2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期中考试（宁波卷）
英语·答题卡
姓名：______________________________________
准考证号 条 码 粘 贴 处
缺考标记 注意事项
1．答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。
考生禁止填涂 2．请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的[条码粘贴处]的方框内。
缺考标记！只能 3．选择题必须使用 2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用 0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。
由监考老师负 4．请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。
责用黑色字迹 5．保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。
的签字笔填涂。 6．填涂样例 正确 [■] 错误 [--][√] [×]
选择题(请用 2B铅笔填涂)
第二部分（听力）(第 1-5 每小题 1分，6-15每小题 1.5分，共 20分)
1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
第二部分（阅读理解）(共 20小题，每小题 2分，满分 40分)
16.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 26.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
17.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
18.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
19.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
20.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
35.______________________________________________________
第三部分 第一节 完形填空(共 15 小题，每小题 1分，满分 15 分)
36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 46.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 47.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 48.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 44.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 49.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 45.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 50.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)
第二节 词汇运用(共 15小题，每小题 1分，满分 15分)
A:51.___________ 52. ____________ 53. ____________ 54 ____________ 55. ____________
B:56.___________ 57. ____________ 58. ____________ 59 ____________ 60. ____________
61.___________ 62. ____________ 63. ____________ 64 ____________ 65. ____________
第三节 语法填空(共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
66.___________ 67. ____________ 68. ____________ 69 ____________ 70. ____________
71.___________ 72. ____________ 73. ____________ 74 ____________ 75. ____________
第四部分语言运用 (共一节，满分 20 分)
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期中考试（宁波卷）
英 语
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分）
学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________
考生注意：
1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试范围：七上Starter Units1-Unit3（人教版2024）[2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
第一部分 听力 (满分20分)
第一节：听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1分）
1．What is the relationship (关系) between the two speakers
A．Mother and son. B．Teacher and student. C．Father and daughter.
2．Who is the man in the photo
A．Li Ming’s father. B．Li Ming’s uncle. C．Li Ming’s brother.
3．
A．Ride a bike. B．Play computer games. C．Play the piano.
4．Where are they now
A．In China. B．In the USA． C．In the UK.
5．Who is Betty’s friend
A．Lucy. B．Kitty. C．Han Meimei.
第二节：听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）
6．What does Tom think of his new classroom
A．Cool. B．Big. C．Happy.
7．Where is the teacher’s desk
A．It’s in front of the blackboard.
B．It’s at the back of the classroom.
C．It’s in the middle of the classroom.
听对话，回答问题。
8．What club does Maria join
A．The sports club. B．The music club. C．The English club.
9．Who does Maria go to the club with
A．Her teacher. B．Her classmate. C．Her friend.
10．What do they do in the club
A．Sing English songs. B．Play English games. C．Make English friends.
第三节：听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）。
11．What is Li Wen’s favourite subject
A．Math. B．Music. C．English.
12．Why doesn’t Li Wen like math
A．Because it’s interesting. B．Because it’s difficult. C．Because it’s boring.
13．Who is Li Wen’s music teacher
A．Mr. King. B．Ms. Huang. C．Ms. King.
14．How does Li Wen like Ms. Huang’s math classes
A．Interesting. B．Cool. C．Boring.
15．Why does Li Wen like Friday best
A．Because the next day is Saturday.
B．Because the next day is Sunday.
C．Because the next day is Monday.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
This is Rainbow Bridge Junior High School. There are forty-eight classes at this school. It is big and modern. Today is the first day of school. Ms. Chen will show you around the school. You will find it nice and beautiful. Following is a map of school.
16．There are ______ buildings in Rainbow Bridge Junior High School.
A．ten B．six C．seven D．eight
17．Where is the Teachers’ Building
A．Behind the playground. B．In front of flags.
C．In front of Classroom Building 2. D．Across from the computer building.
18．What can we learn about the school
A．It is big but not modern. B．There are forty classes.
C．There are not any flags. D．It is modern and beautiful.
B
Akane, Canada
I think that having a big family is a really good thing. I come from a small family. I only have one brother. He doesn’t want to play with me, so I always like the idea of having a big family, I want to have more brothers and sisters.
