保密★启用前
2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试（金华市专用）
英 语
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分）
学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________
考生注意：
1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试难度：0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
参考答案
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 A A B B A B C A A C
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 A B A C B A C B D A
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
答案 C C B D A A A B C B
题号 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
答案 D A B C B A D C A B
题号 46 47 48 49 50
答案 C B A C D
1．A
【原文】M: Ms. Gao, I can spell ruler and pencil now.
W: OK, then you need to learn how to spell eraser.
2．A
【原文】W: Is your sister Kate an outgoing girl, Jeff
M: Yes, she just joined the chess club last month and she has many friends there.
3．B
【原文】A: What’s your favorite subject, Helen
B: Math. I love working with numbers. And you, John
A: Art. It makes me happy. Totally different from math.
B: Haha, that’s true. But both are fun in their own way.
4．B
【原文】A: When will you take the exams
B: I’ll take math on Tuesday, history on Thursday and geography next Monday.
5．A
【原文】A: Hi, Mary. Is that girl your sister Anna
B: No, my sister Anna is tall with long hair.
6．B 7．C
【原文】A: Hi, Zhang Tao, is your family big or small
B: I have a big family. There are 7 people in my family.
A: Oh, who are they
B: They are my grandparents, my parents, my uncle, my sister and I.
A: What do your grandparents do
B: They are about 80 years old. They don’t work now. They look after my little sister at home.
A: What do your parents do
B: My father is a cook. My mother works in a factory in Guangzhou.
A: What about your uncle
B: He’s a doctor. He works in Chongqing Number One People’s Hospital.
A: You have a big and happy family.
B: Thank you.
8．A 9．A 10．C
【原文】A: What do you usually eat for breakfast on weekdays, Tony
B: I usually have bread and milk.
A: When do you usually have lunch
B: At 11:45.
A: What do you do first after school
B: I always do my homework first.
A: Do you watch TV at night
B: Yes, I watch TV for half an hour.
A: What time do you go to bed
B: I usually go to bed before 9:30.
A: Good. I think you have a good habit.
Q: What does Tony usually eat for breakfast on weekdays
Q: What time does Tony usually have lunch
Q: How long does Tony watch TV
11．A 12．B 13．A 14．C 15．B
【原文】
My name is Kate Brown. I’m thirteen years old. I am from Canada but I study in No.15 Middle School in China this year. I have a good Chinese friend Ella. Her birthday is on August 5. She always has a party with some of her good friends in her house. They sit at the table and have a big dinner. Her dad is good at cooking and he usually cooks a lot of nice food for them. There is fish, mapo tofu, chicken and vegetable soup. But Jiaozi is her favourite. Ella is very happy to have dinner with her friends. She always has long noodles with eggs. Her mum says they’re a symbol of long life. I think it is very special.
16．A 17．C 18．B
本文是比尔生日派对的邀请函，文中包括派对的时间、地点和活动内容等。
