广东中考英语模拟试卷
说明：
1.全卷共10页，满分为120分，考试用时为90分钟。
2.答卷前、考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔在答题卡填写自己的准考证号、姓名、考场 号、座位号。用2B铅笔把对应该号码的标号涂黑。
3.选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑。如需改 动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案。答案不能答在试题上。
4. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应 位置上如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案。不准使用铅笔和涂改液。不按 以上要求作答的答案无效。
5.考生务必保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束时，将试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听说。（略）
二、(原创）语法选择（本题有 10 小题，每小题 1 分，共 10 分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后按照句子结构的语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每题所给的 四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
Studies show that simple acts of kindness are good for people’s health. It can make people feel happier and less stressed (有压力的) . 31 volunteering, people not only help others but also improve their own well-being. Jenny’s story is a great example of this.
Jenny is 32 warm-hearted volunteer who spends most of her time helping those in need.For twenty years, she has volunteered 33 different groups, including let-behind children and the homeless. For Jenny, helping people is part of living well and 34 . It can take her mind off her daily worries and make her life meaningful. She 35 volunteering as an act of kindness to oneself. She says volunteering also teaches 36 to value helping others more than money. That’s 37 she integrates (融入) kindness into her daily life by simple acts like holding doors open or offering her seat on the train.
Jenny’s volunteer experience 38 by a local newspaper last month. In the interview, she said, “We never know what someone is going through. But one kind act can lead to another. Even 39 or kind words can mean a lot. We cannot solve all the problems with a simple act of kindness, 40 we each still have a chance to make or break someone’s day with one smile or hug. I hope more and more people will spread their kindness to make the world a better place.”
31．A．Of B．By C．For
32．A．a B．an C．the
33．A．help B．helping C．to help
34．A．health B．healthy C．healthily
35．A．describes B．described C．will describe
36．A．she B．her C．hers
37．A．what B．why C．how
38．A．reported B．is reported C．was reported
39．A．smile B．smiles C．smiles’
40．A．but B．and C．If
三、（原创）完形填空（本题有 10 小题，每小题 1 分，共 10 分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案，并将答题卡对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
I work as an eco-counsellor (生态顾问) at my school and have truly enjoyed this role over the past six months. Since I’m 41 about environmental protection, every day in this position brings me joy.
As an eco-counsellor, my responsibility is to 42 that our school takes action to protect the environment. There are six of us in the team. We meet every two weeks to bring 43 ideas. During these meetings, we talk about ways to encourage students to 44 their daily behaviors and become more environmentally friendly.
Last month, we noticed the serious 45 problem around the school. We made some eye-catching 46 with short, fun messages like “Trash in Bin, All Wins!” and put them up all over the school. Besides, we gave a 47 about the problem in a school meeting. The results were great. Now, the floors are 48 clean.
We also work on 49 . We knew some students might not understand how important it is to sort (分类) waste. So, we placed different bins for glass, paper and plastic in every classroom. We made the bins look nice and even had a small 50 to see which class could do the best in a week. Now students are doing a great job, and our school is becoming a cleaner and healthier place to study and grow.
41．A．crazy B．nervous C．angry D．calm
42．A．point out B．find out C．make sure D．keep in mind
43．A．different B．common C．old D．usual
44．A．forget B．keep C．improve D．explain
45．A．polluting B．littering C．wasting D．heating
46．A．books B．signs C．photos D．letters
47．A．warning B．joke C．concert D．talk
48．A．seldom B．sometimes C．perfectly D．usually
49．A．nursing B．gardening C．recycling D．travelling
50．A．game B．report C．exam D．meal
四、（原创）阅读理解（本题有 15 小题，每小题 2 分，共 30 分）
阅读 A、B 两篇短文、从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最 佳答案，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
When I was 13, my family moved from the countryside to a small town. I worried about making friends, but soon I noticed a girl named Sarah. She was always smiling and wearing bright clothes. One day, she invited me to her birthday party. I was nervous, but her warm welcome made me feel at home. We became best friends.Years later, Sarah's family had to move because of her father's job. I was sad, but we kept in touch by writing letters. In high school, I found it hard to make new friends. I missed Sarah's kindness and humor. Then one day, I received an email from her. She said she was coming back to visit! We met at the old tree in the park where we used to play. It felt like no time had passed.Now we are both in college, living in different cities. We talk on the phone every week and visit each other during holidays. Our friendship has shown me that true friends are like stars—you don't always see them, but they are always there.
