“五市十校教研教改共同体”2015-2016高二第二学期期末考试
英语
时量：120分钟
总分：150分
考试学校：沅江一中、箴言中学、桃江一中、宁乡一中、雷锋学校、东山学校、南方中学、
岳阳市第十四中学、岳阳市第十五中学、南县一中等
第I卷
第一部分
听力(共两节,
满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;
每小题l
5分,
满分7.
5分)
1.
What
will
Dorothy
do
on
the
weekend
A.
Go
out
with
her
friend.
B.
Work
on
her
paper.
C.
Make
some
plans.
2.
What
was
the
normal
price
of
the
T-shirt
A.
$15
B.
$30.
C.
$50.
3.
What
has
the
woman
decided
to
do
on
Sunday
afternoon
A.
To
attend
a
wedding.
B.
To
visit
an
exhibition.
C.
To
meet
a
friend.
4.
When
does
the
bank
close
on
Saturday
A.
At
l:00
pm.
B.
At
3:00
pm.
C.
At
4:00
pm.
5.
Where
are
the
speakers
A.
In
a
store.
B.
In
a
classroom.
C.
At
a
hotel.
第二节
(共15小题;每小题1
5分,
满分22.
5分)
听第6段材料,
回答第6、7题。
6.
What
do
we
know
about
Nora
A.
She
prefers
a
room
of
her
own.
B.
She
likes
to
work
with
other
girls.
C.
She
lives
near
the
city
center.
7.
What
is
good
about
the
flat
A.
It
has
a
large
sitting
room.
B.
It
has
good
furniture.
C.
It
has
a
big
kitchen.
听第7段材料,
回答第8、9题。
8.
Where
has
Barbara
been
A.
Milan.
B.
Florence.
C.
Rome.
9.
What
has
Barbara
got
in
her
suitcase
A.
Shoes.
B.
Stones.
C.
Books.
听第8段材料,
回答第10至l2题。
l0.
Who
is
making
the
telephone
call
A.
Thomas
Brothers.
B.
Mike
Landon.
C.
Jack
Cooper.
11.
What
relation
is
the
woman
to
Mr.
Cooper
A.
His
wife.
B.
His
boss.
C.
His
secretary.
12.
What
is
the
message
about
A.
A
meeting.
B.
A
visit
to
France.
C.
The
date
for
a
trip.
听第9段材料,
回答第13至l6题。
13.
Who
could
the
man
speaker
most
probably
be
A.
A.
person
who
saw
the
accident.
B.
The
driver
of
the
lorry.
C.
A.
police
officer.
14.
What
was
Mrs.
Franks
doing
when
the
accident
took
place
A.
Walking
along
Churchill
Avenue.
B.
Getting
ready
to
cross
the
road.
C.
Standing
outside
a
bank.
15.
When
did
the
accident
happen
A.
At
about
8:00
a.m.
B.
At
about
9:00
a.m.
C.
At
about
10:00
a.m.
16.
How
did
the
accident
happen
A.
A
lorry
hit
a
car.
B.
A
car
ran
into
a
lorry.
C.
A
bank
clerk
rushed
into
the
street.
听第l0段材料,
回答第17至20题。
17.
What
is
the
talk
mainly
about
A.
The
history
of
the
school.
B.
The
courses
for
the
term.
C.
The
plan
for
the
day.
18.
Where
can
the
visitors
learn
about
the
subjects
for
new
students
A.
In
the
school
hall.
B.
In
the
science
labs.
C.
In
the
classrooms.
19.
What
can
students
do
in
the
practical
areas
A.
Take
science
courses.
B.
Enjoy
excellent
meals.
C.
Attend
workshops.
20.
When
are
the
visitors
expected
to
ask
questions
A.
During
the
lunch
hour.
B.
After
the
welcome
speech.
C.
Before
the
tour
of
the
labs.
第二部分
阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节
(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项。
A
The
Healthy
Habits
Survey
shows
that
only
about
one
third
of
American
seniors
have
correct
habits.
Here
are
some
findings
and
expert
advice.
1.