16．细节理解题。根据文中“I would like to invite you to my birthday party!”和最后的署名“Bill”可知，这是比尔的生日派对。故选A。
17．细节理解题。根据文中“Date: December 11th”可知，生日派对是在十二月十一日。故选C。
18．推理判断题。根据文中“Time: From 2:00 p.m. to 5:00 p.m.”可知，从下午两点到下午五点，一共三个小时。故选B。
19．D 20．A 21．C 22．C
本文是一篇记叙文，讲述了Emily生日当天，姐姐通过一系列线索引导她找到生日礼物——一只小狗的故事。
19．细节理解题。根据文章第一段“When she gets home, she sees colorful balloons (气球) on the door and a ‘Happy Birthday!’ sign.”可知，Emily回家时在门上看到的是彩色气球。故选D。
20．细节理解题。根据文章第二段“Emily opens the note and reads, ‘Clue (线索) 1: Look inside the car.’”可知，第一个线索让Emily去车里找。故选A。
21．推理判断题。根据文章第二段“There Emily finds a bag of dog food with the third note.”以及后文“Emily goes to the back door and there is a dog’s leash (链条).”可知，第三个线索应与后门附近有关，选项C“Clue 3: Look near the back door!”符合上下文逻辑。故选C。
22．最佳标题题。根据文章最后一段“Then, Emily gives her sister a big hug and says, ‘Thank you! This is the best birthday gift ever!’”可知，文章围绕Emily的生日礼物展开，选项C“Emily’s Best Birthday Gift”最能概括文章主旨。故选C。
23．B 24．D 25．A 26．A
本文是一篇记叙文，讲述了格林太太家附近有一家大超市，她常去那里购物。有一天她去超市买了很多东西，包括孩子们喜欢的饼干、牛奶，还有给咪咪买的鱼和给蒂姆买的香肠等，最后因买的米太重，格林先生来帮忙搬运。
23．细节理解题。根据“There is a big supermarket (超市) near Mrs. Green’s home.”可知，超市在格林太太家附近。故选B。
24．推理判断题。根据“Biscuits are also her children’s favorite food.”以及后文提到“Mimi likes fish and Tim likes hot dogs.”可推断出这里的“her children”指的是Mimi和Tim，所以喜欢饼干的是Mimi和Tim。故选D。
25．细节理解题。根据“Mimi likes fish...”可知，咪咪喜欢鱼。故选A。
26．细节理解题。根据“Her husband, Mr. Green comes to the supermarket to carry the rice.”可知，格林先生来帮格林太太搬米。故选A。
27．A 28．B 29．C 30．B
本文是一篇海报，主要面向学生招募自行车俱乐部成员，介绍了加入俱乐部的理由、俱乐部的活动时间、地点、所需物品及咨询方式。
27．细节理解题。根据文章“Why Join Us ”部分第4点“Learn useful skills: biking skills, safety knowledge and teamwork.”可知，共可学习3种技能。故选A。
28．细节理解题。根据文章“Club Information”部分“Things to bring: Your bike and helmet.”可推知，加入俱乐部需有自行车和头盔。故选B。
29．细节理解题。根据文章“Club Information”部分“Meeting days: At 4:00 pm, every Monday.”可推知，成员每周一下午集合。故选C。
30．推理判断题。文章以 “Let’s Ride Together!”为标题，包含招募对象、加入理由、活动信息及咨询电话，是典型的俱乐部招募海报内容。故选B。
31．A 32．C 33．D 34．E 35．I want to join the Club A/B/C/D/E. Because it helps me with my homework and study./Because it helps me to learn some IT skills./Because it helps me to learn dance./Because I want to learn how to make movies./Because I can make my own favorite food.
本文主要介绍了学校的五个俱乐部，分别是学习俱乐部、IT俱乐部、舞蹈俱乐部、电影俱乐部、做饭俱乐部。
31．根据表格CLUB A中“It can help you with homework and studies. You can also read books there.”可知，CLUB A可以帮助你做作业和学习，你也可以在那里看书。John想取得好成绩且喜欢读书，应该选择A俱乐部。故填A。
32．根据表格CLUB C中“Each dance group meets once a week after school in the music hall and learns to dance.”可知，CLUB C每个舞蹈团每周放学后在音乐厅聚会一次，学习舞蹈。Linda喜欢跳舞，想将来成为一名优秀的舞者，应该选择C俱乐部。故填C。
33．根据表格CLUB D的“Host movie festivals, and teach club members to make their own movies.”可知，CLUB D会举办电影节，并教俱乐部成员制作自己的电影。Tom对看电影很感兴趣，想学拍电影，应该选择D俱乐部。故填D。
34．根据表格CLUB E的“You can learn to make your own cakes, hamburgers, noodles and much, much more!”可知，CLUB E可以可教学员学会自己做蛋糕、汉堡包、面条等等。Cindy喜欢吃美味的食物，想为我的家人做饭，应该选择E俱乐部。故填E。
35．开放性作答，结合实际，言之有理即可。参考答案为I want to join the Club A/B/C/D/E. Because it helps me with my homework and study./Because it helps me to learn some IT skills./Because it helps me to learn dance./Because I want to learn how to make movies./Because I can make my own favorite food.
