2025-2026学年贵州省六盘水市高一上学期11月期中英语试题
(考试时长：120分钟 试卷满分：150分)
注意事项：
1. 答题前，务必在答题卡上填写姓名和准考证号等相关信息并贴好条形码。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试题卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
第一部分 听力 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What will the speakers do next time
A. Ride a bike. B. Have a picnic. C. Go swimming.
2. Who did the man visit today
A. Mary. B. Lucy. C. Lily.
3. What will the woman give Lisa
A. A pair of shoes. B. A bag. C. A book.
4. What does the man think of the hotel
A. It’s ordinary. B. It’s wonderful. C. It’s unpleasant.
5. What will the woman make
A. Strawberry pie. B. Orange juice. C. Tomato salad.
第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、 C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Friends. B. Brother and sister. C. Shop owner and customer.
7. What does the woman suggest the man do
A. Buy a ticket online. B. Bring his own drinks. C. Take cash with him.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What was the woman doing when seeing the writer
A. Looking for her seat. B. Watching a movie. C. Reading a novel.
9. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. A special experience. B. A famous city. C. A new song.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What is the main purpose of the man’s trip to Paris
A. To visit a museum. B. To meet a friend. C. To attend a concert.
11. How much did the man spend on the hotel per night
A. About 200 euros. B. About 300 euros. C. About 600 euros.
12. How did the man come back
A. By plane. B. By train. C. By bus.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Who inspired the woman to start climbing
A. Her teachers. B. Her parents. C. Her friends.
14. What attracted the woman to climb as a kid
A. The sense of adventure.
B. The connection with nature.
C. The feeling of concentration.
15. How often does the woman go climbing
A. Once a week. B. Once a month. C. Once a year.
16. What does the woman think is the most important for beginners
A. Checking the weather.
B. Having good equipment.
C. Beginning with small steps.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Which is the most important quality in relationships
A. Helping others. B. Listening carefully. C. Showing respect.
18. What can good teamwork allow people to do .
A. Complete more difficult tasks.
B. Achieve common goals easily.
C. Change personal work frequently.
19. Which way is good for both learning and life
A. Having a positive attitude.
B. Understanding other people.
C. Being good at talking to others.
20. Why does the speaker give the talk
A. To introduce proper learning skills.
B. To show some benefits of being kind.
C. To stress the importance of good relationships.
第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分) 。
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Unusual Places to Stay
Why should adventure end when you sleep Here are four unusual places to make unforgettable memories.
A Treehouse in Costa Rica
In Costa Rica’s green rainforest, a treehouse hotel lets you sleep high among trees — perfect for nature lovers. But reaching it is part of the adventure, as it needs a long, sometimes hard forest walk.
An Underground Hotel in Wales
In North Wales, an old, forgotten slate mine (板岩矿) has become the world’s deepest underground hotel. Lying 1,300 feet below ground, it offers a unique experience. Stay in simple but comfortable rooms, with only the quiet drip of water, making you feel far from the surface.
A Floating Hotel in Sweden
Sweden’s Salt & Sill has a floating hotel in a calm valley where rooms move gently with the water. Next to it is a famous restaurant serving herring (鲱鱼) in many ways. After a good dinner, you can go back to your floating room. You can even climb a ladder (楼梯) from your room for a swim.
A Campsite on Spanish Islands
Near Spain’s coast, Islas Cies feels like a storybook’s deserted island — no cars, few buildings. Overnight stays need a special summer-only campsite, and in return, you get clean, empty beaches, clear blue water for diving, and peaceful paths through green pine forests.
1. What might be a challenge for the visitors to the treehouse hotel
A. The high price. B. A long walk. C. The bad weather. D. A small bed.
2 What do the Floating Hotel and Islas Cies Campsite have in common
A. There are some old mines. B. They are for camp lovers.
C. They are open only in summer. D. There are water activities.
3. Where is the text most probably taken from
A. A travel brochure. B. A sports report.
C. A research paper. D. A school textbook.
B
The 2025 TIME “Girl of the Year” list includes an inspiring young mind:15-year-old Zhao Yong’er from China. Recognized as a science educator, Zhao has been working to make science reachable and exciting for teenagers everywhere.
Zhao’s love for science began in her childhood. Unlike many who find textbooks too difficult, she saw them as gateways to discovery. She noticed that teenagers like her often had trouble finding the fun in science, viewing it as a difficult school subject rather than a tool for understanding the world.
Determined to change this, she set up a popular online science club at just 13. Through short, attractive videos and interactive live streams (直播), she explains hard topics like AI and environmental science in simple words. Her platform has become a centre for curious young minds to ask questions and do fun experiments.
Her work proves that you are never too young to make a difference. By breaking down challenges to scientific knowledge, Zhao is not just teaching facts; she is developing critical thinking (批判性思维) and creativity. She sets a good example for a new generation of leaders who use digital tools for social good. Zhao is more than an award winner; she is a role model, showing that with passion and effort, anyone can help build a brighter future with more knowledge.