How
many
times
did
you
brush
your
teeth
yesterday ●
Finding:
A
full
33%
of
seniors
brush
their
teeth
only
once
a
day.●
Step:
Remove
the
300
types
of
bacteria
in
your
mouth
each
morning
with
a
battery-operated
toothbrush.
Brush
gently
for
2
minutes,
at
least
twice
a
day.2.
How
many
times
did
you
wash
your
hands
or
bathe
yesterday ●
Finding:
Seniors,
on
average,
bathe
fewer
than
3
days
a
week.
And
nearly
30%
wash
their
hands
only
4
times
a
day—half
of
the
number
doctors
recommend.●
Step:
We
touch
our
faces
around
3,000
times
a
day—often
inviting
germs
(病菌)
to
enter
our
mouth,
nose,
and
eyes.
Use
toilet
paper
to
avoid
touching
the
door
handle.
And,
most
important,
wash
your
hands
often
with
hot
running
water
and
soap
for
20
seconds.
3.
How
often
do
you
think
about
fighting
germs
●
Finding:
Seniors
are
not
fighting
germs
as
well
as
they
should.
●
Step:
Be
aware
of
germs.
Do
you
know
it
is
not
your
toilet
but
your
kitchen
sponge
(海绵)
that
can
carry
more
germs
than
anything
else
To
kill
these
germs,
keep
your
sponge
in
the
microwave
for
10
seconds.
21.
What
is
found
out
about
American
seniors
A.
Most
of
them
have
good
habits.
B.
About
one
third
of
them
brush
their
teeth
only
once
a
day
C.
All
of
them
are
fighting
germs
better
than
expected.
D.
Nearly
30%
of
them
bathe
three
days
a
week.
22.
Doctors
suggest
that
people
should
wash
their
hands______.
A.
three
times
a
day
B.
twice
a
day
C.
eight
times
a
day
D.
four
times
a
day
23.
Which
of
the
following
is
true
according
to
the
text
A.
A
kitchen
sponge
can
carry
more
germs
than
a
toilet.
B.
There
are
less
than
300
types
of
bacteria
in
the
mouth.
C.
We
should
keep
from
touching
our
faces.
D.
We
should
wash
our
hands
before
touching
a
door
handle.
B
One
day
when
I
was
12,
my
mother
gave
me
an
order:
I
was
to
walk
to
the
public
library,
and
borrow
at
least
one
book
for
the
summer.
This
was
one
more
weapon
for
her
to
defeat
my
strange
problem—
inability
to
read.
In
the
library,
I
found
my
way
into
the
“Children’s
Room.”
I
sat
down
on
the
floor
and
pulled
a
few
books
off
the
shelf
at
random.
The
cover
of
a
book
caught
my
eye.
It
presented
a
picture
of
a
beagle.
I
had
recently
had
a
beagle,
the
first
and
only
animal
companion
I
ever
had
as
a
child.
He
was
my
secret
sharer,
but
one
morning,
he
was
gone,
given
away
to
someone
who
had
the
space
and
the
money
to
care
for
him.
I
never
forgot
my
beagle.
Without
opening
the
book
titled
Amos,
the
Beagle
with
a
Plan,
I
borrowed
it
from
the
library
for
the
summer.
Under
the
shade
of
a
bush,
I
started
to
read
about
Amos.
I
read
very,
very
slowly
with
difficulty.
Though
pages
were
turned
slowly,
I
got
the
main
idea
of
the
story
about
a
dog
who,
like
mine,
had
been
separated
from
his
family
and
who
finally
found
his
way
back
home.
That
dog
was
my
dog,
and
I
was
the
little
boy
in
the
book.
My
mother’s
call
returned
me
to
the
real
world.
I
suddenly
realized
something:
I
had
read
a
book,
and
I
had
loved
reading
that
book.
Everyone
knew
I
could
not
read.
But
I
had
read
it.
Books
could
be
incredibly
wonderful
and
I
was
going
to
read
them.
I
never
told
my
mother
about
my
“miraculous”
(奇迹般地)
experience
that
summer,
but
she
saw
a
slow
but
remarkable
improvement
in
my
classroom
performance
during
the
next
year.
And
years
later,
she
was
proud
that
her
son
had
read
thousands
of
books,
was
awarded
a
PhD
in
literature,
and
authored
his
own
books,
articles,
poetry
and
fiction.