Jeyong, South Korea (韩国)
There are six people in my family: my parents, two sisters, a younger brother and me. When we are all together, we have great fun. We talk and eat delicious food together. I’m never lonely. I think big families are better.
Simon, Canada
I think a small family is better. If you are the only child in the family like me, you’ll get all your parents’ love. They do everything for you. If you live in a family of five children, you have to share (分享) everything with the other four children: your parents’ love, your toys and your clothes.
Todd, the USA
I think for children it’s better to have a big family because they can do a lot of things together. But for parents, it’s better to have a very small family these days, because the life for a big family is very difficult.
19．How many countries do these people come from
A．One B．Two. C．Three. D．Four.
20．Who have the same idea about big families
A．Akane and Simon. B．Jeyong and Simon C．Akane and Jeyong. D．Todd and Akane.
21．What does the underlined word “lonely” mean
A．do not have anyone to talk to B．happy
C．can not relax (放松) D．very hard
22．According to the passage, we can know that Simon ________.
A．has no brothers or sisters B．only loves his parents
C．is from a family of five children D．likes sharing his toys with others
C
It is not hard to make friends. Good friends care and share. You just need to show care for your friends.
Kate feels happy to have a good friend. Her friend’s name is Betty. They are the same age. They are in the same school but in different classes. Kate likes to ask Betty maths questions. Betty always helps Kate learn English. It is hard for Betty to learn Chinese. They learn from each other and help each other become better people.
Kate’s home is not far from Betty’s. They always walk to school together. They talk about everything, from books to life stories. They are just like sisters.
23．What makes Kate feel happy
A．Making many friends. B．Having a good friend.
C．Studying in the same class. D．Living near her school.
24．How does Betty help Kate
A．She helps her with English. B．She teaches her Chinese.
C．She plays with her at school. D．She drives her to school every day.
25．Kate and Betty go to school ______.
A．on foot B．by bike C．by bus D．by car
26．What can we learn from the passage
A．It’s hard to make friends. B．Good friends help each other.
C．Friends should live together. D．Good friends are always classmates.
D
We use names every day. When we meet a new person, we usually ask, “What’s your name ” It’s important (重要的) to know a person’s name. Names are different all over the world.
Most English people have three names, a first name, a middle name, and a family name. Their family names come last. It is also called last name. For example, my full name is Jim Allen Green. Green is my family name. My parents gave me both of my other names. People don’t use their middle names very much, so John Henry Brown is usually called John Brown. People never use Mr, Mrs or Miss before their first names. So you can call John Brown Mr Brown but you should never say Mr. John. They use Mr, Mrs or Miss with their family names.
Everyone has a name. Names are important.
27．What is a family name
A．A first name. B．A full name. C．A last name. D．A middle name.
28．Most English people have ________ names.
A．two B．three
C．four D．five
29．The students should call their teacher Mary Brown ________.
A．Miss Mary .
B．Miss Brown.
C．Miss Mary Brown.
D．Mr Brown.
30．What do we usually call Jim Allen Green
A．Jim Green. B．Jim Allen.
C．Allen Green. D．Green Jim.
第二节 任务型阅读(共5题，每小题2分，满分10分)
Hello! We are students from Thailand, and we want to save the elephants. 1._________
Our first flag had a white elephant on it. This is a symbol of good luck.
2._________ They can play soccer or music. They can also draw very well. Elephants can walk for a long time and never get lost. They can also remember places with food and water.
3._________ People cut down many trees so elephants are losing their homes. People also kill elephants for their ivory. Today there are only about 3,000 elephants (over 100,000 before).
4._________ We must save the trees and not buy things made of ivory. Remember that March 13th is Thai Elephant Day.
A．Please come to Thailand.
B．Elephants are smart animals.
C． How can we save the elephants
D．But elephants are in great danger.
E. The elephant is one of Thailand’s symbols.
31．
32．
33．
34．
35．Do you like elephants Why or why not
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分40分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题，每小题1分，满分15 分)
Hello, boys and girls! I am 36 English girl. My name is Lisa Red. Lisa is my 37 name. I am 13 years old. I’m from London. 38 the capital (首都) city of England.