4. Why is Zhao on the TIME list
A. Because she is a scientific video producer.
B. Because she won a national science competition.
C. Because she designed a new scientific experiment.
D. Because she makes science popular among teenagers.
5. What problem of the teenagers did Zhao notice
A. They had no textbooks. B. They couldn’t focus on study.
C. They had trouble learning science. D. They couldn’t use digital tools.
6. How did Zhao help the teenagers
A. She wrote a science book. B. She gave a science lecture.
C. She set up an online science club. D. She invented a new scientific tool.
7. What can we learn from Zhao’s story
A. Greatness has no age limit. B. Always prepare for a rainy day.
C. Actions speak louder than words. D. The early bird catches the worm.
C
So many books are published every year, but it’s impossible for readers to read them all. Yet many people like to return to books they’ve already read. “Books are like people,” said Jane Brown, a literature professor. “Some you meet once and that’s enough. Some you want to get to know better.” What do you think Should we read a book more than once
Many people think books deserve (值得) rereading. People listen to songs and watch movies over and over, so why not read books again Rereading allows us to notice new details and understand differently as we get older. Rereading is like hanging out with friends. A familiar book we reread is like a “safe space” for our emotions. Its known plot and characters can calm anxiety, reduce stress, or bring comfort during hard times.
However, others argue time is better spent on new books. Rereading makes people miss new stories and may stop readers from improving. Instead, they suggest sharing old books and discussing them with others to get fresh views, so that person can enjoy it for the first time. Afterward, they can talk about the book and exchange thoughts, which might change how they see it.
In fact, no single reading rule is suitable for all books. Whether we should reread a book depends on the type of the book and what we want.
8. Why does the author mention Jane Brown’s words
A. To tell a story. B. To introduce the topic.
C To give a suggestion. D. To support the conclusion.
9. What is a key benefit of rereading books
A. Saving money on new things. B. Finishing books faster than before.
C. Impressing others with literature knowledge. D. Noticing new details and understanding differently.
10. What is the main idea of paragraph 3
A. It’s a waste of time to read old books.
B. New books are more valuable than old ones.
C Discussing can change one’s understanding of a book.
D. People should share and discuss old books with others.
11. Which can be a suitable title for this text
A. Ways of Rereading B. Reread Books or not
C. Advantages of Rereading D. How to Reread Books
D
The 2025 World Games ended on August 17th in Chengdu, China, after 11 days of competition. About 4,000 athletes from around the world competed in 256 medal events in 34 sports, including waterski, wakeboard, flag football and speed skating. This year’s games featured (以……为特色) powerboating and cheerleading for the first time.
The World Games include sports not featured in the Olympics and give some of the world’s best athletes a chance to display their skills on a global stage. They are run by the International World Games Association (IWGA), with support from the International Olympic Committee. Like the Olympics, the World Games are held every four years in a host city. They take place the year after the Summer Olympic Games.
At this year’s World Games, China won the most medals with 64, as well as the most gold medals with 36. The US won 28 medals, including 11 golds. The Chinese Breakdancing (霹雳舞) Team won 2 gold medals and 1 silver medal. Spanish speed skater Jhoan and German swimmer Nina had the most individual gold medals at this year’s games, with five each.
The 2029 World Games will be held in Karlsruhe, Germany. At this year’s closing ceremony, the World Games flag was handed over to the mayor of Karlsruhe and German athletes. “Over these unforgettable days, Chengdu has not only hosted the world — it has made the world feel at home”, IWGA president Jose Perurena said at the closing ceremony.
12. When did the 2025 World Games begin
A. On August 7th. B. On August 11th.
C. On August 17th. D. On August 28th.
13. What does the underlined word “display” mean in paragraph 2
A. Improve. B. Master. C. Show. D. Practice.
14. What can we infer from Jose Perurena’s words
A. Chengdu is highly recognised. B. People should pay a visit to Chengdu.
C. Chengdu provides free accommodation. D. More stadiums will be built in Chengdu.
15. What can we know from the text
A. Spanish speed skater Jhoan won 10 gold medals.
B. The 2029 World Games will be hosted in Germany.
C. Waterski was in the World Games for the first time in 2025.
D. The World Games are run by International Olympic Committee.
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Deal with Loneliness as a Teenager
It’s normal for teenagers to feel lonely from time to time. When you’re experiencing loneliness in your school life, it can be challenging to connect with others. ____16____.
● Build strong relationships
____17____. Talk to your family members about your day. Reach out to an old friend you haven’t spoken to for a long time. Don’t be afraid to be the one to make the first move.
● ____18____
Taking part in school activities is a great way to meet people with the same interests. There’s probably a club for what you love—like basketball, music, or ballet.
● Stay active
Physical activity is good for both your body and mood. Exercise can make you happy and energetic. ____19____. You can join a school sports team, run with a friend, or just walk in the park.