The
power
of
the
words
has
held.
24.
The
author’s
mother
told
him
to
borrow
a
book
in
order
to_____.
A.
encourage
him
to
do
more
walking
B.
help
cure
him
of
his
reading
problem
C.
let
him
spend
a
meaningful
summer
D.
make
him
learn
more
about
weapons
25.
The
book
caught
the
author’s
eye
because_____.
A.
it
contained
pretty
pictures
of
animals
B.
he
found
its
title
easy
to
understand
C.
he
was
reminded
of
his
own
dog
D.
he
liked
children’s
stories
very
much
26.
What
can
be
concluded
from
the
last
paragraph
A.
The
author’s
mother
rewarded
him
with
books.
B.
The
author’s
mother
read
the
same
book.
C.
The
author
has
become
a
successful
writer.
D.
The
author
has
had
happy
summers
ever
since.
27.
Which
one
could
be
the
best
title
of
the
passage
A.
My
Passion
for
Reading
B.
Mum’s
Strict
Order
C.
Reunion
with
My
Beagle
D.
The
Charm
of
a
Book
C
When
asked
about
happiness,
we
usually
think
of
something
extraordinary,
an
absolute
delight,
which
seems
to
get
rarer
the
older
we
get.
For
kids,
happiness
has
a
magical
quality.
Their
delight
at
winning
a
race
or
getting
a
new
bike
is
unreserved
(毫无掩饰的).
In
the
teenage
years
the
concept
of
happiness
changes.
Suddenly
it's
conditional
on
such
things
as
excitement,
love
and
popularity.
I
can
still
recall
the
excitement
of
being
invited
to
dance
with
the
most
attractive
boy
at
the
school
party.
In
adulthood
the
things
that
bring
deep
joy—love,
marriage,
birth—also
bring
responsibility
and
the
risk
of
loss.
For
adults,
happiness
is
complicated
(复杂的)
.
My
definition
of
happiness
is
“the
capacity
for
enjoyment”.
The
more
we
can
enjoy
what
we
have,
the
happier
we
are.
It’s
easy
to
overlook
the
pleasure
we
get
from
the
company
of
friends,
the
freedom
to
live
where
we
please,
and
even
good
health.
I
experienced
my
little
moments
of
pleasure
yesterday.
First
I
was
overjoyed
when
I
shut
the
last
lunch-box
and
had
the
house
to
myself.
Then
I
spent
an
uninterrupted
morning
writing,
which
I
love.
When
the
kids
and
my
husband
came
home,
I
enjoyed
their
noise
after
the
quiet
of
the
day.
Psychologists
tell
us
that
to
be
happy
we
need
a
mix
of
enjoyable
leisure
time
and
satisfying
work.
I
don’t
think
that
my
grandmother,
who
raised
14
children,
had
much
of
either.
She
did
have
a
network
of
close
friends
and
family,
and
maybe
this
is
what
satisfied
her.
We,
however,
with
so
many
choices
and
such
pressure
to
succeed
in
every
area,
have
turned
happiness
into
one
more
thing
we’ve
got
to
have.
We’re
so
self-conscious
about
our
“right”
to
it
that
it’s
making
us
miserable.
So
we
chase
it
and
equal
it
with
wealth
and
success,
without
noticing
that
the
people
who
have
those
things
aren’t
necessarily
happier.
Happiness
isn’t
about
what
happens
to
us—it’s
about
how
we
see
what
happens
to
us.
It’s
the
skillful
way
of
finding
a
positive
for
every
negative.
It’s
not
wishing
for
what
we
don’t
have,
but
enjoying
what
we
do
possess.
28.
As
one
grows
older,
one
______.
A.
tends
to
believe
responsibility
means
happiness
B.
associates
his/her
happiness
less
with
others
C.
will
take
fewer
risks
in
pursuing
happiness
D.
feels
it
harder
to
experience
happiness
29.
What
can
we
learn
about
the
author
from
Paragraphs
5
and
6
A.
She
cares
little
about
her
own
health.
B.
She
is
easily
satisfied
by
things
in
daily
life.
C.