I have a friend. He’s 39 Canada. His name is Tim. Tim is 40 , too. He has a nice 41 . Its number is 324-7801. Tim and I are in 42 now. We are 43 in an international school in Hangzhou, Zhejiang. We like this 44 very much. Tim and I are not in the 45 class. He is in Class 3, Grade 7. I am in Class 1, Grade 7. Mrs. Jones and Mr. Chen 46 my teachers. Mrs. Jones teaches me English and Mr. Chen teaches me Chinese. They are nice to me. They often 47 me with my English and Chinese.
This is our classroom. Look! Some school things are in my desk. 48 are they They are my books, my eraser. . . And, oh, my ruler. I can 49 it. R-U-L-E-R, ruler. Those are my 50 . I like to use them to draw pictures.
36．A．/ B．the C．an D．a
37．A．given B．last C．family D．full
38．A．It’s B．You’re C．She’s D．He’s
39．A．at B．to C．from D．about
40．A．eleven B．twelve C．thirteen D．fourteen
41．A．book B．telephone C．eraser D．name
42．A．England B．America C．Canada D．China
43．A．teachers B．students C．workers D．doctors
44．A．box B．bus C．toy D．school
45．A．different B．same C．good D．old
46．A．be B．am C．is D．are
47．A．meet B．thank C．let D．help
48．A．How B．Who C．What D．Where
49．A．speak B．try C．spell D．see
50．A．pencils B．erasers C．rulers D．desks
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词仅用一次
a lot of but photo in the middle cousin
Hello! My name is Liu Yu. I’m 13 years old. I am from Guizhou, China, 51 now I live in Hangzhou, China. I study in Hangzhou No. 7 middle school. I am in Class 1, Grade 7.
Here are two 52 . One is about my family. There are eight people in the photo. My mother is on the left, my father is on the right. My grandparents are 53 . The other photo is about my big schoolbag. In it, there are 54 things: dictionaries, pens, books and so on (等等).
Oh, look at the white eraser. It’s not my eraser. It’s my 55 ! I need to give it back to him.
B;阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
Hello! My name is John. Let me introduce (介绍) my room. It’s small. You can 56 (看见) a clock and a map on the wall. It’s a map of 57 (中国). My 58 (电脑) is on my yellow desk. There are also two pencil 59 (盒子) and a lamp (台灯) on it. Look at my bed. What are those on it They are a 60 (帽子), a toy dog and a quilt. I love books. I 61 (总是) read books in the evening. But my books are 62 (到处) in my room. I have a 63 (棒球). It’s under the bed. I often play it after school. It’s interesting. Some clothes, and my 64 (模型) plane are on the floor.
My parents 65 (认为) my room is not tidy. Do you think so
第三节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空格处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中单词的正确形式。
Hello! My name 66 (be) Tom. This is my house. Welcome 67 my house. Let me 68 (show) you around.
This is my 69 (brother) room. It is clean and tidy. He 70 (keep) everything tidy. Blue is 71 (he) favourite colour. So almost everything in his room is blue. What is that outside the room Oh, it’s 72 apple tree and many 73 (goose) are around it. Look at 74 (that) rabbits. They are cute. We have eight rabbits. Five rabbits are white 75 three are black.
第四部分语言运用 (共一节，满分20分)
76．题目：How My Pet Helps Me Keep Fit，写一篇短文70词左右描述一下你的宠物以及它如何帮助你保持健康，需包含以下内容：
1. What animal is it What’s its name
2. How does your pet keep healthy
3. How do you exercise together
4. Why is it fun with your pet
要求字迹工整、语言精练表达准确、调理清楚。
How My Pet Helps Me Keep Fit
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________(共7张PPT)
人教版2024七年级英语上册
七年级英语上学期期中考试
（宁波卷）答案
一、听力测试
1-10:B B C A C A C C B A
11-15:B B A C A
一、快速核对
二、阅读理解
A:16．C 17．B 18．D
B:19．C 20．C 21．A 22．A
C:23．B 24．A 25．A 26．B
D：27．C 28．B 29．B 30．A
第二节 任务型阅读
31．E 32．B 33．D 34．C 35．Yes. They are very friendly and smart.
