吉林省名校联盟2024-2025学年高二上学期9月联考英语试卷（含答案，无听力原文及音频）

高二英语试卷
注意事项:
1. 答题前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2. 回答选择题时, 选出每小题答案后, 用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时, 将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后, 将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节, 满分30分)
做题时, 先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后, 你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是 C。
1. What time was the fire put out
A. Two o’clock. B. Four o’clock. C. Five o’clock.
2. What’s the weather like now
A. Snowy. B. Rainy. C. Sunny.
3. Whose car does Jenny have now
A. Her father’s car. B. Her mother’s car. C. Her own car.
4. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. At an airport. B. In a factory. C. In a classroom.
5. How will the speakers probably go home
A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By subway.
第二节(共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题, 从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前, 你将有时间阅读各个小题, 每小题5秒钟; 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料, 回答第6、7题。
6. What does the man invite the woman to do this Saturday
A. Have lunch. B. Do some shopping. C. Go to a gallery opening.
7. What does the woman want to know at the end
A. What to wear. B. How to get the destination. C. When to come back.
听第 7 段材料, 回答第 8、9 题。
8. What is wrong with Kathy
A. She is upset because she failed the exam.
B. She is worried about her classmate Don.
C. She can’t get on well with her father.
9. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Midterm exams. B. School education. C. Pressure from parents.
听第8段材料, 回答第10至12题。
10. What do we know about the man
A. He got a raise. B. He just got a new job. C. He moved into a new house.
11. What kind of TV set does the woman suggest
A. A small one. B. A big one. C. A cheap one.
12. Why does the woman give the man such a suggestion
A. The price will go up soon.
B. His living room isn’t very big.
C. The new products come out every year.
听第9 段材料, 回答第 13至 16题。
13. Where is the meat shelf
A. In the back of the store.
B. To the left of the speaker.
C. On the other side from the bakery.
14. How often does the man go to the supermarket
A. Once a week. B. Once a month. C. Once a fortnight.
15. What does the woman offer to do for the man
A. Find some oranges for him.
B. Help organize the locations.
C. Report his opinion to her manager.
16. What is the man likely to buy
A. Soap. B. Bread. C. Pork.
听第10段材料, 回答第17至20题。
17. Who is the book for
A. Young children. B. Parents. C. Teachers.
18. What happens to Vanessa on her first day in school
A. She is badly treated by another child.
B. She plays poorly in the games.
C. She spends her time alone.
19. How does Vanessa’s classmate help her
A. By walking together with her.
B. By inviting her for dinner.
C. By telling her what to do.
20. What might the speaker be doing
A. Reading her new picture book.
B. Hosting a radio program.
C. Giving a class.
第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
第一节(共 15 小题; 每小题 2.5 分, 满分 37.5 分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Exploring Nature at the Community Garden Day
The annual Community Garden Day is a cherished event that invites residents to embrace the beauty of nature. This year, the garden will open its gates on a sunny Saturday morning, offering a variety of activities suitable for all ages and gardening skills.
Event 1—Starting Seeds Workshop
For those new to gardening, a workshop led by experienced gardener, Mrs. Brown, will introduce the basics. Participants will learn how to start seeds, care for young plants, and understand the joy of growing their own food.
Date and Time: Saturday, 21st September, at 10:00
Location: Garden Learning Center
Duration: 2 hours
Event 2—Plant Care and Growth
Gardeners with some experience will enjoy a session with Mr. Smith, who will share tips on how to keep plants growing healthily. He will show effective watering techniques and discuss the importance of sunlight and nutrients.
Date and Time: Saturday, 21st September, at 14:00
Location: Garden Care Area
Duration:3 hours
Event 3— Making Your Own Fertilizer
An informative session by Mrs. Johnson will guide participants through the process of making natural fertilizer from kitchen waste. This practical skill will help gardeners enrich their soil and grow healthier plants.