She
enjoys
the
freedom
of
traveling.
D.
She
prefers
getting
pleasure
from
housework.
30.
People
who
equal
happiness
with
wealth
and
success
______.
A.
pay
too
much
attention
to
their
right
to
happiness
B.
consider
pressure
something
blocking
their
way
C.
are
at
a
loss
to
make
correct
choices
D.
are
more
likely
to
be
happy
31.
Which
of
the
following
can
best
explain
the
main
idea
of
the
passage
A.
God
helps
those
who
help
themselves.
B.
Each
man
is
the
master
of
his
own
fate.
C.
Happy
is
he
who
is
content.
D.
Success
leads
to
happiness.
D
Health
experts
have
long
known
that
vitamin
D
is
important
for
healthy
bones
and
teeth.
It
may
also
help
to
protect
the
body
against
diseases
such
as
diabetes
and
cancer.
And
now,
researchers
say
vitamin
D
might
help
fight
brain
diseases
called
dementia
(痴呆).
Dementia
is
a
brain
disease
that
damages
thinking
and
memory
processes,
which
scientists
call
“cognitive
(认知)
abilities.”
Dementia
is
difficult
to
treat.
Taking
care
of
someone
who
has
dementia
is
extremely
demanding.
And
the
disease
is
very
frightening
to
sufferers.
Chris
Roberts
suffers
from
dementia.
He
says
the
worst
part
of
living
with
this
disease
was
getting
lost
while
driving.
“The
worst
thing
that
I
found
was
getting
lost
in
the
car,
not
just
forgetting
where
I
was
going—
I
wouldn’t
know
where
I
was.”
More
than
47
million
people
around
the
world
suffer
from
dementia.
The
World
Health
Organization
reports
that
60
percent
of
them
live
in
low-
and
middle-income
countries.
We
get
vitamin
D
from
some
foods
like
nuts,
lentils
(扁豆)
and
fatty
fish.
We
also
get
vitamin
D
from
the
sun.
But
that
is
not
dependable.
In
some
parts
of
the
world,
there
is
not
enough
sunlight
to
provide
enough
vitamin
D.
Also,
sunblock
prevents
the
vitamin
from
entering
the
body.
To
add
to
the
problem,
the
skin’s
ability
to
process
vitamin
D
weakens
as
a
person
ages.
Researchers
at
Rutgers
University
in
New
Jersey
are
exploring
the
relationship
between
vitamin
D
and
dementia.
The
team
recently
measured
vitamin
D
levels
and
cognitive
ability
in
older
people.
Nutritional
sciences
professor
Joshua
Miller
led
the
team.
He
said
cognitive
abilities
differed
among
the
study
subjects.
He
said
tests
showed
that
about
60
percent
of
the
group
was
low
in
vitamin
D.
32.
Which
of
the
following
is
true
about
vitamin
D
A.
Vitamin
D
can
decrease
people’s
risk
of
heart
diseases.
B.
Vitamin
D
helps
the
body
fight
against
cancer.
C.
Vitamin
D
is
mainly
obtained
from
the
sun.
D.
The
need
for
Vitamin
D
decreases
as
people
age.
33.
What
does
the
underlined
word
“demanding”
mean
in
Paragraph
2
A.
Boring
but
rewarding.
B.
Disturbing
and
frightening.
C.
Disgusting
and
stressful.
D.
Hard
and
tiresome.
34.
What
does
Paragraph
3
mainly
talk
about
A.
How
vitamin
D
affects
people’s
health.
B.
Where
people
get
vitamin
D.
C.
Whether
sunlight
can
produce
vitamin
D.
D.
Why
people’s
age
influences
the
production
of
vitamin
D.
35.
Where
can
we
most
probably
read
the
passage
A.
In
a
travel
brochure.
B.
In
a
literature
magazine.
C.
In
a
science
journal.
D.
In
a
commercial
advertisement.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
For
the
question
of
how
to
set
goals,
we
have
a
very
simple
process
that
you
can
go
through
to
set
your
personal
goals.
36
Identify
your
personal
values
and
task
statements.
37
If
you
can
identity
your
personal
values,
your
personal
goal
will
not
go
wrong.