36．D 37．A 38．B 39．C 40．B 41．A 42．D 43．C 44．A 45．B 46．C 47．B 48．A 49．C 50．D
本文主要介绍了Jimmy以及家人们在群聊里分享他们的日常生活。
36．他的家人经常在群聊里分享他们的生活。
stay保持；rise升起；finish完成；share分享。根据下文“You know that I have a very regular (有规律的) schedule.…go to the supermarketwith our father and our mother to buy some food.”可知，他们经常分享自己的日常生活。故选D。
37．我们来看一看吧。
a表泛指，用于辅音音素开头的单词前；the表特指；an表泛指，用于元音音素开头的单词前；/不用冠词。take a look“看一看”。故选A。
38．你们这一周过得如何啊？
my我的；your你的，你们的；his他的；her她的。根据上文“@Robert @ Alicia Hi, my dear brother and sister.”可知，是对着兄弟姐妹们询问“你们这一周过得如何”，用your表示“你们的”，修饰名词week。故选B。
39．我总是在早上6点40分起床，然后在早上7点10分去上学。
go home回家；go to school上学；get up起床；go to bed睡觉。根据“at 6:40 a.m.”可知是早上6点40分起床。故选C。
40．我总是在早上6点40分起床，然后在早上7点10分去上学。
in后接年、月、季节等；at后接具体的时刻；on后接具体某一天；to到。根据“7:10 a.m.”可知，在具体时刻前介词用at。故选B。
41．上午我有四节课，然后我在学校吃午餐。
morning上午；afternoon下午；evening晚上；night夜晚。根据“and I have lunch at school”可知，吃午餐前是上午。故选A。
42．我们家离学校远，所以中午我在教室里睡觉。
small小的；big大的；near附近的；far远的。根据“so I sleep (睡觉) in the classroom at noon”可知，家离学校远，所以中午没回家，在教室里午休。故选D。
43．下午我有两节课。
subjects科目；friends朋友；classes课；clubs俱乐部。根据上文“I have four classes in the…, and I have lunch at school.”可知，上午有四节课，下午有两节课。故选C。
44．还有，放学后，我总是和我们的爸爸妈妈去超市买食物。
after在……之后；before在……之前；while当……时；at在。根据“go to the supermarket”可知，应是放学后去超市，after school“放学后”。故选A。
45．听起来很棒！
Listens听；Sounds听起来；Watches观看；Sees看见。great为形容词，其前谓语应用感官动词sound，sounds great在此表示评价。故选B。
46．我也度过了快乐的一周。
boring无趣的；tired疲劳的；happy快乐的；sad难过的。根据下文“I love my job!”可知，Alicia热爱工作，可推测她这一周过得很愉快。故选C。
47．我在上午9点到达那里，还帮忙清扫了书架。
break打破；help帮忙；brush洗刷；fall摔倒。根据“clean the bookshelves”可知此处用help do sth表示“帮忙做某事”。故选B。
48．然后，我工作——从上午10点到下午6点。
work工作；collect收集；join加入；play玩耍。根据下文“At work”可知此处指上班，工作。故选A。
49．工作时，我帮助人们找到书本。
discover发现；put放；find找到；look看。根据“help people”可知是帮人们找书。故选C。
50．我还可以阅读许多好书。
problems问题；news新闻；notice通知；books书。根据“read many good”可知是阅读好书。故选D。
51．subjects 52．useful 53．because 54．always 55．finishes
本文介绍了作者的学校生活，包括学习科目，课后活动等。
51．这学期我在学校有十门课。根据“I have ten…at school this term.”可知，此处表示“十门科目”，备选词subject“科目”符合语境，“ten”接名词复数，故填subjects。
52．这很难，但很有用。根据“It is difficult but”可知，此处表示转折，说的是“难但是是有用的”，备选词use的形容词useful“有用的”符合语境，作表语。故填useful。
53．我不喜欢数学，因为它对我来说很难。根据“it is difficult for me.”可知，后文解释了原因，备选词because“因为”符合题意。故填because。
54．星期一对我来说总是很忙。根据“Monday is…a busy day for me.”可知，此处可以说“总是”很忙，备选词always“总是”符合语境，为副词。故填always。
55．学校在3:45结束。根据“After school, I play sports for an hour.”可知，此处指的学校3:45结束，备选词finish表示“结束”，该句是一般现在时，主语“School”为单数，动词用三单形式。故填finishes。
