辽宁省名校联盟2025年高二9月份联合考试
英语
本试卷满分150分.考试时间120分钟。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What is the man going to do first
A. Feed the dog. B. Walk the dog. C. Clean the dog house.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Manager and secretary.
B. Customer and client.
C Teacher and student.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
What are the speakers mainly talking about
A A dish. B. A restaurant. C. A friend.
4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
Why does the man call the woman
A. To make an appointment.
B. To ask for information.
C. To change a schedule.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
Where are the speakers
A. In a rose garden. B. In a bakery. C. In a clothes store.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时问阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
6. What does the woman think of the yellow earrings
A. They are too big B. They are too expensive. C. They are perfect.
7. What does the man offer to do for the woman
A. Buy her a red earring.
B. Get her a birthday present.
C. Find a cheaper necklace for her.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
8. What did the woman forget to do
A. Clean the outside windows.
B. Store the chicken in the fridge.
C. Connect her computer to the Wi-Fi.
9. Which of the following worked properly today
A. The cleaner. B. The computer. C. The robot.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
10. How will the man most probably go to the woman’s office
A. By taxi. B. By car. C. By bus.
11. When is the man scheduled to meet the woman
A. At 2:00. B. At 2:30. C. At 3:00.
12. What can we learn about the man
A. He will be late for the meeting.
B. He’s travelling to meet Cathy next week.
C. He would like the woman to pick him up now.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
13. Who will the man meet on Wednesday
A. Tanya Dolan. B. The woman. C. Sue Redman.
14. How long will the man stay in Paris
A. For two nights. B. For four days. C. For a week.
15. When will the man leave London for home
A. On Monday. B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
16. Why is the man going to Chicago
A. To change a flight. B. To take a vacation. C. To have a business meeting
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
17. What did the man study in university
A. Medicine. B. Economics. C. Law.
18. What did the man do in South America
A. He planted apples.
B. He grew cocoa beans.
C. He studied grapes.
19. How does the man feel about making chocolate
A. It is unprofitable. B. It is challenging. C. It is boring.
20. What is key to the man’s final success
A. Trying to test various fruits.
B. Selecting high-quality materials.
C. Keeping a diary of his experiments.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Are you looking for cool art festivals in Florida You’ve come to the right place. There are a bunch of art festivals taking place around the Sunshine State.
Florida Deaf Art Show
When: 2025, dates to be announced
Where: 50 Sevilla Street, St. Augustine
The Florida Deaf Art Show is in place to highlight the artwork created by people with hearing loss. A lot of the art will be available for purchase. Pick out an art piece to add to your collection.
Halifax Art Festival-Daytona Beach
When: November 1st and 2nd, 2025
Where: Beach Street in Daytona Beach
The Halifax Art Festival is celebrating its 63rd anniversary and is the second oldest continual art festival in Florida. With more than 30 thousand visitors and over 150 artists and artisans you won’t want to miss out. You will see live entertainment, a student art competition, fine dining, and much more.
Hastings Main Street Fall Festival of Art
When: November 29th and 30th, 2025
Where: Historic Stanton Ford Building-301 N. Main Street St. Augustine
This event is a celebration of a diverse array (大批) of artists and makers. They use a variety of mediums, including painting, glasswork, pottery, fiber art, photography, jewelry, and much more. Enjoy live music and entertainment, try amazing food trucks, and enjoy a family-friendly day out.
52nd Annual Winter Park Autumn Art Festival
When: October 8th, 2025
Where: Central Park, Downtown Winter Park
The Winter Park Autumn Art Festival is celebrating its 52nd year in 2025. The festival will feature fun for the whole family with local artists, live music, art workshops for kids, and a beer garden by the main stage.
21. What can be known about the Halifax Art Festival
A. It is held on November 29th, 2025. B. It expects to draw over 30,000 visitors.
C. It is the oldest art festival in Florida. D. It focuses on family-friendly activities.
22. Where can you find activities specifically designed for children
A. On 50 Sevilla Street, St. Augustine.
B. On Beach Street in Daytona Beach.
C. On 301 N. Main Street St. Augustine.
D. In Central Park, Downtown Winter Park.
23. Which festival highlights artwork created by people with hearing problems
A. Florida Deaf Art Show.
B. Halifax Art Festival — Daytona Beach.
C. Hastings Main Street Fall Festival of Art.
D. 52nd Annual Winter Park Autumn Art Festival.
B
The path to success isn’t always clear-cut. Julia Green knows this well. Just as she graduated from college, a financial crisis swept the country, making it hard to get a job in journalism. Despite her growing worries, she didn’t give up on her dream; instead, she tried a global volunteer program for her self-growth.