The
starting
point
of
all
achievements
is
desire.
38
After
you
know
your
personal
values,
find
out
what
you
really
want
to
achieve
in
every
life
aspect.
Life
has
many
aspects
and
in
order
to
lead
a
happy
life,
you
should
set
goals
in
every
aspect.
Write
your
goals
down.
Please
pay
attention
to
this.
39
If
not,
they
will
only
become
dreams.
You
should
limit
your
goals
to
between
5
and
6
at
any
one
time.
To
achieve
your
goals
you
have
to
focus
your
efforts
and
energy.
As
you
progress
and
complete
your
goals,
you
may
add
new
goals.
Develop
a
personal
action
plan.
You
need
to
make
a
detailed
schedule
according
to
your
goals.
Develop
a
personal
action
plan
and
follow
it.
Review
your
progress
and
update
your
goals
accordingly.
40
If
not,
analyze
why
the
goal
is
not
being
met.
Find
a
coach
or
friend
to
help
you
if
you
have
trouble.
Realize
your
goals
step
by
step.
Find
out
more
of
monitoring
the
process
of
goal
setting.
A.
Make
sure
you
are
making
progress.
B.
Your
personal
value
is
the
big
direction.
C.
Figure
out
the
goals
you
want
to
achieve.
D.
It’s
true
that
goal
setting
is
a
lifelong
process.
E.
If
you
want
to
succeed,
you
need
prepare
well.
F.
You
must
write
your
goals
down
on
a
piece
of
paper.
G.
These
steps
can
help
you
achieve
your
goals
more
easily.
第三部分
英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节
完形填空（共20小题；每题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It
was
the
middle
of
third
grade
and
I
was
not
sure
what
had
got
into
me.
I
lied
about
many
things—I
lied
I
had
eaten
all
my
dinner,
when
41
I
buried
it
in
the
trash
can.
I
lied
that
I
had
42
my
bed,
when
clearly
I
had
not.
My
lies
were
not
43
anyone,
but
for
some
reason
I
felt
the
44
to
tell
lies
on
an
impulse
(冲动)
that
didn’t
feel
like
my
own.
I
was
labeled(贴标签)
a
liar.
One
day
my
45
and
I
were
invited
to
spend
the
weekend
with
my
aunt.
We
all
loved
it
as
she
46
us
very
much.
And
she
was
an
47
artist.
She
had
cool
pencils,
erasers
and
other
supplies
that
any
young
girl
would
love
to
get
her
hands
on.
48
it
happened…someone
49
one
of
Aunt
Kim’s
good
art
erasers
and
rubbed
it
across
the
entire
top
of
the
TV.
The
eraser
50
the
shiny
finish
on
the
TV’s
casing.
All
the
three
of
us
were
called
into
the
TV
room
and
asked
to
admit.
51
did!
Aunt
Kim
told
us
how
52
she
was.
The
next
thing
I
knew
was
that
she
was
on
the
phone
with
my
parents
53
they
were
on
their
way
to
picking
me
up.
It
54
be
me!
I
was
the
liar.
I
argued,
but
no
one
55
.
And
then
before
dinner
there
was
a
knock
at
the
front
door!
Aunt
Kid
was
standing
there.
It
56
that
my
younger
sister
finally
felt
guilty!
She
57
that
she
was
the
one
who
rubbed
the
eraser
on
the
TV.
I
was
invited
back!
A
lie
may
58
the
present,
but
it
has
no
future.
No
matter
how
big
or
small
your
lies
are,
59
you
are
labeled
a
liar,
earning
60
takes
a
lot
of
work
and
time.
41.
A.
similarly
B.
actually
C.
naturally
D.
wisely
42.
A.
made
B.
washed
C.
moved
D.
fixed
43.
A.
winning
B.
reflecting
C.
hurting
D.
inviting
44.
A.
chance
B.
change
C.
duty
D.
need
45.
A.
sisters
B.
friends
C.
classmates
D.
brothers
46.
A.
disturbed
B.
adored
C.
abandoned
D.
doubted
47.
A.
honest
B.
amazing
C.
innocent
D.
abnormal
48.
A.
Again
B.
Soon
C.
Finally
D.