一、快速核对
三、完形填空
36．C 37．A 38．A 39．C 40．C 41．B 42．D 43．B 44．D 45．B 46．D 47．D 48．C 49．C 50．A
第二节 词汇运用
A:51．but 52．photos 53．in the middle 54．a lot of 55．cousin’s
B:56．see 57．China 58．computer 59．boxes 60．hat 61．always 62．everywhere 63．baseball 64．model 65．think
一、快速核对
第三节 语法填空
66．is 67．to 68．show 69．brother’s 70．keeps 71．his 72．an 73．geese 74．those 75．and
How My Pet Helps Me Keep Fit
I have a lovely dog named Snow. She has white fur and bright eyes, and she is always full of energy.
Snow keeps healthy by running around the yard every morning. She also loves chasing after balls, which is great exercise for her.
We often exercise together. Every afternoon, I take her for a walk in the park. Sometimes, we play frisbee. I throw the frisbee, and she runs fast to catch it. We run and jump a lot during these activities.
Exercising with Snow is so fun because she always looks happy and excited. Her joy makes me feel relaxed and cheerful. Thanks to Snow, I stay fit and enjoy every moment with her.
第四部分语言运用2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期中考试（宁波卷）
英 语
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分）
学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________
考生注意：
1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试范围：七上Starter Units1-Unit3（人教版2024）[2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
参考答案
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 B B C A C A C C B A
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 B B A C A C B D C C
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 A A B A A B C B B A
题号 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
答案 C A A C C B D B D B
题号 46 47 48 49 50
答案 D D C C A
1．B
【原文】W: Welcome to Class Four, Grade Seven!
M: Thank you! Nice to meet you, Ms. Li.
2．B
【原文】W: Li Ming, is the man in the photo your father
M: No, he is my uncle, my mother’s brother.
3．C
A: I could play the piano when I was very young.
B: Really Who taught you
A: My father.
Question: What could the woman do when she was young
4．A
W: Hello, Mike, welcome to Beijing.
M: Thank you, Jane.
5．C
M: Hi Lucy. This is my sister Betty and that is her friend Han Meimei.
W: Hi, nice to meet you all.
6．A 7．C
【原文】W: Hey, Tom. Do you like our new classroom
M: Yes. I think it’s really cool. The desks are all in groups now and it feels like a team.
W: Yeah. I like that too.
M: And the teacher’s desk is in the middle of the classroom now, so they can walk around and help us.
W: That’s true and the blackboard is big.
M: I know and there’s a TV in the corner.
W: Yeah. I’m really happy with the new classroom.
M: Me, too. I think it’s going to be a great year.
8．C 9．B 10．A
【原文】A: Hi, Maria, what are you going to do after school
B: I will go to the English Club.
A: Great. Why do you join the English Club
B: Because I want to get better at English.
A: Do you go to the English Club by yourself
B: No, I go with my classmate Ding Ming.
A: What activities do you have in the club
B: We sing English songs and read some English books.
A: That sounds fun.
B: Yes, we like it a lot.
11．B 12．B 13．A 14．C 15．A
【原文】
I’m Li Wen. My favourite subject is music. I think it’s very interesting. But I don’t like math. I think it’s too difficult for me, but my teacher says it’s useful. I have music on Monday afternoon. Mr. King is my music teacher. His classes are very interesting. We all like him. I have math on Wednesday. Ms. Huang is my math teacher. Her classes are very boring. Friday is my favourite school day, because the next day is Saturday!