Date and Time: Sunday, 22nd September, at 11:30
Location: Fertilizer Making Spot
Duration: 2.5 hours
Event 4—Kids’ Garden Adventure
Children are welcome to join in the fun at the Kids’ Garden Adventure, where they can plant their own small plot of vegetables and flowers. The event includes storytelling sessions that bring to life the stories of plants and the importance of gardening.
Date and Time: Sunday, 22nd September, at 9:00
Location: Kids’ Garden Area
Duration: 1.5 hours
1. Which event takes the shortest time
A. Starting Seeds Workshop. B. Plant Care and Growth.
C. Making Your Own Fertilizer. D. Kids’ Garden Adventure.
2. What will Mr. Smith teach in his session
A. Advanced plant care techniques. B. Methods of caring for young plants.
C. Suggestions for raising healthy plants. D. The process of making natural fertilizer.
3. What do the four events have in common
A. They take place on the weekend. B. They focus on soil improvement.
C. They need to bring gardening tools. D. They are for experienced gardeners.
B
I’m 17 and since August 2022 I have been living on trains. I enjoyed travelling with my parents and was also interested in computer programming. I taught myself to program and decided that was what I wanted to do for my job.
I had seen a TV report a few weeks earlier about someone who lived on a train. I could not get the thought out of my head. I loved the idea of having the freedom to travel anywhere in Germany every day. A few days later, I bought my first BahnCard 100, which offers unlimited travel on Germany’s national train network — the junior pass cost ?2,664 back then. On 8 August, I set off and boarded the first train.
My family were very doubtful at that point. They were worried I wouldn't be able to get enough sleep at night, that I would be alone and that it could be dangerous. They were still doubtful for the first few months, when hardly anything worked out. I would be worn out when planning it all, and struggle to sleep, so I often returned home to my parents. But now I have it figured out, they’re really supportive. I have so many new experiences; life is extremely varied and every day is different.
Living on the train means I have to do without some things that I used to take for granted. I don't have privacy. I have also had to reduce my possessions so that everything I own fits into a 30-litre backpack. But the advantages outweigh the disadvantages. The original plan was to do this for only a year, but I have enjoyed it so much, and I've decided to keep doing it. At the moment, there's no end in sight.
4. Why did the author get the idea of living on trains
A. He wanted to gain freedom.
B. He was inspired by a media report.
C. His job required him to travel frequently.
D. His friends encouraged him to try living on trains.
5. How did the author's parents react originally to his living on the trains
A. They were supportive. B. They were concerned.
C. They were annoyed. D. They were excited.
6. What did the author go through at first
A. Difficulty finding enough food. B. Trouble with train schedules.
C. Tiredness in making plans. D. Loneliness and homesickness.
7. Which of the following words can best describe the author
A. Adventurous and independent. B. Humorous and determined.
C. Reserved and passive. D. Lazy and aimless.
C
Just like everyone has their own unique personal space needs, we also all have our own unique comfort zones. Personal space boundaries keep others out while our comfort zones keep us in. Yet until we’re able to move beyond what is comfortable for us, we won’t be able to grow or develop beyond our limits. Until you get outside your comfort zone and consider other ideas, you won’t really know what you “know” or even know “why” you believe what you believe.
The fear of leaving our comfort zones is a natural human emotion that often keeps us from exploring new territories, trying new experiences, and accepting unfamiliar situations. It is a powerful force that can preclude us from reaching our full potential and realizing our dreams.
Not only does stretching past your comfort zone allow you to develop into an adult, but it also enhances your happiness in life. The happier you are with your life, the greater the positive change will be. Choosing how to stretch yourself beyond the familiar can be more satisfying, too, than being assigned a particular activity. In a study, researchers found that the most rewarding activity is one that stretches you to provide support or engage (使融入) with others.
It’s true that doing something beyond your normal range of activities can lead to fear. In the study, while 41 percent of the “comfort zone breakers” expressed feelings of fear, 70 percent described their feelings of courage at breaking out of their comfort zone. In fact, facing a fear was a strong motivator for many of the participants in their choice of activities. Being able to encounter a fear and overcome it provides a boost to your sense of self and your brain responds with a boost of dopamine (多巴胺). There’s less stress on your body, too. At the same time, the fear will decrease and eventually disappear.