Then
49.
A.
took
B.
produced
C.
invented
D.
sold
50.
A.
added
B.
improved
C.
ruined
D.
founded
51.
A.
Somebody
B.
Anybody
C.
Nobody
D.
Everybody
52.
A.
satisfied
B.
terrified
C.
moved
D.
disappointed
53.
A.
and
B.
while
C.
but
D.
for
54.
A.
used
to
B.
had
to
C.
would
rather
D.
had
better
55.
A.
waited
B.
disagreed
C.
listened
D.
stopped
56.
A.
seemed
B.
sounded
C.
figured
out
D.
turned
out
57.
A.
admitted
B.
realized
C.
promised
D.
swore
58.
A.
make
fun
of
B.
take
care
of
C.
take
off
D.
break
down
59.
A.
until
B.
unless
C.
whether
D.
once
60.
A.
independence
B.
kindness
C.
trust
D.
wealth
第II卷
第三部分
英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第二节（共10小题；每题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
While
I
was
on
vacation
last
week,
I
decided
to
visit
some
restaurants
61
(try)
some
local
food.
However,
I
didn’t
know
about
the
types
of
restaurants
available,
so
I
checked
an
online
restaurant
guide
to
give
me
some
ideas
and
tips.
I
was
62
(main)
interested
in
seafood
restaurants,
so
I
searched
63
restaurants
within
a
reasonable
walking
distance
from
my
hotel,
and
I
64
(find)
seven
of
them.
Next,
I
reviewed
the
online
menus
of
the
places
to
check
the
65
(dish)
they
prepared
and
the
average
cost
of
a
meal.
However,
price
is
not
my
first
66
(consider);
I
enjoy
a
restaurant
67
has
a
wide
selection.
Next,
a
restaurant’s
background
music,
decorations
and
wall
hangings,
seats
and
tables
can
always
add
to
the
dining
experience.
If
I
go
to
a
Mexican
restaurant,
I
will
expect
to
see
68
restaurant
decorated
in
the
Mexican
style.
Finally,
I
always
consult
restaurant
reviews
to
find
out
what
other
people
thought
about
the
restaurant
and
69.___________
(they)
experiences.
What
was
the
quality
of
the
food
Did
the
server
provide
fast
and
friendly
service
70
(do)
some
research
before
you
go
can
make
dining
a
more
pleasurable
and
predictable
experience.
第四部分：写作
(共两节，满分35分)
第一节
短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线(＼)划掉。
修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.
每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.
只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
Dear
Sir,
I’m
writing
to
apply
to
be
one
of
the
volunteer
for
the
Winter
Olympic
Games
to
be
held
in
2022.
I’m
Li
Hua,
a
18-year-old
boy
who
loves
doing
sports
regular
in
my
spare
time.
I
love
sports
so
much
that
I
can
devote
all
my
energy
to
serve
the
game.
Besides,
I
can
speak
English
fluently,
which
make
me
more
qualified
to
help
foreigners.
Meanwhile,
not
only
do
I
have
the
ability
to
organize
activities,
and
I
am
outgoing
and
energetic,
which
benefits
to
me
in
communication
with
strangers.
I
believe
I
suitable
for
the
position.
I
would
appreciate
that
if
you
consider
my
application
and
offered
me
the
opportunity.
Looking
forward
to
your
reply.
Yours,
Li
Hua
第二节
书面表达
(25分)
假定你是李华，与留学生朋友John约好下周六下午一起去看电影，因故不能赴约。请给他写封邮件，内容包括：
1.
表示歉意；
2.
说明原因；
3.
另约时间。
注意：
1.
词数100左右；
2.
可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
参考答案
第一部分：听力(共两节，满分30分)
1-20
1-5.
BBABC
6-10
ACAAB
11-15
CACCB
16-20.
BCBCA
第二部分：阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
21-40
BCA
BCCD
DBAC
BDBC
GBCFA
第三部分
英语知识运用
(共两节，满分45)
第一节
完形填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)41-60
BACDA
BBDAC
CDABC
DABDC
第二节
语法填空(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
61-70
61.
to
try
62.
mainly
63.
for
64.
found
65.
dishes
66.
consideration
67.
that/which
68.
the
69.
their
70.