56．begins 57．need 58．eraser 59．hers 60．ready 61．quite 62．important 63．clubs 64．performance 65．lonely
本文介绍了作者对新学期的准备以及新学期的活动。
56．今天，我的家人非常兴奋，因为新学年又开始了。由所给的汉语可知，begin意为 “开始”，此处是一般现在时，主语new school year是单数，因此谓语用三单形式。故填begins。
57．上学前，我需要在书包里放一些学习用品，比如一块橡皮、两支铅笔、四支钢笔和一些笔记本。由所给的汉语可知，need意为“需要，此处是一般现在时，主语I是第一人称，因此谓语用原形。故填need。
58．上学前，我需要在书包里放一些学习用品，比如一块橡皮、两支铅笔、四支钢笔和一些笔记本。由所给的汉语可知，eraser意为“橡皮”，由an可知，此处用单数。故填eraser。
59．我的目光与她的（目光）相遇。由所给的汉语可知，hers意为“她的”，这里用名词性物主代词hers指代老师的目光。故填hers。
60．她总是乐于帮助我们解决困难，所以我认为她很善良。由所给的汉语可知，ready意为“准备好”，be ready to do sth.“准备做某事”。故填ready。
61．她总是乐于帮助我们解决困难，所以我认为她很善良。由所给的汉语可知，quite意为“很，十分”，副词修饰形容词。故填quite。
62．在李老师的课堂上，她向我们介绍了我们的新学校，还告诉了我们应该知道的一些重要事情。由所给的汉语可知，important意为“重要的”，形容词作定语。故填important。
63．李老师说，我们学校有很多种俱乐部供我们选择。由所给的汉语可知，club意为“俱乐部”，由many kinds of可知，这里用复数。故填clubs。
64．我对唱歌和跳舞很感兴趣，我希望有一天我能参加学校的演出。由所给的汉语可知，performance意为“节庆，汇演”，由the school可知，这里用单数。故填performance。
65．我确信在学校里我不会感到孤独。由所给的汉语可知，lonely意为“孤单的”，形容词作表语。故填lonely。
66．are 67．in 68．mistakes 69．like 70．helps 71．studying 72．hers 73．a 74．so 75．really
本文描述了一张家庭照片以及家庭成员的兴趣爱好和日常生活。
66．我家有七口人。be是，be动词。分析句子结构可知，本句为there be句型，根据语境可知是描述客观事实，所以使用一般现在时，且根据seven people可知，此处be动词应用复数形式are，故填are。
67．他对自然和摄影很感兴趣。be interested in...是固定搭配，意为“对……感兴趣”，故填in。
68．当我们做错事时，他会指出我们的错误。mistake错误，名词。根据our可知，此处应填名词复数形式，表示多个错误，故填mistakes。
69．他可能很沉默，但对我和我的兄弟姐妹来说，他就像一座山。根据句意可知，此处是比喻说法，表示父亲像一座山一样给予我们依靠，故填like。
70．她有时会在学习上帮助我们。help帮助，动词。根据sometimes可知，本句时态为一般现在时，且主语she是第三人称单数，所以动词应用三单形式，故填helps。
71．我哥哥喜欢地理。他总是很高兴研究地图。study学习，动词。have fun doing sth.是固定搭配，意为“做某事很开心”，故填studying。
72．春节期间，我们会把她的剪纸作品贴在门窗上。her她的，形容词性物主代词。根据句意可知，此处指的是“她的剪纸作品”，应用名词性物主代词。故填hers。
73．我是学生，每天早上我都要穿校服去上学。根据句意可知，此处表示泛指“一件校服”，所以前面用不定冠词，且uniform是以辅音音素开头的单词，所以用不定冠词a，故填a。
74．我爷爷也喜欢音乐，所以我们经常在周末一起享受我们的爱好。分析句子结构可知，前后句为因果关系，且后句是果，表达“所以”应用连词so连接，故填so。
75．这对我来说真的是最快乐的时光！real真的，形容词。分析句子结构可知，此处需要副词来修饰形容词happiest，故填really。
76．例文：
Dear Ms. Zhang,
I would like to recommend my family for “The Most Beautiful Family” in our class this year.
There are three people in my family. My father is tall and strong. He is very kind and has a good sense of humor. He likes reading books in his free time. My mother is beautiful with long hair. She is kind and loves cooking delicious meals for us. I am an active student who enjoys playing sports. We often go for a walk in the park together on weekends. We also enjoy watching movies, sharing laughter and tears.
I love my family. We always support and care for each other. That’s why I believe my family deserves this recommendation.