A year later, Green began taking random writing jobs to make ends meet, while dreaming of a day when she could write freely and be paid for it. Afterwards, she applied for the fully funded Master of Fine Arts program, and was accepted to study fiction writing at the University of Michigan. Though the program didn’t end up opening many doors for her, she was paid to write and take classes.
Green has never avoided challenging topics. Marriage, healthcare, employment and more have featured noticeably in her writing, and she is especially impressive when it comes to music criticism. “I’ve intentionally tried to keep my path very wide,” she said. “It was what I had to do in the beginning. I wanted to become a well-rounded writer.” She penned articles for a variety of websites. Slowly, she began to build a reputation for fearlessness.
“I’ve been writing since I was 22. This craft requires that you have a tough skin,” said Green, when asked about her writing journey. “As a writer, you are not well served by caring what other people think about you. You have to be emotionally prepared to face rejection.”
In the past decade, Green, lacking many examples to model after, has achieved remarkable success through great effort. She landed regular writing positions, had worked in respected journals, made the Forbes 30 Under 30 list, and wrote a world-class bestseller. By any young journalist’s definition, Green had arrived.
24. What troubled Green upon her graduation
A. Poor academic performance. B. A tough job-hunting situation.
C. Lack of writing opportunities. D. Failure in a volunteer program.
25. Why did Green take random writing jobs
A. To realize her dream soon. B. To gain wide recognition.
C. To earn a living temporarily. D. To learn different writing styles.
26. What matters most to her career according to Green
A. Handling refusal bravely. B. Maintaining youthful skin.
C. Gaining public recognition. D. Writing about her journey.
27. What may be the author’s attitude towards Green
A. Admiring. B. Critical. C. Dismissive. D. Objective.
C
Elephants have long been known for their intelligence and memory. A recent German study on two female Asian elephants, Bibi and Panya, provides scientific evidence that they can recognize and remember people they’ve bonded with after many years of separation.
Bibi and Panya once lived at the Berlin Zoo, forming close bonds with their human caregivers. Thirteen years ago, they were moved to Serengeti Park in Germany, which made them ideal subjects to test elephants’ ability to recall individuals.
Researchers designed the study to check if Bibi and Panya could tell their former caregivers from strangers. They collected smell stimuli (刺激物) by having the former zookeepers wear T-shirts for eight hours and then presented these along with T-shirts worn by strangers to the elephants. Visual and auditory cues like photographs and voice recordings of the keepers and unfamiliar individuals were also included.
The research team observed and recorded the elephants’ reactions, mainly measuring how often and how long they reached out their trunks toward the various stimuli. The sense of smell is crucial to elephants, so the team thought olfactory (嗅觉的) cues might be key to recognition.
Both elephants showed a clear preference for the T-shirts worn by their former caregivers. They reached out their trunks more often and for longer periods toward the familiar smells than the shirts of unknown individuals. This indicates that the elephants recognized the odor of their past caregivers even after 13 years.
However, the elephants didn’t react as strongly to the photographs or voice recordings. There was no significant difference in their responses to familiar and unfamiliar faces or voices. This suggests that smell plays a more important role in human recognition for elephants than sight or sound in this study.
These findings are very important for zoos and wildlife shelters. They show the deep bond elephants can form with caregivers. Continuous care strengthens trust and familiarity, which seems to be deeply remembered by elephants. Thus, frequent changes — such as frequently switching caregivers — might disturb the elephant’s sense of security, leading to stress-related behaviors or health issues. Zoos and conservation programs should consider elephants’ emotional and cognitive (认知) needs for more moral practices.