8. What does the author encourage us to do in paragraph 1
A. Be aware of our own comfort zones. B. Show respect for others’ personal space.
C. Stretch beyond our recognized limits. D. Step out of our comfort zones to grow.
9. What does the underlined word “preclude” in paragraph 2 probably mean
A. Prevent. B. Differ. C. Change. D. Track.
10. What can we infer about dealing with fear
A. It is simply a response to stress. B. It is a sense of one's own value.
C. It is an ability to control emotion. D. It leads to positive outcomes.
11. What is the author's purpose in writing the text
A. To show challenges of stepping out the comfort zone.
B. To give suggestions on stepping out of the comfort zone.
C. To explain the necessity of stepping out of the comfort zone.
D. To present related studies on stepping out the comfort zone.
D
Today, we are facing a global water crisis: The UN announced five billion people will face water shortages by 2050. The World Resources Institute stated that almost half of the world's population is facing high water stress for at least one month a year. With the impacts of climate change worsening water shortages, harvesting water from air vapour (蒸气) has been highly spoken of by some as a sustainable solution to global freshwater insecurity.
PHANTOR is an innovation harvesting water from air vapour. Designed by the Austrian studio DOIT, the 40-foot long atmospheric water generator can harvest 10,000 liters of water a day from ambient humidity — enough water to supply a residential apartment block or hospital.
The atmospheric water generator sucks in water vapour and condenses (凝结) it into liquid using a cooling system powered by electricity or solar energy. The water passes through carbon and bacterial filters. Being available in two compact sizes, 40-foot and 20-foot shipping containers, makes them highly portable compared to other generator models. This mobility gives them the potential to reach remote communities, respond to disasters and serve water-stressed agricultural sites effectively.
Their technology was recently showcased at the GREENTECH FESTIVAL in Singapore, where the company used water from the generator to water the local gardens. They estimate that in a climate like Singapore's, one 40-foot unit can produce 2.8 million liters per year. This is compared to 600,000 liters that can be produced a year in a climate like Germany's.
However, one of the main drawbacks of this technology is that industrial scale water generators require a great deal of energy to operate — around 70 kW to run one unit, equal to half a football field of solar panels. They also yield substantially higher quantities of water in more wet environments, and are therefore more or less effective depending on their geographic location.
12. What is the purpose of the PHANTOR program
A. To relieve water shortage.
B. To purify polluted water sources.
C. To help people in remote areas get water.
D. To help people reduce their daily consumption.
13. What does paragraph 3 mainly tell us about PHANTOR
A. How it is designed. B. How it responds effectively.
C. How it harvests water. D. How it differs from other models.
14. Why does the author mention the PHANTOR in Singapore in paragraph 4
A. To display different water usage. B. To show the technology potential.
C. To prove each unit has its advantage. D. To point out the generator's drawbacks.
15. Which of the following can be the best title for this text
A. Countries facing the pressing issue of lack of water
B. Challenges of water security across the world
C. Popularity of the atmospheric water generator
D. An innovation harvesting water from air vapour
第二节(共5小题; 每小题 2.5分, 满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Too much social media can be bad for your health. While social media has some benefits, such as community, education, and connection, it can do more harm than good when used overly. ___16___ .
Develop a schedule to cut back on your social media use gradually. For instance, if you plan on taking a social media break between Christmas and New Year’s Day, work to reduce your social media use before Christmas. ___17___ . If you use social media for 2 hours daily, cut your social media use back to 1.5 hours 10 days before your break. Then, 7 days before the break, cut down to 1 hour daily.
___18___ . The best time to take a break from social media is during family vacations and holidays. This will give you and your family the opportunity to speak together in person rather than through social media exchanges.