Doing/To
do
第四部分
写作
(共两节，满分35分)
第一节
短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
Dear
Sir,
I’m
writing
to
apply
to
be
one
of
the
volunteer
(volunteers)
for
the
Winter
Olympic
Games
to
be
held
in
2022.
I’m
Li
Hua,
a
(an)
18-year-old
boy
who
loves
doing
sports
regular
(regularly)
in
my
spare
time.
I
love
sports
so
much
that
I
can
devote
all
my
energy
to
serve
(serving)
the
game.
Besides,
I
can
speak
English
fluently,
which
make
(makes)
me
more
qualified
to
help
foreigners.
Meanwhile,
not
only
do
I
have
the
ability
to
organize
activities,
and
(but)
I
am
outgoing
and
energetic,
which
benefits
to
(删掉)
me
in
communication
with
strangers.
I
believe
I
(加am)suitable
for
the
position.
I
would
appreciate
that
(it)
if
you
consider
my
application
and
offered
(offer)
me
the
opportunity.
Looking
forward
to
your
reply.
Yours,
Li
Hua
第二节
书面表达（满分25分）
Dear
John,
I’m
terribly
sorry
that
I
can’t
go
to
the
cinema
with
you
next
Saturday
afternoon.
I’ve
just
informed
that
I
have
to
attend
an
important
class
meeting
that
afternoon
and
I’ll
have
to
give
a
lecture
at
the
meeting.
I
hope
the
change
will
not
cause
you
too
much
trouble.
Shall
we
go
on
next
Sunday
afternoon
We
can
set
out
early
so
that
we’ll
have
more
time
to
have
a
face-to-face
talk
before
going
to
the
cinema.
If
it’s
convenient
for
you,
let’s
meet
at
2:30
outside
the
school
gate.
If
not,
let
me
know
what
time
suits
you
best.
I
should
be
available
any
time
after
school
next
week.
Yours
Li
Hua
书面表达内容要点：
1.
表示歉意；
2.
说明原因；
3.
另约时间。
各档次评分标准：
第五档：（21－25分）
很好地完成了试题规定的任务；
按要求写出了内容要点；
语言结构和词汇选用恰当、丰富；语言错误极少；
有效采用不同连接手段，层次清楚；
格式和语域恰当；
完全达到与目标读者交流的目的。
第四档：（16－20分）
较好地完成了试题规定的任务；
包含基本内容要点，允许漏掉一到两个次要点；
使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇；
语言较为准确，只有试图表达较复杂意义时才出现个别错误；
采用了较适当的衔接手法，层次清楚；
格式与语域较恰当；
达到与目标读者交流的目的。
第三档：（11－15分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务；
包含多数内容要点，可能漏掉一些内容；
应用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足任务需求；
有一些语法及词汇错误，但不影响理解；
采用了简单的衔接手法，内容较连贯，层次较清楚；
格式与语域基本合理；
基本达到与目标读者交流的目的。
第二档：（6―10分）
未能按要求完成试题规定的任务；
漏掉或未能有效写出一些内容要点；或写了一些无关内容；
语法结构单调、词汇未能满足表达需求；
有较多语法结构及词汇错误，影响了对内容的表达；
未采用合适的衔接手法，内容缺少连贯性，层次不清楚；
格式与语域不恰当；
未能清楚地与目标读者交流。
第一档：（1―5分）
未能按要求完成试题所规定的任务；
基本未写出主要内容；且有一些不相关的内容；
语法结构和词汇使用单调、重复；
语言错误很多，运用能力差，妨碍了对内容的表达；
未使用基本的衔接手法，内容不连贯，缺少组织，层次不清楚；
基本无格式与语域概念；
未能向目标读者传达有效信息。
0分
所传达的信息或使用语言太少，无法评价，内容与写作任务无关或无法辨认。
四、说明
1．内容要点可用不同方式表达。
2．所做发挥应紧扣主题。
3．对于进入第五档的作文，建议评分时对要点完整、用词简单、句式单调但没有错误的文章最高分不超过21分。鼓励对虽然有少许错误但尝试使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇的作文适当加分。其他档次参照执行。