28. What made Bibi and Panya ideal subjects to test elephants’ ability to recall individuals
A. Their close bonds. B. The long separation.
C. Their strong memory. D. The frequent moves.
29 What did the researchers do in the study
A. They analyzed elephants’ smell. B. They explained a difficult concept.
C. They changed elephants’ behaviour. D. They presented different T-shirts.
30. What does the underlined word “odor” in paragraph 5 probably mean
A. Smell. B. Voice. C. Figure. D. Face.
31. What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A. Elephants benefit a lot from wildlife shelters.
B. Zoos should prioritize elephants’ physical needs.
C. Continuous care is crucial for elephants’ well-being.
D. Psychological health of elephants is often ignored.
D
The ocean covers about 70% of Earth’s surface. It’s the largest livable space on our planet, and there’s more life there than anywhere else on Earth. Through exploration, we’re learning more about its biological, chemical, physical, and geological (地质的) aspects. Exploration leads to discovery, but before we can truly explore, we must map.
Seafloor mapping provides a sense of what may lie beneath and guides decisions about where to explore. While the entire seafloor has been mapped using data collected from satellites, these data provide only a general picture of what’s there. Detail is limited on these maps, so some important geographical features like seamounts and objects like shipwrecks (失事船只) remain unseen.
As of 2023, 24.9% of the global seafloor had been mapped with modern high-resolution (高分辨率的) technology, usually fixed on ships, which can show the seafloor in greater details. While almost 50% of the seafloor beneath U.S. waters had been mapped to these modern standards, the nation’s seafloor is larger than the land area of all 50 states. Thus, there’s still a significant amount of seafloor left to be mapped at high resolution.
More is known about the seafloor than the species that call the ocean home. Seafloor maps can provide information about potential habitats, but they can’t identify species on the seafloor or provide information about how they interact with each other and their environments. Scientists assume there may be between 700,000 and 1 million species in the ocean. About two-thirds of these species have yet to be discovered or officially described, with almost 2,000 new species accepted by the scientific community each year.
We have a great deal more to learn about our ocean and what lives in it, but progress is being made. We learn more and more each year. But the ocean will never be fully explored. Earth is constantly changing, and it’s important to understand these changes given the importance of the ocean in our everyday lives.
32. Why is mapping the seafloor significant for ocean exploration
A. It uncovers all objects on the seafloor.
B. It guides decisions about where to sail.
C. It shows the seafloor in greater detail.
D. It provides a general picture of the earth.
33. What does the author intend to do by mentioning the seafloor beneath U. S. water in paragraph 3
A. Explain the standards of mapping the seafloor.
B. Stress the further task of mapping the seafloor.
C. Illustrate the geographical features of the seafloor.
D. Highlight humanity’s limited exploration progress.
34. What limitation do seafloor maps have regarding sea life
A. They cannot show the depth of the ocean.
B. They cannot predict future changes in the ocean currents.
C. They cannot identify the species’ ecological interactions.
D. They cannot display the locations of shipwrecks clearly.
35. What is the best title of the text
A. How Can the Seafloor Be Mapped
B. What Species are Living in the Ocean
C. Why is It Important to Explore the Ocean
D. How Much of the Ocean Has Been Mapped
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Have you ever noticed how the people who shout the loudest often feel the weakest inside While the unconfident tend to be quick to anger and easily disturbed, a mentally strong person is often calm, collected, and unshakable. ____36____ How do you know if you’re on the path to becoming one of these quietly powerful individuals Here are some defining qualities:
____37____
Confidence is a product of continuous self-discipline (自律). Mentally strong individuals keep promises to themselves, set goals, and stick with them. They manage their time, energy, and emotions, gaining quiet assurance that translates into handling bigger challenges.
Bringing positivity and uplifting others.
A mentally strong person radiates (散发) positivity — not through forced smiles, but through a heartfelt, optimistic mindset.____38____ Instead, they approach each roadblock with a solution-focused attitude. This kind of outlook is infectious, uplifting not just themselves but everyone around them.
Seeing the big picture, not sweating the small stuff.
____39____ A mentally strong person, on the other hand, has a broad perspective. They don’t get stuck on who’s right or wrong in every argument — they’re focused on bigger things. They stop reacting to every criticism or setback and learn to let things go.
Holding firm convictions (坚信) that give life meaning.
Mentally strong people don’t wander through life aimlessly. They’re guided by deeply held beliefs — whether rooted in personal values, spirituality, or a commitment to truth and growth. ____40____
Ultimately, mental strength means recognizing that failure, loss, and criticism are inevitable parts of the journey. With inner calm and wisdom, you can walk through life with courage and clarity.
