1)续写词数应为150左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Burying my face behind the piano lid, I was surprised when its polished surface reflected Mr. Reed approaching.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Three weeks later, holding the same microphone with sweat, I noticed raindrops tracing paths on the window.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
试卷类型：A
绝密★启用前
2024—2025学年度第二学期高二年级期末教学质量检测试卷
英语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷分笔试和听力两部分。答卷前，务必将自己的姓名、座位号写在答题卡上。将条形码粘贴在规定区域。本试卷满分150分。
2. 考生将笔试部分和听力部分答案写在英语答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the woman going to do this afternoon
A. Take an important test. B. Hang out with Alex. C. Prepare for an exam.
2. How much should the man pay
A. $2.10. B. $2.30. C. $2.90.
3. What is probably the woman
A. A customer. B. A shop assistant. C. A manager.
4. What does Lily think of eating raw food
A. Harmful. B. Healthy. C. Strange.
5. Why does the woman move to a new place
A. For convenience. B. For friendly neighbors. C. For a quiet environment.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. How does the woman finally send the parcel
A. By regular mail. B. By overnight mail. C. By email.
7. What does the woman want to buy
A. A package. B. Two stamps. C. Some envelopes.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Who will the man talk to
A. Mrs. Collins. B. Mr. Hunter. C. Miss Brown.
9. When will the speakers meet
A. At 11:00 am. B. At 2:00 pm. C. At 2:15 pm.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What will the woman probably use the car for
A. Going on long trips. B. Picking up her kid. C. Visiting her hometown.
11. Why does the man know so much about cars
A. He’s a car salesman. B. He’s interested in cars. C. He’s a professional driver.
12. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Electric cars.
B. Environment protection.
C. Advantages of gas-powered cars.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What has caused the woman to quit her current job
A. The low salary. B. The long working hours. C. The job’s dark future.
14. How did the woman know about the position
A. From a newspaper. B. From the Internet. C. From a friend.
15. What does the woman want to be
A. A director. B. A fashion editor. C. An advertising designed.
16. How does the woman probably sound
A. Nervous. B. Annoyed. C. Confident.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How many African countries has Dieuveil Malonga visited
A. 30. B. 38. C. 54.
18. What has Dieuveil Malonga done
A. He has set up a website.
B. He has offered cooking courses.
C. He has planted many African vegetables.
19. Where did Dieuveil Malonga start to learn to cook
A. In France. B. In Germany. C. In Rwanda.
20. What can we learn about the restaurant
A. It is devoted to training more African chefs.
B. It promotes traditional African cooking methods.
C. It is not cheap at all even to have an average meal there.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. C 3. A
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. D 9. D 10. C 11. D
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12 C 13. B 14. C 15. A
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分;满分12.5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. G 17. B 18. A 19. E 20. D
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. B
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. recently
37. whose 38. of
39. visiting
40. walks 41. learned##earnt
42. what 43. the
44. if 45. viewer
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Mr. Smith,
I am writing to recommend organizing an English Debate Competition during the summer camp. This activity would provide students with comprehensive language immersion and critical thinking practice.
Firstly, debates require participants to express themselves fluently, enhancing speaking skills under pressure — a vital ability for future exams and communication. Moreover, researching diverse topics during the process will broaden students’ global perspectives.
By integrating teamwork and public speaking, this activity fosters confidence and logical expression. I believe it aligns perfectly with the camp’s goal of combining learning with creativity.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】
Burying my face behind the piano lid, I was surprised when its polished surface reflected Mr. Reed approaching. His shadow fell across my trembling hands. He said softly, “I once forgot every note at my first concert.” He placed a sheet of lyrics before me. “Meet me after school Mondays We’ll practice step by step.” His kindness warmed my frozen heart. That afternoon, we started with belly breathing. “Feel your feet root to the ground,” he guided. Though my voice still quivered, the piano lid no longer hid my tears of hope.