51.Why did the writer worry about moving to a town A. She missed her old friends. B. She was afraid of making new friends. C. She didn't like the new environment. D. She worried about her studies.
52.What do we know about Sarah A. She was shy and quiet. B. She liked wearing dark clothes. C. She was friendly and warm. D. She moved because of her mother's job.
53.How did the writer and Sarah keep in touch after Sarah moved A. By writing letters. B. By making phone calls
C. By sending emails. D.By visiting each other.
54.Where did they meet when Sarah came back to visit
At the writer's home. B. At Sarah's new school.
C. In the park. D. In the town center
55.What does the writer want to tell us
Moving to a new place is difficult.
B. True friends are always there for each other.
C. It's important to make new friends .
D. Letters are better than emails for keeping in touch.
B
The highly - anticipated animated film Ne Zha 2 hit the big screen on January 29, 2025. Directed by Jiaozi, who also directed the first Ne Zha, this sequel continues the exciting adventures of the beloved characters.
After the "Heavenly Tribulation" in the first film, Ne Zha and Ao Bing lost their physical bodies. Taiyi Zhenren, using a magical seven - colored lotus, saved their souls. However, their souls faced a new threat of disappearing again. To solve this problem, Taiyi Zhenren had to rebuild their bodies using limited materials. ▲
The film not only features thrilling action scenes but also shows great growth of the characters. Ne Zha, who was once rebellious, learns to care for his friends. Ao Bing, who struggled with his own identity, becomes a brave warrior.
Ne Zha 2 has received high praise from audiences and critics alike. It has broken box - office records since its release, proving once again the charm of Chinese animated films.
56.Which of the following can be put in “________” in Paragraph 3
A. The process was full of difficulties.
B. They gave up halfway.
C. Finally, they found a better way easily.
D. Taiyi Zhenren didn't know what to do.
57.Which picture best shows Ne Zha using his magic weapon Qiankun Ring
A B C. D.
58.How does Ne Zha change in Ne Zha 2
A. He becomes more selfish. B. He becomes more rebellious.
C. He learns to care for his friends. D. He loses his magic power.
59.What does the underlined word “rebellious” mean in Paragraph 4
A. Interesting B. Hard - working C. Disobedient） D. Lazy
60.What's the best title for this passage
A. The Friendship between Ne Zha and Ao Bing B. The Success of Ne Zha 2
C. Ne Zha 2: A Great Animated Film D. The Magic Weapons of Ne Zha
C
配对阅读。左栏是五位中学生暑假的愿望，右栏是七则建议，请将想法和建议进行匹配，并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
61 Emma loves nature and wants to see beautiful mountains and clear rivers. She hopes to take amazing photos of natural scenery during the summer vacation. 62 Mike is a big fan of history. He dreams of visiting ancient places, walking on old streets, and learning stories from hundreds of years ago. 63 Lucy enjoys exciting activities. She wants to go somewhere with fun rides and thrilling games to have an unforgettable summer. 64 Tom likes learning about different cultures. He wishes to visit a place where he can try new foods, meet people from other countries, and experience unique traditions. 65 Lily wants to relax by the water. She hopes to find a peaceful beach, lie on the sand, and listen to the sound of the waves. A. Visit Kyoto, Japan. This city is full of ancient temples, traditional houses, and beautiful gardens. You can wear a kimono, try matcha tea, and learn about Japanese history and culture. B. Go to the Rocky Mountains in Canada. There are huge mountains, deep valleys, and colorful lakes. Hiking trails offer great chances to get close to nature and take wonderful pictures. C. Head to Orlando, USA. It’s famous for world - class amusement parks. You can enjoy exciting roller coasters, watch amazing shows, and meet your favorite cartoon characters. D. Travel to Bali, Indonesia. With its beautiful beaches, warm sea, and soft sand, it’s the perfect place to relax. You can also try surfing or just sunbathe all day long. E. Explore Rome, Italy. Walk on ancient roads, visit amazing historical buildings like the Colosseum, and learn about the great Roman Empire. F. Go to Sydney, Australia. Besides beautiful beaches, you can visit the Sydney Opera House, try Australian - style seafood, and meet friendly locals. G. Visit Yunnan, China. It has diverse ethnic groups. You can taste different kinds of local food, watch traditional dances, and learn about their unique cultures.