Yours,
Li Hua
[总体分析]
①题材：本文是一篇应用文，为推荐信。
②时态：时态为“一般现在时”；
③提示：写作要点已给出，考生应注意不要遗漏“信息提示”中你的家庭的介绍要点，适当添加细节，并突出写作重点。
[写作步骤]
第一步，表明写作意图。借用“向英语张老师写一篇推荐信，推荐你的家庭”来引出重点介绍的内容；
第二步，具体阐述写作内容。从“家庭成员、一起做的事情、推荐理由等”几个方面重点介绍你的家庭的具体情况；
第三步，书写结语，表达“这就是为什么我认为我的家庭值得这个推荐”的总结。
[亮点词汇]
①would like to do sth.想要做某事
②go for a walk去散步
③on weekends在周末
④enjoy doing sth喜欢做某事
[高分句型]
①There are three people in my family. (“there be”句型)
②I am an active student who enjoys playing sports. (who引导的定语从句)浙江省金华市 2025-2026学年七年级英语上学期期末考试
英语·答题卡
姓名：______________________________________
准考证号 条 码 粘 贴 处
缺考标记 注意事项
1．答题前，考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号码填写清楚。
考生禁止填涂 2．请将准考证条码粘贴在右侧的[条码粘贴处]的方框内。
缺考标记！只能 3．选择题必须使用 2B铅笔填涂；非选择题必须用 0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写，字体工整。
由监考老师负 4．请按题号顺序在各题的答题区内作答，超出范围的答案无效，在草纸、试卷上作答无效。
责用黑色字迹 5．保持卡面清洁，不要折叠、不要弄破、弄皱，不准使用涂改液、刮纸刀。
的签字笔填涂。 6．填涂样例 正确 [■] 错误 [--][√] [×]
选择题(请用 2B铅笔填涂)
第二部分（听力）(第 1-5 每小题 1分，6-15每小题 1.5分，共 20分)
1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
第二部分（阅读理解）(共 20小题，每小题 2分，满分 40分)
16.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 26.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
17.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
18.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
19.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
20.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
35.______________________________________________________
第三部分 第一节 完形填空(共 15 小题，每小题 1分，满分 15 分)
36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 46.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 47.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 48.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 44.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 49.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 45.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 50.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！
非选择题(请在各试题的答题区内作答)
第二节 词汇运用(共 15小题，每小题 1分，满分 15分)
A:51.___________ 52. ____________ 53. ____________ 54 ____________ 55. ____________
B:56.___________ 57. ____________ 58. ____________ 59 ____________ 60. ____________
61.___________ 62. ____________ 63. ____________ 64 ____________ 65. ____________
第三节 语法填空(共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
66.___________ 67. ____________ 68. ____________ 69 ____________ 70. ____________
71.___________ 72. ____________ 73. ____________ 74 ____________ 75. ____________
第四部分语言运用 (共一节，满分 20 分)
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请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形边框限定区域的答案无效！保密★启用前
2025 -2026学年七年级上学期期末考试（金华市专用）
英 语
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：120分）
学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________
考生注意：
1.本试题卷共10页，满分120分 。考试时间120分钟。
2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、准考证号用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔分别填写在试题卷和答题纸规定的位置上。
3.答题时，请按照答题纸上“注意事项”的要求，在答题纸相应的位置上规范作答，在本试题卷上的作答一律无效。
4.考试难度：0.75 [2025年浙江省最新中考题型]
第一部分 听力 (满分20分)
第一节：听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题。请从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1分）
1．What can’t Peter spell
A．eraser B．ruler C．pencil
2．Which club did Kate join last month
A．The chess club. B．The swimming club. C．The music club.
3．What’s John’s favourite subject
A．Math. B．Art. C．English.
4．When will the girl take the history exam
A．On Tuesday. B．On Thursday. C．Next Monday.
5．What does Anna look like
A．She is tall with long hair. B．She is tall with short hair. C．She is short with long hair.
第二节：听下面两段对话。每段对话后有2至3个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）
听材料，回答小题。
6．How many people are there in Zhang Tao’s family
A．Six. B．Seven. C．Eight.
7．Where does Zhang Tao’s uncle work
A．At home. B．In a restaurant. C．In a hospital.
听第二段材料，回答以下小题。
8．What does Tony usually eat for breakfast on weekdays
A．Bread and milk. B．Hamburgers. C．Eggs and milk.