Three weeks later, holding the same microphone with sweat, I noticed raindrops tracing paths on the window. Adjust, stand, breathe and focus. I mouthed the steps. As the piano intro began, my feet planted firmly. This time, my voice was clear and steady. I felt the music flow through me, and I knew I had improved. When the last note faded, silence hung for a breath — then applause erupted like summer rain. Mr. Reed nodded and smiled, eyes crinkling. I had conquered my fear, and I knew I could face any challenge ahead.
绝密★启用前
2024—2025学年度第二学期高二年级期末教学质量检测试卷
英语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷分笔试和听力两部分。答卷前，务必将自己的姓名、座位号写在答题卡上。将条形码粘贴在规定区域。本试卷满分150分。
2. 考生将笔试部分和听力部分答案写在英语答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the woman going to do this afternoon
A. Take an important test. B. Hang out with Alex. C. Prepare for an exam.
2. How much should the man pay
A. $2.10. B. $2.30. C. $2.90.
3. What is probably the woman
A. A customer. B. A shop assistant. C. A manager.
4. What does Lily think of eating raw food
A. Harmful. B. Healthy. C. Strange.
5. Why does the woman move to a new place
A. For convenience. B. For friendly neighbors. C. For a quiet environment.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. How does the woman finally send the parcel
A. By regular mail. B. By overnight mail. C. By email.
7. What does the woman want to buy
A. A package. B. Two stamps. C. Some envelopes.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Who will the man talk to
A. Mrs. Collins. B. Mr. Hunter. C. Miss Brown.
9. When will the speakers meet
A. At 11:00 am. B. At 2:00 pm. C. At 2:15 pm.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What will the woman probably use the car for
A. Going on long trips. B. Picking up her kid. C. Visiting her hometown.
11. Why does the man know so much about cars
A. He’s a car salesman. B. He’s interested in cars. C. He’s a professional driver.
12. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Electric cars.
B. Environment protection.
C. Advantages of gas-powered cars.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What has caused the woman to quit her current job
A. The low salary. B. The long working hours. C. The job’s dark future.
14. How did the woman know about the position
A. From a newspaper. B. From the Internet. C. From a friend.
15. What does the woman want to be
A. A director. B. A fashion editor. C. An advertising designed.
16. How does the woman probably sound
A. Nervous. B. Annoyed. C. Confident.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How many African countries has Dieuveil Malonga visited
A. 30. B. 38. C. 54.
18. What has Dieuveil Malonga done
A. He has set up a website.
B. He has offered cooking courses.
C. He has planted many African vegetables.
19. Where did Dieuveil Malonga start to learn to cook
A. In France. B. In Germany. C. In Rwanda.
20. What can we learn about the restaurant
A. It is devoted to training more African chefs.
B. It promotes traditional African cooking methods.
C. It is not cheap at all even to have an average meal there.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Unique City Tours: Beyond the Ordinary
Gone are the days when city tours meant following a dusty guidebook to famous sites. Today, passionate locals offer creative tours that reveal a city’s true soul. Let’s explore four unique ways to experience iconic cities!
Craft beer tour of Berlin with Alex Schmidt
Berlin’s craft beer tour, led by Alex Schmidt, explores hidden neighborhoods and microbreweries. “We taste 8 beers in Friedrichshain,” he says, including alcohol-free options. The tour mixes history with modem culture, showing Berlin’s vibrant food scene.
Kayak tour of Venice with Ginevra Testa
In Venice, Ginevra Testa leads kayak tours through the city’s waterways. Unlike romantic gondola rides, kayaking lets visitors see Venice from a local’s perspective. “Evening tours show the sky’s colors reflecting on the water—people sometimes cry!” she says. Kayaks are eco-friendly, and guides on the water work with gondoliers to avoid motorboats that harm the city.