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五、（原创）短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
请从方框内选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使文章完整连贯。注意每空一词，每词仅用一次，有两词为多余项。请将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
decorate, symbolize, light, loud, sweep, visit, celebrate,cleaning, gather,happy, lucky, money
The Spring Festival, China’s most important holiday, is like a vibrant carnival. Weeks before it arrives, people start 66 their homes thoroughly. They believe sweeping away the dust can 67 out bad luck and welcome good fortune. Red couplets and paper - cuttings 68 the doors and windows, making every corner of the house look cheerful.
On New Year’s Eve, families 69 around a big dinner table. Dumplings, shaped like gold ingots, are a must - have dish. It is said that eating them 70 wealth in the coming year. After dinner, children’s eyes shine brightly as they receive red envelopes filled with 71 .
At midnight, the sky 72 up with colorful fireworks. The 73 sounds and dazzling lights create an exciting atmosphere. During the festival, people also 74 their relatives and friends, saying “Happy New Year” with big smiles.
The Spring Festival isn’t just a holiday; it’s a 75 of family, happiness, and new beginnings.
六、（原创）读写综合（本大题分为 A、B 两部分，共 25 分）
A. 回答问题（本题有 5 小题，每小题 2 分，共 10 分）
请阅读下面这篇文章，根据所提供 信息，回答 5 个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整，并把 答案写在答题卡指定的位置。
А. 回答问题
Artificial intelligence (AI) is revolutionizing the world at an astonishing pace. In education, AI - powered learning tools can analyze students' performance data, identify their weak points, and offer customized practice exercises. This personalized approach helps students learn more efficiently. In transportation, self - driving cars based on AI technology are being developed. They have the potential to reduce traffic accidents caused by human errors and improve traffic flow.
In daily life, AI has made many tasks easier. Shopping apps use AI to recommend products that users might like based on their browsing and purchase history. Social media platforms rely on AI algorithms to show users relevant content, making it easier for them to discover interesting things.
Nevertheless, the rise of AI also causes problems. Unemployment is a major worry. As AI - enabled machines can handle many repetitive jobs, workers in industries like manufacturing may face job losses. Another concern is the potential for AI to be misused. For example, AI - generated fake news can spread rapidly and mislead the public.
76. How does AI assist students in learning
____________________________________________________________
What advantages do self - driving cars based on AI technology have
__________________________________________________________
78.In what ways does AI help in daily shopping
_____________________________________________________________
79.What is a major concern caused by the development of AI
_____________________________________________________________
80.Why is the misuse of AI a problem
_______________________________________________________________
B. 书面表达（本题 15 分）
AI在我们生活中发挥着越来越重要的作用。假设你是李华，你的英国笔友Tom对AI很感兴趣，写信询问你AI在中国的应用情况。请你根据以下要点提示，给他写一封回信。.