16．C 17．B 18．D
本文介绍了彩虹桥初中。
16．细节理解题。根据地图可知，一共有七栋建筑物，分别是：Gym, Classroom Building 1, Classroom Building 2, Teachers’ Building, Computer Building, Music Hall, Dining Hall。故选C。
17．细节理解题。根据地图可知，教师办公楼在旗帜的前面。故选B。
18．细节理解题。根据“It is big and modern.”及“You will find it nice and beautiful.”可知，学校很现代化很漂亮。故选D。
19．C 20．C 21．A 22．A
本文主要介绍了Akane、Jeyong、Simon及Todd四个人对大家庭和小家庭的想法。
19．细节理解题。根据文中“Akane, Canada”；“Jeyong, South Korea”；“Simon, Canada”及“Todd, the USA”可知，这些人来自三个国家。故选C。
20．细节理解题。根据文中“Akane, Canada：I think that having a big family is a really good thing.”及“Jeyong, South Korea：I think big families are better.”可知，Akane和Jeyong对于大家庭有相同的观点。故选C。
21．词句猜测题。根据文中“When we are all together, we have great fun. We talk and eat delicious food together. I’m never lonely.”可知，此处指的是当我们在一起的时候，我们玩得很开心。我们一起聊天，一起吃美味的食物，不会孤单。选项A“没有人可以交谈”与划线单词意思相符。故选A。
22．细节理解题。根据文中“I think a small family is better. If you are the only child in the family like me, you’ll get all your parents’ love.”可知，Simon没有兄弟姐妹。故选A。
23．B 24．A 25．A 26．B
本文讲述了Kate和她的好朋友Betty之间的友谊，她们互相关心和帮助对方，共同成长，并且像姐妹一样亲密。
23．细节理解题。根据“Kate feels happy to have a good friend.”可知，Kate感到开心是因为她有一个好朋友。故选B。
24．细节理解题。根据“Betty always helps Kate learn English.”可知，Betty帮助Kate学英语。故选A。
25．细节理解题。根据“They always walk to school together.”可知，Kate和Betty总是一起步行去上学。故选A。
26．细节理解题。根据“Good friends care and share.”和“They learn from each other and help each other become better people.”可知，好朋友是互相帮助相互关心的。故选B。
27．C 28．B 29．B 30．A
本文主要围绕英国人的姓名进行了介绍。
27．细节理解题。根据“Their family names come last. It is also called last name.”可知，姓氏放在最后。故选C。
28．细节理解题。根据“Most English people have three names, a first name, a middle name, and a family name.”可知，大部分英国人有三个名字。故选B。
29．细节理解题。根据“They use Mr, Mrs or Miss with their family names.”可知，应该叫Miss Brown。故选B。
30．细节理解题。根据“People don’t use their middle names very much, so John Henry Brown is usually called John Brown.”可知，Jim Allen Green通常叫做Jim Green。故选A。
31．E 32．B 33．D 34．C 35．Yes. They are very friendly and smart.
本文主要介绍了泰国的大象以及它们身处的危险境地。
31．根据“We are students from Thailand, and we want to save the elephants.”以及本段的位置可知，此处是整体介绍关于泰国大象的事情，选项E“大象是泰国的象征之一。”符合语境，故选E。
32．根据“They can play soccer or music. They can also draw very well.”可知大象可以踢足球或音乐，同时它们也能画得很好，说明大象很聪明，选项B“大象是聪明的动物。”符合语境，故选B。
33．根据“People cut down many trees so elephants are losing their homes. People also kill elephants for their ivory”可知此处是介绍大象的危险境地，选项D“但是大象处于极大的危险之中。”符合语境，故选D。
34．根据“We must save the trees and not buy things made of ivory. Remember that March 13th is Thai Elephant Day.”可知此处是介绍拯救大象的方法，选项C“我们如何拯救大象？”符合语境，故选C。
35．开放性作答，结合实际，言之有理即可。参考答案为Yes. They are very friendly and smart.