Running tour of Barcelona with Mattia Giannini
In Barcelona, Mattia Giannini’s running tours let you explore the city while exercising. From 5km to half-marathons, his routes cover 80% of Barcelona’s highlights, like Gaudi’s buildings and beaches. “No one gets left behind,” he says, even offering bikes to tired runners. And remember the best tours usually start early to avoid the rising temperatures and touristic tide.
Police tour of London with Francis Mullan
In London, ex-policeman Francis Mullan’s tour goes beyond typical crime stories. Visiting sites like Great Scotland. Yard and a Sherlock Holmes pub, he shares real police stories. “It’s about understanding what it’s like to serve,” he says, offering a relaxed 2-hour walk.
These tours prove that the best way to know a city is through the eyes of those who love it most!
1. Where can visitors taste various kinds of beers
A. In Berlin. B. In Venice.
C. In Barcelona. D. In London.
2. What is a key feature of Ginevra Testa’s kayak tours in Venice
A. They operate only during daytime hours.
B They use motorboats to navigate quickly.
C. They offer low-impact travel on the water.
D. They include guided visits to St Mark’s Basilica.
3. What does the author suggest visitors do to explore Barcelona uniquely
A. Join morning running tours to avoid crowds.
B. Attend art exhibitions in hidden neighborhoods.
C. Experience romantic gondola rides on the water.
D. Take guided walks through detective-themed sites.
B
Katie DeWitt, a high school junior in Spokane, Washington, has been flying planes since she was 14 — years before she could drive a car. Her first flight was terrifying: “I was kind of freaking out,” she says, but once in the air, she loved the view. Katie is part of the Air-Force Junior ROTC program, which partners with Northwest Flight Service to teach teens to fly.
Evie Nesselrode, a senior at another school, joined the program at 16. Though they attend different schools, Katie and Evie study physics, aircraft mechanics, and math together in flight school. “Flying uses precalculus and algebra (预科微积分和代数),” says Evie. “It makes my brain stronger.” Pilots need math daily: Addition & subtraction to calculate a plane’s weight (too heavy is unsafe for takeoff); Algebra to find flight time based on speed; Geometry to judge runway turns and takeoff angles (a too-steep angle can hit the plane’s tail).
Students practice in the classroom and in the air, always with an adult copilot until they log 30 flight hours. Evie, now dizzy-free, plans to join the Air Force through New Mexico Institute. Katie also aims for a flying career. “Not many people get this opportunity,” she says. “I have big goals, and I’ll work hard for them.”
This program shows how math connects to real-life adventures — and how teens can chase bold dreams with training and determination.
4. What is the meaning of the underlined phrase “freaking out” in paragraph 1
A. Nervous. B. Excited.
C. Calm. D. Disappointed.
5. What can be inferred from the passage about the math requirements for pilots
A. Geometry is the most important math branch for pilots during flight.
B. Math skills are crucial and widely applied in various aspects of flying.
C. Pilots only need basic arithmetic skills like addition and subtraction.
D. Pilots can totally rely on modem technology instead of math knowledge.
6. Which of the following words can best describe the two teenagers
A. Kind-hearted. B. Ambitious.
C. Pessimistic D. Generous.
7. What is the passage mainly about
A. The challenges of learning to fly planes at a young age.
B. How two teenagers use math skills in their flight training.
C. Teenagers pursuing flying dreams with math and determination.
D. The importance of the Air Force Junior ROTC program to teenagers.
C
Many health problems in America — like obesity, heart disease, and diabetes — are linked to poor diet. While some people choose unhealthy foods, others live in “food deserts.” — areas where fresh, nutritious food is hard to find. These neighborhoods, often in low-income urban or rural areas, lack supermarkets and instead have plenty of fast-food restaurants and convenience stores selling processed foods.
Why do food deserts exist Supermarket chains prefer wealthy areas, so poor neighborhoods may have to travel miles for fresh produce. People without cars rely on, buses or nearby stores that offer little nutrition. Fast-food restaurants are also more common in low-income areas, making it easier to choose unhealthy meals. This leads to higher rates of health issues: research shows people in poor neighborhoods are more likely to suffer from obesity and diabetes than those in rich areas.