Let your friends and family know you’ll be taking a break. ___19___ . It will also prevent them from worrying once your social media break begins and help to keep you accountable whenever you feel like using it.
Remind yourself why you are taking a break. Without a good cause, you’ll have a hard time maintaining time away from social media. Perhaps you want more time with your friends and family. ___20___ . Whatever your reason is, clearly express it so that you can answer people who may ask.
A. Choose when to take a break
B. Decide how often you take a break
C. Maybe you’re tired of using it every day
D. Here’s how to take a break from social media
E. That is the reason why people want to play social media
F. This will let people know why you aren’t answering their messages
G. The amount by which you cut back depends on how much you use it
第三部分 语言运用(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共 15 小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Yesterday I went to the animal shelter to do some cleaning for a couple of hours. I also ___21___ a little blanket for a very sweet cat there and I was sure she would ___22___ it on a cold night.
Then I bought some articles for women and babies for my care package for the earthquake ___23___ in Turkey and put them into the box I had been ___24___ over a few days. The district I was in has a large Turkish community, so I ___25___ in a Turkish shop about where I could donate the ___26___ so it would get to the earthquake survivors. I thought maybe they would ___27___ a truck straight there.
The man in the shop ___28___ took me around the corner to the local ___29___ office. A lovely Turkish lady in her traditional clothing came over to me and said ___30___ logistics (物流) were difficult and money donations would be more ___31___ at the moment. But she ___32___ how kind it was of me, took my donation to see who she could ___33___ it onto and asked if she could hug me.
We did. It was a beautiful heartfelt hug and I felt very ___34___ . I said her homeland was in my thoughts and that I would light a candle for the people ___35___ by the earthquake. I have put it into my nice candle holder with a moon on it.
21 A. made B. left C. changed D. forgot
22. A. promote B. damage C. ignore D. appreciate
23. A. enemies B. survivors C. applicants D. volunteers
24 A. filling up B. putting on C. showing up D. holding on
25. A. welcomed B. accepted C. inquired D. attended
26. A. money B. blood C. articles D. books
27. A. send B. give C. bring D. carry
28. A. eventually B. nervously C. gladly D. curiously
29. A. distribution B. donation C. box D. business
30. A. gradually B. incredibly C. unfortunately D. strangely
31. A. effective B. meaningful C. unique D. creative
32. A. valued B. detected C. analyzed D. emphasized
33. A. pass B. fix C. find D. wash
34. A. familiar B. special C. confused D. awkward
35. A. controlled B. examined C. created D. affected
第二节(共10小题; 每小题 1.5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
As food is to the body, so is learning to the mind. Our bodies grow and muscles develop with ___36___ intake of enough nutritious food. Likewise, we should keep learning day by day ___37___ (maintain)our keen mental power and expand our intelligence.
Constant learning ___38___ (supply)us with inexhaustible fuel for driving us to sharpen our power of reasoning, analysis, and judgment. Learning uninterruptedly is the surest way to keep pace with the times in the information age, and a ___39___ (rely)foundation of success in times of uncertainty. Once learning stops, dull life sets in,
It is a common false ___40___ (believe)to regard school as the only workshop for the acquisition of knowledge. Instead, learning should be a never-ending process. ___41___ the world ever changing so fast, the cease from learning for just a few days will make a person fall behind. What’s worse, the laziness ___42___ lies deep in our subconsciousness will come to life, ___43___ (weaken)our will to pursue our noble ideal, reducing our determination to overcome ___44___ (challenge)on our way to success and killing our desire for good character.
Lack of learning will undoubtedly lead to the stagnation(停滞)of the mind. Therefore, to stay ___45___ (mental)young, we have to take learning as a lifelong career.
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节(满分 15 分)
46. 你校英文报正举办主题为“Heroes In Your Eyes”的征文活动。请你写一篇短文投稿，内容包括：
1. 人物简介及事迹；
2. 对你的影响。
注意：
1. 写作词数应为 80 个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The Person Who Inspired Me
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节(满分 25 分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Two years ago, my dad built a beautiful tree house in the big tree at the edge of our backyard. It is a place to go when I want to be alone. It works for all of my friends and me to hang out in. We have even slept there all night long.