注意：
（1）可在思维导图内容提示的基础上适当拓展信息。
（2）不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现真实校名和考生的真实姓名。
（3）语句连贯，词数80左右。作文开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总 词数，也不必抄写在答题卡上。
Dear Tom,
I'm glad to receive your letter. You asked me about the application of AI in China. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ _______
Yours,
Li Hua广东中考英语模拟试卷参考答案、命题意图和评分标准
语法选择（本题有 10 小题，每小题 1 分，共 10 分）
【答案】
31．B 32．A 33．C 34．A 35．A 36．B 37．B 38．C 39．B 40．A
命题意图：本题围绕“各类词的使用方法”的语法点，结合教材单元重点内容，以日常生活为语境，考查学生在真实情境中准确运用语言的能力。选项设计涵盖易混淆的时态、句式结构，引导学生通过对比分析排除干扰项，培养语言辨析与逻辑推理能力。通过本题，教师可了解学生对语法规则的掌握程度，及时调整教学策略。
【导语】本文通过讲述Jenny的故事，说明了善举不仅帮助他人，也能让自己更幸福、更健康，并呼吁大家多传递善意，让世界变得更美好。
31．句意：通过志愿服务，人们不仅可以帮助别人，还可以改善自己的幸福感。
Of属于；By通过；For为了。根据“volunteering”可知，是通过做志愿活动来帮助别人。故选B。
32．句意：Jenny是一个热心的志愿者，她大部分时间都在帮助那些需要帮助的人。
a一个；an一个；the这个。此处是泛指“一个热心的志愿者”，且“warm-hearted”的发音以辅音音素开头，用a。故选A。
33．句意：二十年来，她为不同的团体提供志愿服务。
help帮助（原形）；helping帮助（动名词）；to help去帮助（不定式）。volunteer志愿，动词，结合其常用方式为volunteer to do sth.可知用to help。故选C。
34．句意：对于Jenny来说，帮助他人是美好生活和健康的一部分。
health健康（名词）；healthy健康的（形容词）；healthily健康地（副词）。be part of……的部分，of是介词，后面跟名词，故选A。
35．句意：她把志愿服务描述为一种对自己的善举。
describes描述（一般现在时）；described描述（过去式）；will describe将描述。根据全文时态是一般现在时，主语是She，动词用第三人称单数describes。故选A。
36．句意：她说志愿服务也教会了她重视帮助他人胜过金钱。
she她（主格）；her她的（宾格）；hers她的（名词性物主代词）。teach sb. to do sth.是固定搭配，teach教，动词，后面跟宾格，构成动宾结构，因此用宾格her。故选B。
37．句意：这就是为什么她把善良融入到自己的日常生活中，比如为他人开门或在火车上让座。
what什么；why为什么；how怎样。根据“She says volunteering also teaches...to value helping others more than money.”可知，应是解释原因，用why。故选B。
38．句意：上个月，一家当地报纸报道了Jenny的志愿经历。
reported报道（一般过去时）；is reported被报道（一般现在时被动）；was reported被报道（一般过去时被动）。“Jenny’s volunteer experience”和“report”构成被动关系，根据“last month”可知，用一般过去时的被动语态。故选C。
39．句意：即使是微笑或友善的话也能意义重大。
smile微笑（名词单数）；smiles微笑（复数）；smiles’微笑的（名词所有格）。根据“Even...or kind words”可知，与“kind words”并列，需复数名词“smiles”，故选B。
40．句意：我们无法用一个简单的善举解决所有问题，但我们每个人仍然有机会用一个微笑或拥抱改变别人的一天。
but但是；and和；if如果。根据“We cannot solve all the problems with a simple act of kindness,...we each still have a chance to make or break someone’s day with one smile or hug. ”可知，前后两句是转折关系，表示“虽然不能解决所有问题，但……”，应用but。故选A。
三、完形填空（本题有 10 小题，每小题 1 分，共 10 分）