● Love yourself
Loving yourself is an important way in the process of personal growth and it also gives you the inner strength to work your way through loneliness.
Remember, dealing with loneliness takes time and courage. ____20____. By trying these methods, you can start to build a more enjoyable teenage life.
A. Make more friends
B. Join in school activities
C. Here are some ways to deal with it
D. Watching movies helps solve loneliness
E. Taking small steps every day can be helpful
F. It can also be an opportunity to make new friends
G. Strong relationships are the best way to fight loneliness
第三部分 语言运用 (共两节，满分30分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分) 。
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
On August 12, 2025, Li Mengyi, a nurse from Yuebei People’s Hospital, was waiting for her train at Nanjing South Station with her two children. Suddenly, there was an emergency announcement, calling for immediate ____21____ aid. Upon hearing it, Li quickly settled her children and ____22____ to the A4 ticket gate 400 meters away. There, she found a young man ____23____ on the ground, unconscious (失去意识的). When ____24____ his condition, Li found him having an epileptic seizure (癫痫发作). She immediately cleared the patient’s mouth to prevent choking (噎住). After examination, she recognised that the ____25____ was also suffering from low blood sugar.
During the 5-minute rescue, Li continuously monitored the patient’s signs. When the patient gradually ____26____ consciousness, Li comforted him ____27____: “Don’t be afraid, I’m a nurse. You’re ____28____ now.”
Afterwards, Li quietly left with her children and ____29____ their train. Later, when interviewed (采访), she said ____30____, “This is just a nurse’s responsibility.” Her brave act soon received ____31____: the Shaoguan Foundation for Courage and Justice awarded her 5,000 yuan, and her hospital also gave her a 2,000 yuan reward. ____32____, what touched her most was her children’s words: “Mom, you are our ____33____!”
Li’s action shows the true ____34____ of Chinese spirit — helping others in need is everyone’s responsibility. Her story proves that professional knowledge and a caring heart can make a ____35____ in life.
21. A. medical B. practical C. formal D. extra
22. A. hiked B. returned C. walked D. rushed
23. A. sitting B. standing C. lying D. resting
24. A. improving B. examining C. describing D. tracking
25. A. patient B. designer C. graduate D. editor
26. A. lost B. raised C. deepened D. regained
27. A. angrily B. loudly C. gently D. strictly
28. A. graceful B. confident C. helpful D. safe
29. A. missed B. caught C. designed D. visited
30. A. carelessly B. simply C. excitedly D. curiously
31. A. education B. information C. recognition D. recommendation
32. A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Otherwise
33. A. partner B. friend C. hero D. leader
34. A. meaning B. strategy C. schedule D. solution
35. A. decision B. plan C. promise D. difference
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Four-Sheep Square Zun (四羊方尊) is a very famous bronze object from China’s Shang Dynasty. It’s a(n) ____36____ (extreme) wonderful example of ancient Chinese skills. In the past, people ____37____ (be) excellent at making bronze objects.
The Four-Sheep Square Zun is not too big. Its main body is square, and ____38____ makes it special is the four sheep ____39____ (head) on its four corners. Looking real and detailed, each head is like a little sculpture of a sheep.
In ancient Chinese culture, sheep were known ____40____ good luck, a happy and rich life. So the sheep designs on the zun make it look beautiful ____41____ give it deep meanings.
A long time ago, people poured wine into this zun ____42____ (show) respect for their ancestors. Today, the Four-Sheep Square Zun ____43____ (keep) safely in the National Museum of China. It’s not just ____44____ old object but an important symbol of China’s long history and great culture. It also tells us how _____45_____ (power) and creative the early Chinese craftsmen were.
第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 (满分15分)
46. 假定你是李华，你校英文报正在开展以My Club Choice为题的征文活动。请你写一篇短文投稿，内容包括：
1. 你选择的社团;
2. 你的理由 (至少2条)。
注意：
1. 词数80个左右;
2. 文中不得出现真实的姓名和学校名称;
3. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
My Club Choice
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节 (满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Lily, a freshman with a warm smile, admired her classmate Mia’s outgoing personality. Mia was always laughing with classmates, speaking confidently in class, and making everyone feel welcome — something Lily tried to do. Though she wanted to be friends with Mia, Lily didn’t know what to do.
One Friday morning after Mia gave an amazing English speech in class, Lily felt inspired. She wrote a note, praising Mia’s clear pronunciation and confident performance, expressing her wish to be friends with Mia. Lily gave the note to Mia, and at the very moment, the bell rang. Mia put it in her English dictionary.
The following days, Mia was busy preparing for the examination, forgetting the note totally. Sad and confused, Lily wondered why her friendly act received no answer, so she decided to find out the reason.
注意：
1. 续写词数应为100个左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
One day after school, she stopped Mia.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Realising the misunderstanding, Mia said sorry to Lily.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