Solutions exist but they’re challenging. The U.S. government has tried programs like the Healthy Food Financing initiative to attract supermarkets to food deserts, offering tax breaks. However, local-efforts often have a bigger munity gardens, farmers’ markets, and small food stores can provide fresh food while building a sense of community. Though these need time and money, they help people access healthy eating and bring neighbors together.
Food deserts are more than just a food problem — they’re a health crisis. By supporting both government policies and local projects, we can ensure everyone has the right to nutritious food, no matter where they live.
8. Which of the following can be called a food desert
A. A wealthy suburb with three supermarkets.
B. A remote rural town with a weekly farmers’ market.
C. An urban center with fresh produce stands on every block.
D. A poor area with only convenience stores and fast-food outlets.
9. Why do poor neighborhoods often lack supermarkets
A. Residents in poor areas dislike fresh produce.
B. Supermarkets find it hard to hire workers there.
C. Local governments restrict supermarket construction.
D. Supermarkets prefer areas with higher purchasing power.
10. What is the main idea of paragraph 3
A. The challenges of opening small food stores in cities.
B. The importance of community gardens in rural areas.
C. Solutions to food deserts at government and local levels.
D. The U.S. government’s failed attempts to solve food deserts.
11. What is the best title for the text
A. Government Policies for Healthy Eating
B. Fast Food’s Impact on Communities
C. The Link Between Diet and Health in America
D. Food Deserts: Long Way in Nutrition Access
D
Hidden away in the mountains of western Tanzania is one of the largest lakes in the world: Lake Tanganyika.
Environmentalists want to protect the beauty and biological diversity of this area from the harmful effects of overfishing and deforestation. However, in order to do this, they need the cooperation of people in the nearby village of Mahale. In this poor community, malaria and typhoid are existing and spreading uncontrollably, there is little access to doctors, and 13% of children die before age 5. How can we expect people who cannot save their own children to care about saving the environment
While it is true that the Mahale villagers are suffering, environmentalists argue that Lake Tanganyika is in an equally critical condition. This lake is home to hundreds of fish species found nowhere else on the globe. Eighty mammal species live in the surrounding forests and mountains. Ninety percent of Tanzania’s endangered chimpanzees reside in this area. Irreparable (不可挽回的) damage to this ecosystem will result in untold losses.
Furthermore, environmentalists see the destruction of the environment as a direct function of the villagers’ poverty: as the fish population decreases, people are forced to clear more land to grow rice and corn. As they clear more land, the soil run-off from deforestation further reduces the fish population, making it even more difficult for people to survive on fishing alone. This vicious cycle (恶性循环) hams both the Mahale villagers and the environment.
To meet their objective of protecting Lake Tanganyika, environmentalists are now using a combined strategy in Mahale: helping the villagers gain access to healthcare, educating fishermen and farmers about the impact of deforestation and their own role in the declining fish population, and protecting areas of the lake where fish lay eggs. Since natural resources can be the tool by which the people of Tanzania work themselves out of poverty, it is essential that these resources are managed well. By integrating health services with conservation activity, we can begin to heal the suffering in western Tanzania, for people and the land alike.
12. What might be the Mahale villagers’ attitude towards protecting the environment
A. Supportive. B. Opposed.
C. Indifferent. D. Confused.
13. Why do Mahale villagers clear more land
A. To follow government policies on land use.
B. To make up for the decline in fish availability.
C. To promote economic development through farming.
D. To protect Lake Tanganyika from environmental damage.
14. Why do the environmentalists help the villagers gain access to healthcare
A. Saving the villagers’ lives is more important than saving the lake.
B. Saving the villagers’ lives would directly result in less overfishing of the lake.
C. Addressing the villagers’ problem could encourage them to preserve the environment.
D. Offering healthcare could be a way for the environmentalists to live in the community.
15. The information presented in this passage can best be described as ________.
A. a problem and a solution
B. a question with two answers
C. an analysis of underlying causes
D. an explanation for a relationship
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分;满分12.5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Fitness, Sleep and Play: Keys to Balanced Living
Healthy living doesn’t require strict routines-small, consistent habits can make a big difference. Here’s how to integrate wellness into daily life through science-backed practices.