A. They don’t pretend problems don’t exist.
B. Solving their own problems independently.
C. Living with self-discipline and true confidence.
D. Belief isn’t about blind faith but about clarity of purpose.
E. These beliefs give them direction especially in times of chaos.
F. A small mind gets caught up in petty drama and constant comparison.
G. Their peace comes from within and shapes how they face life’s challenges.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
In 2020, while working in Dongying, I participated in some animal release operations. While passing by a ____41____, I came across a wild turtle at a fisherman’s stand. The vendor (小贩), who had caught it, ____42____ it for sale. As for the price, he said it could be lower than the market price but the vendors wouldn’t sell it for less than RMB 300 yuan. Alter some ____43____, I finally bought it for RMB 280 yuan.
Later, I ____44____ it into the Yellow River near a quiet bridge. The turtle seemed ____45____ with its surroundings and quickly disappeared beneath the water. A month later, I ____46____ to the same spot to release loaches (泥鳅). To my ___47___, the turtle reappeared, as if recognizing me. It wasn’t scared and watched me ____48____ before slowly swimming away. This encounter filled me with joy and a sense of ____49____.
Shortly after returning to my hometown, I ____50____ to work at a real estate (房地产) agency. With low wages, my family couldn’t afford to buy a house. ____51____, after three months, destiny (命运) stepped in. My company offered employees benefit housing at a ___52___ price. Thus, I, who initially could not ____53____ a house, owned one.
On the day I received the keys, I ____54____ the turtle, symbolizing gratitude and good fortune. This experience showed me that ___55___ often returns unexpectedly, highlighting the importance of pity and kindness.
41. A. school B. market C. station D. hospital
42. A. offered B. stole C. trained D. steamed
43. A. quarreling B. hesitating C. discussing D. observing
44. A. guided B. forced C. pressed D. released
45. A. familiar B. patient C. annoyed D. generous
46. A. adapted B. returned C. stuck D. moved
47. A. relief B. regret C. surprise D. sorrow
48. A. anxiously B. helplessly C. doubtfully D. absorbedly
49. A. connection B. responsibility C. safety D. direction
50. A. expected B. began C. refused D. pretended
51. A. Otherwise B. Therefore C. However D. Besides
52. A. fixed B. maximum C. original D. discounted
53. A. afford B. build C. decorate D. preserve
54. A. learned from B. thought of C. sought out D. tended to
55. A. success B. trust C. kindness D. wealth
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
While studying in Beijing, I heard about Crossing Bridge Rice Noodles, a famous Yunnan dish. Although I learned about ____56____(it) history in the classroom, I never had the opportunity ____57____ (taste) it during my student years. However, in 2024, when I traveled to Yunnan, I ____58____ (eventual) experienced this famous dish firsthand.
As I took my seat in a beautifully-decorated restaurant, I felt an ____59____ (expect) that only a long-awaited experience can bring. The dish ____60____ (serve) in a traditional manner — each part presented separately, ____61____ allowed me to construct my bowl according to my preference.
Following the traditional method, I first added several ___62___ (piece) of meat into the hot broth (肉汤), watching them cook immediately. Then, I added the vegetables, tofu and egg, ____63____ (let) them blend (混合) into the rich, golden liquid. Finally, I carefully placed the rice noodles into the bowl. As I tasted each bite, I reflected ____64____ the similarities between Yunnan food and the food in my hometown.
Trying the dish in Yunnan was more than just a meal; it was ____65____ experience that connected me with China’s rich culinary (烹饪的) heritage and reconfirmed the deep relationship between food and culture.
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
66. 假定你是李华，下周日你校将举办一场以“Technology Shapes the Future”为主题的活动。请你给交换生 David 写一封邮件，邀请他一起参加。内容包括：
1.活动时间、地点；
2.活动内容；
3.期待参加。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80个左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear David,
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Alice slid out of bed and pressed her nose against the fogged-up window. Her cat, Whiskers, was on the fence, watching birds at the feeder. The new house had nice spots, like a sunny windowsill where she could watch Whiskers.