【答案】
A 42．C 43．A 44．C 45．B 46．B 47．D 48．D 49．C 50．A
命题意图：本题围绕“各类词的使用方法”的语法点，结合教材单元重点内容，以日常生活为语境，考查学生在真实情境中准确运用语言的能力。选项设计涵盖易混淆的时态、句式结构，引导学生通过对比分析排除干扰项，培养语言辨析与逻辑推理能力。通过本题，教师可了解学生对语法规则的掌握程度，及时调整教学策略。
【导语】本文讲述作者作为学校生态顾问的工作经历，包括推动环保行动、改善校园环境和推广垃圾分类等。
41．句意：因为我热衷于环保，在这个岗位上的每一天都给我带来快乐。
crazy疯狂的；nervous紧张的；angry生气的；calm平静的。根据“every day in this position brings me joy.”可知，作者对环境保护很着迷。be crazy about“着迷于”，固定搭配。故选A。
42．句意：作为一名生态顾问，我的职责是确保我们的学校采取环保行动。
point out指出；find out查明；make sure确保；keep in mind记住。根据“that our school takes action to protect the environment.”可知，此处指生态顾问要确保学校采取环保行动。故选C。
43．句意：我们每两周开会提出不同的想法。
different不同的；common普通的；old旧的；usual通常的。根据“ideas”和“we talk about ways to encourage students”可知，此处指提出不同的环保想法。故选A。
44．句意：在这些会议中，我们讨论如何鼓励学生改善他们的日常行为，变得更加环保。
forget忘记；keep保持；improve改进；explain解释。根据“become more environmentally friendly”可知，此处指改进学生行为。故选C。
45．句意：上个月，我们注意到校园周围的乱扔垃圾的严重问题。
polluting污染；littering乱扔垃圾；wasting浪费；heating加热。根据“Trash in Bin, All Wins!”可知，此处指乱扔垃圾的问题。故选B。
46．句意：我们做了一些醒目的标语，上面写着简短有趣的信息，比如“垃圾桶里的垃圾，皆大欢喜！”
books书籍；signs标语；photos照片；letters信件。根据“put them up all over the school”可知，此处指视觉宣传标语。故选B。
47．句意：此外，我们在学校会议上就该问题做了演讲。
warning警告；joke玩笑；concert音乐会；talk演讲。根据“about the problem in a school meeting”和“The results were great.”可知，此处指会议上进行的正式讲话或演讲的效果良好。故选D。
48．句意：现在，地板通常是干净的。
seldom很少；sometimes有时；perfectly完美地；usually通常。根据“The results were great”可知，演讲效果显著，地板通常是干净的。故选D。
49．句意：我们还致力于回收利用。
nursing护理；gardening园艺；recycling回收；travelling旅行。根据“We knew some students might not understand how important it is to sort (分类) waste.”可知，此处与分类回收有关。故选C。
50．句意：我们让垃圾桶看起来很漂亮，甚至有一个小比赛来看看哪个班在一周内可以做得最好。
game比赛；report报告；exam考试；meal餐食。根据“which class could do the best”可知，此处是竞争性活动。故选A。
四、阅读理解（本题有 15 小题，每小题 2 分，共 30 分）
A
命题意图：细节理解：设置第51 - 54题考查学生查找和理解具体信息的能力，学生需要根据问题中的关键词，快速在文中定位并找到准确答案，培养学生对细节信息的捕捉和分析能力。主旨归纳：第5题考查学生提炼文章主旨的能力，让学生学会从具体的事例中总结出核心观点，理解作者通过故事想要传达的深层含义，提升学生对文章整体的把握和归纳能力。
51.B试卷分析：根据第一段第二句“I worried about making friends”可知，作者担心的是“结交新朋友”，故选B。
52.C试卷分析：从第一段“she invited me to her party”和“her warm welcome”可看出Sarah友好热情，排除A、B；第二段提到是“her father's job”导致搬家，排除D， C. By sending emails.D. By visiting each other.