Fitness: Small Moves, Big Impact.
Experts suggest treating exercise like “snacks” throughout the day. The key is to link exercise with daily activities you already do, like cooking or waiting in line. ____16____ Research shows short, frequent activities can give similar benefits to gym workouts, from strength training to better heart health.
Another smart tip is pairing exercise with fun. Watch your favorite show only when you’re on an exercise bike or doing stretches. ____17____ Whether it’s a morning walk with a friend or a group workout, having someone to exercise with helps you stay consistent.
____18____
Aim for 7-9 hours of sleep, adjusting in15-minute increments to find what works for you. Start bedtime routines earlier — like reading or stretching — to see if you wake up refreshed. Many people stay up late to “steal” free time, a habit called “revenge bedtime procrastination.” Keep bedrooms cool (under 70℉) and use them only for sleep. Training your brain to see bed as a place to rest improves sleep quality.
Play: A Core Human Need.
Play isn’t just for kids — it helps you adapt to challenges and boosts creativity. ____19____ Building creating, or outdoor fun. Expert Stuart Brown identifies “play personalities,” from jokers to artist-creators. The SPARK method guides daily play:
Space: Make room for fun instead of only-chores.
Passion: ____20____
Attract: Try new things, like joining a class.
Rebellion: Do lighthearted things, like midnight skating.
Keep at it: See play as a daily need, not a task.
Whether painting, hiking, or dancing, play brings joy and reduces stress. “It’s a way of life that connects you to happiness,” say studies.
A. Sleep: Find Your Ideal Routine.
B. This makes fitness feel rewarding.
C. Study: Balance Work and Relaxation.
D. Do activities for joy, not to be perfect.
E. To find your play style, think about what you loved as a child.
F. Balanced living ensures physical and mental well-being equally.
G. Biking to work or taking walking meetings combines movement with tasks.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
At 32, Duan Yanyan could have had a stable career in Beijing. ____21____, he chose to work in Laoting county, Hebei, a place full of saline-alkali (盐碱) land. With a background in hardware development, he said, “Office work felt ____22____ from real farming. Being in the field helps me use machines, find problems, and fix them ____23____.”
In 2023, Duan ____24____ Laoting Agricultural Group as a hardware engineer. He led a team to develop automated systems for the farm. They ____25____ 1,500 mu of low-yield land into rich fields. The rice yield went up to 700 kg per unit. How did they do it Using ____26____ like IoT, automated machines, and data apps. “Farmers can ____27____ soil moisture on their phones and control water with smart valves,” Duan explained. This not only cuts fertilizer waste but also ____28____ harvests. Unmanned equipment has also made labor costs ____29____.
The team also tried “green innovation”: raising crabs and crayfish in paddy fields. Flushing water often reduces soil salinity, and this _____30_____ both rice and seafood. Working with research institutes, they test new _____31_____. “Farmers used to _____32_____ unfamiliar seeds,” Duan said. “But showing them yield data after each harvest helps them _____33_____ us.”
Today, the team uses AI to make planting models _____34_____. “We want smart farming to be easy for everyone to _____35_____,” Duan said. “Our tech can help Chinese agriculture grow and more farmers live better lives.”
Through hard work, Duan shows that technology can turn poor land into rich farms—a lesson beyond any textbook.