36．C 37．A 38．A 39．C 40．C 41．B 42．D 43．B 44．D 45．B 46．D 47．D 48．C 49．C 50．A
本文讲述了Lisa以及她的朋友Tim的基本信息和学习环境。
36．我是一个英国女孩。
/不填；the这个，表示特指；an一个，用于元音音素前；a一个，用于辅音音素前。此处表示泛指，English以元音音素开头，应用an，故选C。
37．Lisa是我的名。
given给定的；last最后的；family家庭；full满的。根据“Lisa Red”可知，Lisa是名，given name“名”，故选A。
38．它是英国的首都。
It’s它是；You’re你是；She’s她是；He’s他是。这里指伦敦，所以用It’s，故选A。
39．他来自加拿大。
at在；to到；from来自；about关于。根据“Canada”可知，他来自加拿大，故选C。
40．Tim也是13岁。
eleven十一；twelve十二；thirteen十三；fourteen十四。根据“I am 13 years old.”和“too”可知，Tim和Lisa都是13岁，故选C。
41．他有一个很棒的电话。
book书；telephone电话；eraser橡皮；name名字。根据“Its number is 324-7801”可知，是指电话，故选B。
42． Tim和我现在在中国。
England英国；America美国；Canada加拿大；China中国。根据“Hangzhou, Zhejiang”可知，是在中国，故选D。
43．我们是浙江杭州的一所国际学校的学生。
teachers教师；students学生；workers工人；doctors医生。根据“in an international school in Hangzhou, Zhejiang”可知，是学生，故选B。
44． 我们非常喜欢这所学校。
box盒子；bus巴士；toy玩具；school学校。根据“international school in Hangzhou, Zhejiang.”可知，指的是学校，故选D。
45．Tim和我不在同一个班级。
different不同的；same相同的；good好的；old老的。根据“He is in Class 3, Grade 7. I am in Class 1, Grade 7”可知，两人不在同一个班，故选B。
46．Jones太太和Chen先生是我的老师。
be是；am 是（主语为I）；is是（主语为第三人称单数）；are是（主语为复数或you）。主语是两者，be动词用are，故选D。
47． 他们经常帮我学习英语和汉语。
meet遇见；thank感谢；let让；help帮助。根据“me with my English and Chinese.”可知，是指帮助作者学习，故选D。
48．它们是什么？
How如何；Who谁；What什么；Where哪里。根据“They are my books, my eraser”可知，询问是什么，故选C。
49．我会拼写它。
speak说；try尝试；spell拼写；see看见。根据“R-U-L-E-R, ruler.”可知，是指拼写单词，故选C。
50．那些是我的铅笔。
pencils铅笔；erasers橡皮；rulers尺子；desks桌子。根据“I like to use them to draw pictures.”可知，可以画画的是铅笔，故选A。
51．but 52．photos 53．in the middle 54．a lot of 55．cousin’s
本文主要介绍了Liu Yu的个人信息、家庭信息和物品等。
51．我来自中国贵州，但现在我住在中国杭州。根据“I am from Guizhou, China, ... now I live in Hangzhou, China.”可知，前后存在转折关系，用备选词but表示“但是”。故填but。
52．这里有两张照片。根据“One is about my family. There are eight people in the photo... The other photo is about my big schoolbag.”可知，该段介绍两张照片中的内容。备选词photo意为“照片”，前有具体数字two，photo要用复数形式。故填photos。
53．我的祖父母在中间。根据“My mother is on the left, my father is on the right. My grandparents are ...”可知，该句介绍家人在照片中的位置。备选词“in the middle”意为“在中间”，符合语境。故填in the middle。
54．里面有很多东西：字典、钢笔、书等等。根据“In it, there are ... things: dictionaries, pens, books and so on (等等).”可知，书包里有字典、钢笔、书等许多东西，备选词“a lot of”意为“许多”，符合语境。故填a lot of。
55．这是我表弟的！根据“It’s not my eraser. It’s my ...”可知，这不是我的橡皮，可以推断接下来要说橡皮是谁的。需填入cousin的名词所有格，表示物品的归属。故填cousin’s。
56．see 57．China 58．computer 59．boxes 60．hat 61．always 62．everywhere 63．baseball 64．model 65．think
本文主要介绍了John的房间。
56．你可以在墙上看见一个钟表和一个地图。see“看见”，can是情态动词，后接动词原形，故填see。