53.A试卷分析：第二段明确提到“we kept in touch by writing letters”，故选A。email是后来高中时才开始用的，注意时间区分。
54.C试卷分析：第二段倒数第二句提到“met at the old tree in the park”，直接对应选项C,故选C。
55.B 试卷分析：最后一段总结“true friends are like stars...always there”，点明主旨，故选B。其他选项均非文章核心观点。
B
命题意图：56题考查对上下文逻辑的理解能力：命题者希望通过此题考查学生能否根据前后文的内容，准确把握文段之间的逻辑关系，理解故事情节的发展脉络，从而选择出能使上下文连贯顺畅的句子。57题考查对文章细节的捕捉和图片信息的匹配能力：本题旨在考查学生能否从文章中获取关于哪吒法宝的具体信息，并将其与给定的图片进行准确匹配，以检验学生对细节的关注和图文转换的能力。58题考查对文章中人物形象变化的理解能力：命题意图是让学生通过阅读文本，了解角色在故事发展过程中的转变，从而培养学生分析人物形象、把握文章细节的能力。59题考查根据上下文推测词义的能力：通过此题，命题者想考查学生在具体语境中理解生词含义的能力，引导学生学会利用上下文的线索来推断词汇的意义，提高学生的词汇理解和运用能力。60题考查对文章主旨的概括能力：本题要求学生从整体上把握文章内容，提炼出核心要点，选择能够准确概括文章主要内容的标题，以考查学生的归纳总结和整体理解能力。
56.A试卷分析：前文提到太乙真人要用有限材料重塑哪吒和敖丙肉身，后文讲述电影中角色成长等，A选项“这个过程充满了困难”能很好地衔接上下文，体现重塑肉身的艰难，为后文角色经历做铺垫；B选项说半途而废与电影积极内容不符；C选项轻易找到更好方法不符合语境；D选项太乙真人不知怎么做也不符合其在电影中的能力设定 。所以选A。
57.B试卷分析：题目要求找出展示哪吒使用乾坤圈的图片，A是使用混天绫，C是敖丙，D是太乙真人，只有B图片展示哪吒出现乾坤圈，符合题目要求，所以选B。
58.C试卷分析：文章提到“Ne Zha, who was once rebellious, learns to care for his friends.”，说明哪吒学会关心朋友 ，A选项变得更自私与原文不符；B选项更叛逆与原文角色转变不符；D选项失去魔力文章未提及。所以选C。
59.C试卷分析：根据“Ne Zha, who was once rebellious, learns to care for his friends.”，现在学会关心朋友，之前性格与之相反，A是有趣的，B是努力工作的，D是懒惰的，C是不听话的、叛逆的，符合以前哪吒的性格设定，所以选C。
60.C试卷分析：文章主要介绍电影《哪吒2》的上映时间、导演、剧情、角色变化以及获得的成功等，A选项只提到友谊片面；B选项只说成功不全面；D选项只说法宝也片面；C选项全面概括电影，所以选C。
C
答案：61．B 62．E 63．C 64．G 65．D
出题意图：
1. 考查信息提取能力：要求学生从人物需求（自然景观、历史、娱乐活动、文化体验、海滨放松）中精准提取关键词，匹配对应选项的核心信息（如山脉河流、古建筑、游乐园、多元文化、海滩）。
2. 强化语境理解能力：通过具体场景（暑假旅行、拍照、体验传统等），检验学生对语境的整体把握，确保匹配逻辑符合人物真实需求（如Emma爱自然→洛基山脉的山水景观）。
3. 拓展文化常识储备：选项涵盖多国旅游特色（日本京都、加拿大落基山、美国奥兰多等），引导学生了解不同地区的自然与人文特点，如意大利罗马的历史遗迹、印尼巴厘岛的海滨风情。
4. 培养逻辑关联思维：通过“需求-特征”的对应关系（如Mike爱历史→罗马古建筑/京都古寺），训练学生建立条件与结果的逻辑关联，提升快速匹配的思维敏捷性。
5. 综合语言应用能力：结合词汇（scenery, ancient, thrilling等）和常识，考查学生在实际情境中运用英语理解和解决问题的能力，体现“语言+生活”的实用性。
【导语】左栏是五位中学生暑假的愿望，右栏是七则建议。
61．Emma，她喜欢自然，想看美丽的山脉和清澈的河流，还要拍照。建议B提到加拿大的落基山脉，有大山、深谷、彩色湖泊，还有徒步路线适合拍照，完全符合她的需求，故选B。
62．Mike，他喜欢历史，想参观古老的地方，走老街，了解历史故事。建议E是罗马，有古老的道路、历史建筑如斗兽场，还有罗马帝国的历史，正好符合他的兴趣，故选E。
63．Lucy，她喜欢刺激的活动，想要有趣的 rides 和刺激的游戏。建议C是奥兰多，有世界级的游乐园，刺激的过山车和表演，符合她的需求，故选C。
64．Tom，他想了解不同文化，尝试新食物，体验独特传统。建议G是中国云南，有多样的民族，当地食物、传统舞蹈和独特文化，正好匹配，故选G。