21. A. However B. Besides C. Therefore D. Otherwise
22. A. similar B. connected C. disconnected D. free
23. A. suddenly B. directly C. carefully D. usually
24. A. started B. left C. joined D. visited
25. A. transformed B. divided C. destroyed D. covered
26. A. skills B. technologies C. methods D. rules
27. A. change B. monitor C. increase D. reduce
28. A. checks B. records C. improves D. measures
29. A. rise B. drop C. stop D. stay
30 A. helps B. harms C. needs D. tests
31. A. tools B. machines C. seeds D. apps
32. A. believe B. doubt C. accept D. grow
33. A. trust B. witness C. teach D. follow
34. A. cheaper B. bigger C. better D. faster
35. A. assess B. use C. share D. develop
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
US influencer (网红) IShowSpeed has taken Chinese social media by storm ____36____ (recent).
Born in 2005, IShowSpeed, ____37____ real name is Darren Watkins Jr., became famous for live streaming sports games and his travels across Europe and Asia. Chinese fans call him “Jia Kang Ge” because ____38____ his excited emotions and big body language.
In late March, he started a live-streaming tour in China, ____39____ (visit) places like Shanghai, Beijing, Henan, Sichuan and Chongqing. He experienced Chinese history and culture, tasted local food and met excited fans and people from all ____40____ (walk) of life.
In Shanghai, he joined park activities and learned about China’s electric cars. In Henan province, he visited the Shaolin Temple and ____41____ (learn) Kungfu. IShowSpeed’s videos give a real picture of ____42____ China is like and are changing how many people around the world see ____43____ country. “After watching his videos, I realized how foolish my previous views on China were. I feel that ____44____ I don’t go to China, I’ll regret for the rest of my life,” a US ____45____ (view) said on YouTube.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 假设你是李华，你校计划举办暑期英语夏令营，现向学生征集活动方案。请给活动负责人Mr. Smith写一封英文推荐信，内容包括：
1. 推荐一项活动；
2. 说明推荐理由。
注意：1. 写作词数应为80个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Mr. Smith,
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
The Fearful Music Exam
The frightening day of our required music exam arrived. Our parents praised our school’s modem music room with its grand piano and sound system. My mother said it was better than many concert halls. But to me, the piano looked like a sleeping dragon, causing my extreme nervousness and fright.
Being painfully shy, I always chose group activities like choir practice. When Mr. Reed taught solo singing every Friday — a compulsory part of our music course — I’d stand behind the tallest classmate, humming softly to avoid attention.
Now, it was the final Friday — exam day. My fingers turned icy when Mr. Reed announced: “Today, everyone must sing alone for your final grade. Those who fail will retake the exam after school next month.”
As classmates took turns at the front, my knees knocked together. Each sang steadily into the microphone, voices clear under the bright ceiling lights. Soon I’d have to do what terrified me most — singing solo before thirty classmates.
Suddenly I recalled a TV singer’s interview: Watch and learn. So I observed carefully — how they adjusted the microphone height, stood with feet apart, took a deep belly breath, and focused on the back wall while singing. After eight performances, hope flickered in me. Those four steps seemed manageable.
When Mr. Reed called my name, my shoes squeaked (嘎吱作响) on the wooden floor. Every face turned toward me. My neck burned hot. Holding the microphone tightly, I tried the steps: Adjust, Stand, Breathe and Focus. But my voice came out thin and shaky. Even worse, I completely forgot the lyrics at the chorus (副歌). A wave of whispers swept the room as I went back to my seat.