One Saturday, I invited my two friends, Joey and Tom, to come over and have a sleepover in the tree house. They were so excited. They brought sleeping bags and I brought out snacks and toys for us to play. And I had my cellphone in case we needed anything from the house before Mom and Dad went to bed.
We played lots of games. We talked a lot and told stories till about 11:00 pm. When getting tired, we decided to call it a night. We all started getting into our sleeping bags.
About fifteen minutes later, we heard what sounded like someone climbing the ladder(梯子)to the tree house. Then, we thought we heard the doorknob(门把手)turn. It was very slow. Luckily, there was a lock on the door, and we had previously locked it.
We heard a creaking(嘎吱作响)sound just outside the door like someone was standing there. We were all too afraid to say anything. Again we heard creaking sounds. I grabbed my cellphone and prepared to dial my mother’s number. Just then, the doorknob turned again.
This time it was a little more forceful. My heart was beating fast. All of us stayed close together, just waiting to see what was going to happen.
“I’m scared,” said Joey. “What could that be, or who could that be ” Nobody knew. Then, we heard heavy breathing, which didn’t sound like a person breathing. It sounded like an animal of some kind. We also heard it walk back and forth by the door.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为 150个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Then I dialed my mother’s number immediately
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Dad advised that we return to my bedroom.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
高二英语答案
第一部分 听力(共两节, 满分30分)
1—5 СВАСВ 6—10 CABСС 11—15 ABABC 16—20 AACAB
第二部分 阅读(共两节, 满分50分)
第一节(共 15 小题; 每小题 2.5 分, 满分 37.5 分)
阅读下列短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3题答案】
【答案】1. D 2. C 3. A
B
【4~7题答案】
【答案】4. B 5. B 6. C 7. A
C
【8~11题答案】
【答案】8. D 9. A 10. D 11. C
D
【12~15题答案】
【答案】12. A 13. C 14. B 15. D
第二节(共5小题; 每小题 2.5分, 满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. D 17. G 18. A 19. F 20. C
第三部分 语言运用(共两节, 满分30分)
第一节(共 15 小题; 每小题1分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【21~35题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. C 31. A 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. D
第二节(共10小题; 每小题 1.5分, 满分15分)
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. the
37. to maintain
38. supplies
39. reliable
40. belief 41. With
42. which##that
43. weakening
44. challenges
45. mentally
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分40分)
第一节(满分 15 分)
【46题答案】
【答案】The Person Who Inspired Me
In my eyes, heroes aren’t measured by fame but by the positive change they bring. Mr. Pan, our kind English teacher, is my hero. With his endless patience and devotion, he has inspired countless students, including me, to love the English language. He makes our lessons lively with songs and movies.
His support goes beyond the classroom. When I meet difficulties, his words of support are like a lighthouse, showing me the path to keep going. He’s shown me that a hero’s role is to lift others up. Inspired by him, I plan to work hard and, one day, to be a source of inspiration for others too.
第二节(满分 25 分)
【47题答案】
【答案】Then I dialed my mother’s number immediately. “Hello, Mom, something or someone was just outside our door, ” I whispered. After hearing what I said, Mom was worried. Soon, Mom and Dad were coming. When we had finished explaining everything, Dad asked us to come out of the tree house. We found that there were branches twisting and turning this way and that way. The wind kept branches coming down to the door and hitting it, causing noises. It sounded like someone was turning the doorknob, walking and breathing.
Dad advised that we return to my bedroom. He believed that a storm might be approaching. At that point, we all agreed it could be the wisest course of action. After we all settled in, I felt extremely safe and secure being in my bedroom. Two of us slept in my bed while the other friend slept on the floor. We finally nodded off to sleep. The experience that night was truly frightening. However, I still love my tree house and like to share it with my friends. We still spend a lot of time out there, but not so much at night time.