65．Lily，她想在水边放松，找宁静的海滩，躺沙滩听海浪。建议D是巴厘岛，有美丽的海滩、温暖的海水和柔软的沙子，适合放松，故选D。
需要注意剩下的选项A和F，虽然A涉及文化和历史，但更偏向日本文化，而G更侧重多样民族文化，适合Tom。F提到悉尼的海滩和歌剧院，但Lily更需要纯粹的海滩放松，D更符合。确保每个匹配都基于关键词，如自然、历史、刺激活动、文化、海滩放松，对应到建议中的具体地点和活动。分析时要逐一对照，确保每个学生的愿望都被建议中的内容满足，没有遗漏关键点。
五、短文填空的答案与分析
出题意图：
1. 词汇运用能力考查：通过给出12个词汇（含2个多余项），要求学生根据语境和语法规则，选择合适的词汇并用其正确形式填空，考查学生对词汇的理解、辨析以及变形能力 ，如动词的不同形式（现在分词、第三人称单数等），名词在具体语境中的运用等。
2. 语法知识考查：题目涉及到非谓语动词（start doing sth. 中动词的 -ing 形式）、情态动词后接动词原形（can sweep）、一般现在时第三人称单数（it is said that... 从句中eating them 作主语时谓语动词的形式）等语法知识，检验学生对语法规则的掌握和在实际语境中的运用能力。
3. 语篇理解能力考查：要求学生在理解短文整体内容和逻辑的基础上完成填空，使文章完整连贯。学生需要把握文章的主题（春节），理解每个句子之间的逻辑关系，根据上下文线索确定合适的词汇，从而考查学生对语篇的整体理解和把握能力。
4. 文化知识考查：短文围绕中国最重要的传统节日春节展开，介绍了春节前的准备、除夕夜的活动以及春节期间的习俗等，考查学生对中国传统文化知识的了解和掌握，同时也增强学生对传统文化的认同感和自豪感。
5. 综合语言运用能力考查：将词汇、语法和语篇理解等多个语言要素结合起来，全面考查学生的综合语言运用能力，了解学生是否能够将所学的语言知识运用到实际的语境中，准确、流畅地表达意思 。
66. cleaning：start cleaning 表示“开始打扫”，春节前打扫房屋是传统习俗，符合语境。
67. sweep：sweep out 意为“清扫出去”，与前文“sweeping away the dust”呼应，强调扫除霉运。
68. decorate：红色对联和剪纸“装饰”门窗，用一般现在时描述常态。
69. gather：除夕夜家人“团聚”用餐，突出节日团圆氛围。
70. symbolizes：动名词短语“eating them”作主语，谓语动词用第三人称单数，说明饺子象征财富。
71. money：红包里装的是“钱”，直接点明核心内容。
72. lights：light up 表示“点亮”，描述烟花照亮夜空，动态感十足。
73. loud：修饰烟花的声音，突出热闹氛围。
74. visit：春节期间人们“拜访”亲友，符合节日社交习俗。
75. celebration：春节是一场关于家庭、幸福和新开始的“庆祝活动”，名词形式作表语。饰带来的喜庆氛围。
Extra Words: happy, lucky
细则：单词选对并形式正确给满分。选对单词，形式错误，扣0.5分。
六、读写综合（本大题分为 A、B 两部分，共 25 分）
A. 回答问题答案：
出题意图：
1. 细节理解能力考查：通过具体问题（如AI如何帮助学生、自动驾驶汽车的优势等），考查学生从短文中精准提取关键信息的能力，如定位“customized practice exercises”“reduce traffic accidents”等细节。
2. 信息归纳能力训练：部分问题需整合文中信息作答（如AI在日常购物中的作用），要求学生将“推荐产品”“浏览和购买历史”等分散内容归纳为完整答案，提升信息整合能力。
3. 批判性思维引导：针对AI的负面影响（失业、滥用）设题，引导学生辩证看待科技发展，既关注AI的便利，也思考其潜在问题，培养多角度分析能力。
4. 语言应用能力检验：通过问答形式，考查学生用英语准确转述原文内容的能力，如将“AI - generated fake news can mislead the public”转化为简洁回答，体现对词汇和句型的掌握。
5. 逻辑关联考查：问题设置紧扣文章结构（优势→问题），要求学生理解段落间逻辑关系（如第三段“nevertheless”引出转折），确保答案符合原文逻辑脉络。
评分标准：1.与答案相符满分。 2.核心信息正确1分，其它错误如大小写、标点、语法、多余信息等错误，每项各扣0.5分，但累计不超1分。
76.AI - powered learning tools can analyze students' performance data, identify their weak points, and offer customized practice exercises.