57．它是一张中国地图。China“中国”，a map of China“一张中国地图”，故填China。
58．我的电脑在我黄色的桌子上。computer“电脑”，根据is可知，此空应填单数名词，故填computer。
59．在它上面也有两个铅笔盒和一个台灯。box“盒子”，根据two可知，此空应填复数形式，故填boxes。
60．它们是一张地图，一只玩具狗和一条被子。hat“帽子”，根据a可知，此空应填单数形式是，故填hat。
61．我总是在晚上看书。always“总是”，频率副词，故填always。
62．但是我的书在我的房间到处都是。everywhere“到处”，在be动词后作表语，故填everywhere。
63．我有一个棒球。baseball“棒球”，根据a可知，此空应填单数形式是，故填baseball。
64．一些衣服和我的模型飞机在地上。model“模型”，名词作定语修饰plane，用单数形式，故填model。
65．我的父母认为我的房间不整洁。think“认为”，此句是表达看法，应用一般现在时，主语是复数形式，动词用原形，故填think。
66．is 67．to 68．show 69．brother’s 70．keeps 71．his 72．an 73．geese 74．those 75．and
本文主要介绍了Tom哥哥的房间以及房间外面的动物和植物。
66．我的名字叫汤姆。句中时态为一般现在时，主语是My name，第三人称单数，be动词使用is。故填is。
67．欢迎来到我的家。根据“Welcome...my house”可知，此处是welcome to sp.“欢迎来某地”。故填to。
68．让我带你四处看看。根据“Let me”可知，let sb do sth.“让某人做某事”，空处使用动词原形。故填show。
69．这是我哥哥的房间。brother是名词，结合“room”可知，此处使用单数名词所有格形式，作定语修饰其后名词。故填brother’s。
70．他把一切都打理得井井有条。句中时态为一般现在时，主语是he，动词使用第三人称单数形式。故填keeps。
71．蓝色是他最喜欢的颜色。he是人称代词，此处使用其形容词性物主代词his“他的”，作定语修饰其后名词。故填his。
72．哦，那是一棵苹果树，在它周围有很多鹅。根据“it’s ... apple tree”可知，此处泛指一棵苹果树，apple以元音音素开头，所以用an修饰。故填an。
73．哦，那是一棵苹果树，在它周围有很多鹅。goose是可数名词，many后接可数名词复数形式。故填geese。
74．看那些兔子。根据“rabbits”可知，此处使用that的复数形式those“那些”。故填those。
75．五只兔子是白色的，三只兔子是黑色的。根据“Five rabbits are white ... three are black”可知，此处缺少连词，前后两句话之间是并列关系，用and连接。故填and。
76．例文
How My Pet Helps Me Keep Fit
I have a lovely dog named Snow. She has white fur and bright eyes, and she is always full of energy.
Snow keeps healthy by running around the yard every morning. She also loves chasing after balls, which is great exercise for her.
We often exercise together. Every afternoon, I take her for a walk in the park. Sometimes, we play frisbee. I throw the frisbee, and she runs fast to catch it. We run and jump a lot during these activities.
Exercising with Snow is so fun because she always looks happy and excited. Her joy makes me feel relaxed and cheerful. Thanks to Snow, I stay fit and enjoy every moment with her.
[总体分析]
①题材：本文是一篇材料作文；
②时态：时态为“一般现在时”，用于描述日常发生的事情；
③提示：围绕“宠物如何帮助自己保持健康”这一主题展开，通过描述与宠物狗的日常活动体现主题，可适当添加细节，使内容更生动。
[写作步骤]
第一步，介绍宠物狗Snow的基本信息，为后文铺垫；
第二步，分别描述Snow自身的锻炼方式以及作者和Snow一起进行的锻炼活动；
第三步，阐述与Snow一起锻炼的感受和收获，点明宠物对自己保持健康的作用。
[亮点词汇]
①full of energy充满活力
②chase after追逐
③Thanks to多亏，由于
[高分句型]
①She has white fur and bright eyes, and she is always full of energy.（and连接两个并列的句子，简洁清晰地描述宠物狗的外貌和状态）
②Exercising with Snow is so fun because she always looks happy and excited.（because引导原因状语从句）