Mornings were Alice’s favorite time. While Whiskers wandered in the grass, she would join him. She had a mouse toy from her old room, and Whiskers loved it. It was one part of her day she truly looked forward to. But other times Not so good.
School was hard. Alice was quiet and liked being alone, but moving to this new town made things even tougher. Lunchtimes were long as she sat alone, while groups of girls chatted nearby. She tried to be friendly, but it didn’t work. By Friday, her diary was full of cat drawings and wishes to be invisible.
One cloudy day, Alice sat under a tree with Whiskers in her legs, drawing pictures. “I miss our old home.” she said, petting him. Whiskers purred (咕噜咕噜叫) but couldn’t take away her sadness. Her dad saw her diary. “Cat pictures ” he asked kindly. “Maybe you should volunteer at the animal shelter They need help with cats.” Alice thought about it and felt a bit hopeful.
The next Saturday, she went to the Paws & Tails Rescue Center, feeling nervous. Through the door, she saw a girl with a kitten. Taking a breath. Alice went in. Bells rang: people looked. The girl waved and smiled.
“Need help ” the girl asked, coming over with a gray kitten. Alice nodded, holding her own mouse toy tight.
“I’m Lily.” the girl said. “This is Midnight — she’s shy. Want to help me win her trust ” Lily took Alice’s hand and led her to the pen.
Midnight made a sound and arched (拱起) her back. Alice froze. but Lily laughed. “Watch,” she said, sitting down. She held out a piece of paper and play with Midnight. The kitten batted (挥打) at it, then got closer. Alice saw Lily relax and felt herself calming too.
1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Lily handed Alice a piece of paper and encouraged her to try.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
As weeks turned into months, Alice found herself volunteering at the shelter every Saturday.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
辽宁省名校联盟2025年高二9月份联合考试
英语
本试卷满分150分.考试时间120分钟。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
【1题答案】
【答案】C
【2题答案】
【答案】A
【3题答案】
【答案】B
【4题答案】
【答案】A
【5题答案】
【答案】B
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时问阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
【6~7题答案】
【答案】6. A 7. B
【8~9题答案】
【答案】8. B 9. C
【10~12题答案】
【答案】10. A 11. C 12. B
【13~16题答案】
【答案】13. C 14. A 15. B 16. A
【17~20题答案】
【答案】17. C 18. B 19. B 20. C
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21. B 22. D 23. A
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24 B 25. C 26. A 27. A
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. B 29. D 30. A 31. C
D
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. C 33. B 34. C 35. D
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. G 37. C 38. A 39. F 40. E
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【41~55题答案】
【答案】41. B 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. B 51. C 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. C
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
【56~65题答案】
【答案】56. its
57. to taste
58. eventually
59. expectation
60. was served
61. which 62. pieces
63. letting
64. on/##upon
65. an
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
【66题答案】
【答案】例文
Dear David,
Knowing that you are keen on advanced technology, I’m writing to sincerely invite you to participate in the festival with the theme of “Technology Shapes the Future”.
Scheduled to be held from 8 a. m. to 11 a.m. this Sunday in the school hall, the festival will include a variety of activities. What appeals to you most will be the technology exhibition where you can appreciate technological innovations and interact with superb experts. Additionally, there will be informative lectures delivered by scientists, providing insights into the latest advancements in technology.
Your participation is highly expected. Looking forward to your favorable reply!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
【67题答案】
【答案】例文
Lily handed Alice a piece of paper and encouraged her to try. Trembling, Alice extended it towards Midnight. At first, the kitten moved back, but after several attempts, Midnight began to cautiously bat at the piece of paper. A small smile crept onto Alice’s face as she felt a spark of connection. Lily’s easy laughter filled the room, making Alice relax a little more each time. By the end of the day, Midnight was curled up in Alice’s legs, purring softly. For the first time since moving, Alice felt a sense of belonging, not just with Midnight, but with Lily too.
As weeks turned into months, Alice found herself volunteering at the shelter every Saturday. She and Lily became a team, working together to tame (驯服) not only Midnight but other scared animals as well. The once lonely girl now had friends who shared her love for animals. School still wasn’t easy, but Alice didn’t mind so much anymore. She had a special place where she was needed, and a new friend who understood her. One sunny afternoon, as Whiskers lounged on the windowsill, Alice realized she wasn’t just surviving—she was thriving in her new home.