9．What time does Tony usually have lunch
A．At 11:45. B．At 12:00. C．At 12:15.
10．How long does Tony watch TV
A．For two hours. B．For an hour. C．For half an hour.
第三节：听下面一段独白，独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答案标在试卷的相应位置。（每小题1.5分）。
11．Where is Kate from
A．Canada. B．China. C．Australia.
12．When is Ella’s birthday
A．On 8th May. B．On 5th August. C．On 15th August.
13．Who usually cooks the food for the party
A．Ella’s dad. B．Ella’s mum. C．Ella’s friend.
14．What food does Kate like best
A．Chicken. B．Noodles. C．Jiaozi.
15．What does Kate think of Ella’s birthday food
A．It’s meaningful. B．It’s special. C．It’s interesting.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
16．Whose birthday party is it
A．Bill’s. B．Alan’s. C．Lucy’s.
17．When is the birthday party
A．On December 2nd. B．On December 5th. C．On December 11th.
18．How long will the party last (持续)
A．Two hours. B．Three hours. C．Four hours.
B
Today is Emily’s birthday. When she gets home, she sees colorful balloons (气球) on the door and a “Happy Birthday!” sign. Her sister meets her at the door and says, “We are playing a game. You need to find your gift.” Then, she gives Emily a note (便条).
Emily opens the note and reads, “Clue (线索) 1: Look inside the car.” So she goes to the car. She sees a dog bone (骨头) and another note inside the car. This note reads, “Clue 2: Look in the front yard.” There Emily finds a bag of dog food with the third note. Again she quickly reads the note. “ ▲ ” Emily goes to the back door and there is a dog’s leash (链条).
“Hmmm,” she thinks. “A dog bone, dog food and a leash... But we don’t have a dog.” Emily looks at the note on the leash and then goes outside. Do you know what she sees A red doghouse! When Emily walks to it, a little brown dog runs to her with a note saying, “Happy Birthday, Emily!”
Emily is so happy! She loves her new little dog! “I will name her Happy!” she says. Then, Emily gives her sister a big hug and says, “Thank you! This is the best birthday gift ever!”
19．What does Emily see on the door when she gets home
A．A red doghouse. B．Her new dog. C．A big birthday cake. D．Colorful balloons.
20．Where does the first clue tell Emily to look
A．Inside the car. B．On the door. C．In the front yard. D．Near the back door.
21．Which of the following sentences can be put in “___▲___”
A．Clue 3: Happy birthday! B．Clue 3: Look out of the house!
C．Clue 3: Look near the back door! D．Clue 3: You are getting a new dog!
22．Which is the best title (标题) for this story
A．A Birthday Party B．How to Get a Dog
C．Emily’s Best Birthday Gift D．How to Play with a Dog
C
There is a big supermarket (超市) near Mrs. Green’s home. She usually goes there to buy food. The shop assistants are polite (有礼貌的) and helpful. The things are cheap, too.
One day, Mrs. Green goes to the supermarket. She buys some noodles. Biscuits are also her children’s favorite food. And she buys some milk. Her children always have milk for breakfast. Mimi likes fish and Tim likes hot dogs. She buys some fish and sausages (香肠) for them, too. Mrs. Green doesn’t have any rice at home. So she buys a bag of rice, but she can’t take it. It is very heavy. Her husband, Mr. Green comes to the supermarket to carry the rice.
23．Where’s the supermarket
A．In Mrs. Green’s house. B．Near Mrs. Green’s house.
C．Under the street. D．In the mall (商业街).
24．Who likes biscuits
A．Mrs. Green and Mr. Green. B．Mrs. Green and Tim.
C．Mrs. Green and Mimi. D．Tim and Mimi.
25．Mimi likes ________.
A．fish B．hot dogs C．rice D．vegetables
26．Who helps Mrs. Green carry the rice
A．Mr. Green. B．Mrs. Green. C．Mimi. D．Tim.
D
Let’s Ride Together!
Are you ready to pedal (骑车) your way to fun and fitness (健康)
Our cycling club is calling all biking lovers to join us.
Why Join Us
1. Make new friends.
2. Stay active and healthy.
3. Have fun outdoors: Enjoy group rides, games and special activities.
4. Learn useful skills: biking skills, safety knowledge (安全知识) and teamwork.
Club Information
Meeting days: At 4:00 pm, every Monday.