77.They have the potential to reduce traffic accidents caused by human errors and improve traffic flow.
78.Shopping apps use AI to recommend products that users might like based on their browsing and purchase history.
79.Unemployment. As AI - enabled machines can handle many repetitive jobs, workers in some industries may face job losses.
80.Because AI - generated fake news can spread rapidly and mislead the public.
B.
出题意图：
1. 语言应用能力考查
词汇运用：考查学生对与AI相关词汇（如artificial intelligence、application、algorithm等）的掌握和运用，以及描述不同场景（教育、医疗、交通等）所需的常用词汇。
语法结构：检验学生正确使用各种时态（一般现在时为主）、从句（如定语从句、宾语从句）和句式结构（简单句、复合句）的能力，确保句子表达准确、多样。
2. 信息整合与拓展能力
要求学生依据思维导图的要点提示，对AI在中国的应用情况（教育、医疗、交通等领域）进行信息整合，同时鼓励适当拓展细节，培养学生筛选、归纳和丰富信息的能力，避免机械罗列要点。
3. 实际沟通与情境写作能力
以书信为载体，模拟真实的跨文化交流场景，让学生以李华的身份给英国笔友回信，考查学生在实际沟通情境中，运用英语清晰、得体地表达观点和传递信息的能力，增强语言学习的实用性。
4. 思维逻辑与篇章构建能力
引导学生合理组织文章结构，如开头引出话题、中间分点阐述AI的应用及作用、结尾总结，使文章层次分明、逻辑连贯，培养学生构建完整篇章的能力。
5. 文化意识与国际视野培养
通过介绍AI在中国的应用，促使学生了解科技发展现状，同时向外国友人传播中国的科技成果，增强学生的文化自信和国际交流意识，培养全球视野 。
81参考答案：
Dear Tom,
I'm glad to receive your letter. You asked me about the application of AI in China. Now, let me tell you something about it.
In China, AI is widely used in many fields. In transportation, self - driving cars are becoming more and more popular, which makes our trips safer and more convenient. In the medical field, AI - assisted diagnosis systems help doctors find diseases more accurately. In education, personalized learning platforms based on AI can provide students with suitable learning plans.
I believe AI will have a brighter future. It will bring us more surprises and make our lives better.
What about the situation in your country Looking forward to your reply.
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
附:评分标准
1.评分原则与方法
从内容与语言两方面予以分档给分。内容方面要求考生能完整地按写作要点进行表述，要点详略得当表述合理，词数符合写作要求。语言方面要求学生表达准确连贯、符合逻辑。允许学生合理运用原文句式结构，但不可以照抄原文。如考生把给出的作文的标题和开头抄写在答题卡上，不扣分(即使抄写有错误)。
2.内容分与语言分的分配
内容分:6 分
(1)看法(有必要做家务)….................................1分
(2)分享做家务的情况.......................................2分
(3)收获(做家务的好处…………..........................1+1+1分
内容要点完整且词数符合写作要求的作文可以得6分，词数在70个以下的作文在内容分上酌情扣分。语言分:9分(确定语言分档次时要考虑内容的涵盖)第一档:9分
要求:内容涵盖所有的要点，表达准确，意思连贯，符合逻辑，只有个别不影响交际的语言错误。
要求:内容涵盖绝大部分要点，表达清楚，意思连贯，符合逻辑，但有少量语言第二档:6-8分
错误。
要求:内容涵盖大部分要点，表达较为清楚、连贯，基本符合逻辑，但有一些语言第三档:4-5分
错误。
第四档:1-3分
要求:内容涵盖部分要点，能写出少数正确句子，但整体表达不太连贯，且语言错
误较多。
第五档:0分
空白卷或完全没有相关内容。
注:以上评分标准仅供参考。