注意：
(1)续写词数应为150左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Burying my face behind the piano lid, I was surprised when its polished surface reflected Mr. Reed approaching.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Three weeks later, holding the same microphone with sweat, I noticed raindrops tracing paths on the window.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
试卷类型：A
绝密★启用前
2024—2025学年度第二学期高二年级期末教学质量检测试卷
英语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷分笔试和听力两部分。答卷前，务必将自己的姓名、座位号写在答题卡上。将条形码粘贴在规定区域。本试卷满分150分。
2. 考生将笔试部分和听力部分答案写在英语答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the woman going to do this afternoon
A. Take an important test. B. Hang out with Alex. C. Prepare for an exam.
2. How much should the man pay
A. $2.10. B. $2.30. C. $2.90.
3. What is probably the woman
A. A customer. B. A shop assistant. C. A manager.
4. What does Lily think of eating raw food
A. Harmful. B. Healthy. C. Strange.
5. Why does the woman move to a new place
A. For convenience. B. For friendly neighbors. C. For a quiet environment.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. How does the woman finally send the parcel
A. By regular mail. B. By overnight mail. C. By email.
7. What does the woman want to buy
A. A package. B. Two stamps. C. Some envelopes.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. Who will the man talk to
A. Mrs. Collins. B. Mr. Hunter. C. Miss Brown.
9. When will the speakers meet
A. At 11:00 am. B. At 2:00 pm. C. At 2:15 pm.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What will the woman probably use the car for
A. Going on long trips. B. Picking up her kid. C. Visiting her hometown.
11. Why does the man know so much about cars
A. He’s a car salesman. B. He’s interested in cars. C. He’s a professional driver.
12. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Electric cars.
B. Environment protection.
C. Advantages of gas-powered cars.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What has caused the woman to quit her current job
A. The low salary. B. The long working hours. C. The job’s dark future.
14. How did the woman know about the position
A. From a newspaper. B. From the Internet. C. From a friend.
15. What does the woman want to be
A. A director. B. A fashion editor. C. An advertising designed.
16. How does the woman probably sound
A. Nervous. B. Annoyed. C. Confident.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. How many African countries has Dieuveil Malonga visited
A. 30. B. 38. C. 54.
18. What has Dieuveil Malonga done
A. He has set up a website.
B. He has offered cooking courses.
C. He has planted many African vegetables.
19. Where did Dieuveil Malonga start to learn to cook
A. In France. B. In Germany. C. In Rwanda.
20. What can we learn about the restaurant
A. It is devoted to training more African chefs.
B. It promotes traditional African cooking methods.
C. It is not cheap at all even to have an average meal there.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. A 2. C 3. A
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. D 9. D 10. C 11. D
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12 C 13. B 14. C 15. A
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分;满分12.5分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. G 17. B 18. A 19. E 20. D
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. B
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. recently
37. whose 38. of
39. visiting
40. walks 41. learned##earnt
42. what 43. the
44. if 45. viewer
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【46题答案】
【答案】Dear Mr. Smith,
I am writing to recommend organizing an English Debate Competition during the summer camp. This activity would provide students with comprehensive language immersion and critical thinking practice.
Firstly, debates require participants to express themselves fluently, enhancing speaking skills under pressure — a vital ability for future exams and communication. Moreover, researching diverse topics during the process will broaden students’ global perspectives.
By integrating teamwork and public speaking, this activity fosters confidence and logical expression. I believe it aligns perfectly with the camp’s goal of combining learning with creativity.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【47题答案】
【答案】
Burying my face behind the piano lid, I was surprised when its polished surface reflected Mr. Reed approaching. His shadow fell across my trembling hands. He said softly, “I once forgot every note at my first concert.” He placed a sheet of lyrics before me. “Meet me after school Mondays We’ll practice step by step.” His kindness warmed my frozen heart. That afternoon, we started with belly breathing. “Feel your feet root to the ground,” he guided. Though my voice still quivered, the piano lid no longer hid my tears of hope.
Three weeks later, holding the same microphone with sweat, I noticed raindrops tracing paths on the window. Adjust, stand, breathe and focus. I mouthed the steps. As the piano intro began, my feet planted firmly. This time, my voice was clear and steady. I felt the music flow through me, and I knew I had improved. When the last note faded, silence hung for a breath — then applause erupted like summer rain. Mr. Reed nodded and smiled, eyes crinkling. I had conquered my fear, and I knew I could face any challenge ahead.