Meeting place: The square (广场) in front of the school library.
Things to bring: Your bike and helmet (头盔).
Open to: All students. If you are a seasoned (经验丰富的) rider, welcome. If you are new to cycling, there is also a place for you in our club.
Want to be a member (成员) or know more information Call us at 216-9871.
27．How many skills can you learn by joining the cycling club
A．3 B．4 C．5 D．6
28．To join the club, students have to ________.
A．buy a bike from the club B．have a bike and helmet
C．be good at riding bikes D．be a seventh-grader
29．What do we know about the club members
A．They do exercise at 4 pm every day. B．They practice cycling at the city square.
C．They meet every Monday afternoon. D．They often study together at the library.
30．Where is the text probably taken from
A．A textbook. B．A poster. C．A report. D．A magazine.
第二节 任务型阅读(共5题，每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A~E五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项)，并回答最后小题。
Boys and girls, there are many clubs in our school. Here are some clubs. Would you like to join us
School Clubs
CLUB A．A place to read, relax, and catch up with homework. When Lunchtimes Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday Where Room 303 in the library What for It can help you with homework and studies. You can also read books there. CLUB B．Time & Place Lunchtime: Mondays in Room 106 What for In the club, you can learn IT skills in website design (网站设计) and programming.
CLUB C． Each dance group meets once a week after school in the music hall and learns to dance. There are lots of dance shows to join if you wish, or you can just enjoy yourself. When Fridays 4:15 pm~5:15 pm CLUB D．What for Watch a movie and talk about it. Host movie festivals, and teach club members to make their own movies. Time & Place Fridays 4:30 pm~6:00 pm in Room 516
CLUB E. What for You can learn to make your own cakes, hamburgers, noodles and much, much more! After that, you can eat what you make! Time & Place Wednesdays 4:30 pm~5:55 pm in the dining hall.
1 John: I want to get good grades and I like reading. 2 Linda: I like dancing and I want to be a great dancer in the future. 3 Tom: I am interested in watching films and want to learn to make films. 4 Cindy: I enjoy eating delicious food and I want to cook it for my family.
31．
32．
33．
34．
35．Which of these five clubs do you want to join Why (不少于10个词)
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分40分)
第一节 完形填空 (共15 小题，每小题1分，满分15 分)
阅读下面短文，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
。
Jimmy has a very happy family. His family often 36 their life in the chat group. Let’s take 37 look.
Happy Family(5)
@Robert @ Alicia Hi, my dear brother and sister. How’s 38 week @Jimmy Hi, Jimmy! You know that I have a very regular (有规律的) schedule. I always 39 at 6:40 a.m. and go to school 40 7:10 a.m. I have four classes in the 41 , and I have lunch at school. Our home is 42 from the school, so I sleep(睡觉) in the classroom at noon. I have two 43 in the afternoon. And 44 school, I always go to the supermarket with our father and our mother to buy some food. @Jimmy 45 great! I also have a 46 week. Every day, I am the first to get to the workingplace. I get there at 9:00 a.m. and 47 clean the bookshelves (书架). And I 48 —from l0:00 a.m. to 6:00 p.m. At work, I help people 49 books. I can also read many good 50 . I love my job!
36．A．stay B．rise C．finish D．share
37．A．a B．the C．an D．/
38．A．my B．your C．his D．her
39．A．go home B．go to school C．get up D．go to bed
40．A．in B．at C．on D．to
41．A．morning B．afternoon C．evening D．night
42．A．small B．big C．near D．far
43．A．subjects B．friends C．classes D．clubs
44．A．after B．before C．while D．at
45．A．Listens B．Sounds C．Watches D．Sees
46．A．boring B．tired C．happy D．sad
47．A．break B．help C．brush D．fall
48．A．work B．collect C．join D．play
49．A．discover B．put C．find D．look
50．A．problems B．news C．notice D．books
第二节 词汇运用(共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
A.用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，每词仅用一次
use finish subject always because
My name is Wang Ping. I am a middle school student now. I have ten 51 at school this term. My favorite subject is English. It is difficult but 52 . I like geography, too. I don’t like math 53 it is difficult for me.
Monday is 54 a busy day for me. In the morning, I have four classes. In the afternoon, I have two classes. School 55 at 3:45. After school, I play sports for an hour. Then I go to the Book Club. There we act out stories and make new friends. At about 6:00 I go home.
B:阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式(每空一词)。
Hello, I’m Jenny. Today, my family are very excited because new school year 56 (开始) again. Before going to school, I 57 (需要) to put some school things in my schoolbag, like an 58 (橡皮), two pencils, four pens and some notebooks.
When I get to school, I meet my new English teacher, Miss Li. She is very tall and wears a pair of glasses. My eyes meet 59 (她的). We feel very happy. In fact, She is always 60 (准备好) to help us with our difficulties, so I think she is 61 (很，十分) kind and nice. In Miss Li’s class, she introduces our new school to us and also tells some 62 (重要的) things we should know. Miss Li says, there are many kinds of 63 (俱乐部) in our school for us to choose from. I’m interested in singing and dancing, I hope that I can take part in the school 64 (节庆，汇演) one day.
I’m sure that I won’t feel 65 (孤单的) in school. I’m looking forward to making new friends in this new school.
第三节 语法填空(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，在空格处填入一个适当的词或填入括号中单词的正确形式。
Look at my family photo. There 66 (be) seven people in my family. This is my father. He is interested 67 nature and photography. He is strict. He will point out our 68 (mistake) when we do something wrong. He may be silent, but he is 69 a mountain for me, my brother and sister. My mother is a book lover. She sometimes 70 (help) us with our subjects.
Do you love geography My brother does. He always has fun 71 (study) maps. My little sister often does paper cutting. Her favorite pictures are flowers and animals. We will put 72 (her) on doors and windows during the Spring Festival. I am a student, and every morning I have to wear 73 uniform to school. It’s one of our school rules. I love guitar and I am in the school band. My grandpa loves music too, 74 we often enjoy our hobby together on weekends. This is 75 (real) the happiest time for me!
第四部分语言运用 (共一节，满分20分)
76．假如你是李华，你所在班级的英语课上组织了一场“最美家庭 (The Most Beautiful Family)”的评选活动。请根据以下提示，向英语张老师写一篇推荐信，推荐你的家庭。
要求：
1. 文中不得出现真实的人名，注意人称；
2. 必须包含要点所提供的信息，并适当发挥；
3. 语句通顺，意思连贯，卷面整洁，书写工整；
4. 文章字数在60-80词左右 (开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数)。
Dear Ms. Zhang,
I would like to recommend (推荐) my family for “The Most Beautiful Family” in our class this year.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua(共7张PPT)
外研版2024 七年级英语上册
浙江省金华市2025-2026学年七年级英语上学期期末考试 答案
一、听力测试
1-10:AABBA BCAAC
11-15:ACACB
一、快速核对
二、阅读理解
A:16．A 17．C 18．B
B:19．D 20．A 21．C 22．C
C:23．B 24．D 25．A 26．A
D：27．A 28．B 29．C 30．B
第二节 任务型阅读
31．A 32．C 33．D 34．E 35．I want to join the Club A/B/C/D/E. Because it helps me with my homework and study./Because it helps me to learn some IT skills./Because it helps me to learn dance./Because I want to learn how to make movies./Because I can make my own favorite food.
一、快速核对
三、完形填空
36．D 37．A 38．B 39．C 40．B 41．A 42．D 43．C 44．A 45．B 46．C 47．B 48．A 49．C 50．D
第二节 词汇运用
A:51．subjects 52．useful 53．because 54．always 55．finishes
B:56．begins 57．need 58．eraser 59．hers 60．ready 61．quite 62．important 63．clubs 64．performance 65．lonely
一、快速核对
第三节 语法填空
66．are 67．in 68．mistakes 69．like 70．helps 71．studying 72．hers 73．a 74．so 75．really
Dear Ms. Zhang,
I would like to recommend my family for “The Most Beautiful Family” in our class this year.
There are three people in my family. My father is tall and strong. He is very kind and has a good sense of humor. He likes reading books in his free time. My mother is beautiful with long hair. She is kind and loves cooking delicious meals for us. I am an active student who enjoys playing sports. We often go for a walk in the park together on weekends. We also enjoy watching movies, sharing laughter and tears.
I love my family. We always support and care for each other. That’s why I believe my family deserves this recommendation.
Yours,
Li Hua
第四部分语言运用
