江西省会昌中学2025-2026学年高一上学期第一次月考英语试卷(含答案)

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名称 江西省会昌中学2025-2026学年高一上学期第一次月考英语试卷(含答案)
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更新时间 2026-01-21 17:52:51

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2025 年秋学期会昌中学高一第一次月考英语试题
考试时间:120 分钟 总分:150 分
第一部分 听力 (共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节 听下面 5 段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出
最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置,听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题
和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Who gave the girl an interesting book
A. Her father. B. Her brother. C. Her mother.
2. Where does Shelia come from
A. China. B. Japan. C. America.
3. What is the weather like
A. Sunny. B. Cloudy. C. Rainy.
4. How does the man feel
A. Nervous. B. Angry. C. Sad.
5. Where does the conversation most probably take place
A. On a bus. B. In a bank. C. In a zoo.
第二节 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三
个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各
个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各个小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两
遍。
听第 6 段材料,回答第 6 至 7 题。
6. What is the matter with the man
A. He can’t remember every word.
B. He doesn’t get enough writing practice.
C. He can’t catch what people are saying sometimes.
7. What is the woman’s suggestion
A. Join an English club. B. Read English magazines. C. Watch English-language TV.
听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. Which countries will play in the coming football match
A. China and Japan. B. China and Korea. C. Japan and Korea.
9. When will the football match start
A. At 7: 30 am on June 20th. B. At 7: 30 pm on June 20th. C. At 7: 30 pm on July 20th.
10. How much does the man pay
A. $22. B. $33. C. $44.
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听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. Where are the speakers
A. In Liverpool. B. In Manchester. C. In London.
12. How did the woman go to work in her hometown
A. By underground. B. By bus. C. On foot.
13. What does the woman think of taking the underground
A. It is time-saving. B. It is cheap. C. It is interesting.
听第 9 段材料,回答第 14 至 16 题。
14. Why does the woman invite the man to join the theater group
A. He was an actor before. B. He is interested in acting. C. He is looking for an acting job.
15. What is the man worried
A. He can’t spare time to practice.
B. He hasn’t been in a play for a long time.
C. He might dislike the way the group works.
16. What does the man agree to do
A. Practice once a week.
B. Meet the woman on Wednesday.
C. Watch the group play if he is free.
听第 10 段材料,回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. How many people were there in the band
A. Five. B. Four. C. Three.
18. How did the band become famous
A. By singing in radio programs.
B. By copying other groups.
C. By giving humorous performances.
19. When did the band start touring around the world
A. Before 1970. B. In about 1996. C. In the mid-1980s.
20. What will the speaker do next
A. Introduce another band. B. Tell more details about the band. C. Play Monkees’ songs.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分 50 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题,每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C 和 D) 中选出最佳选项。
A
Welcome to Our Festival
Story Show in Oheron
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Adults
8:00 pm-10:00 pm
Join us for an evening of true, personal stories about e to the only show where you can hear
people—scientists, not-scientists, and half-scientists—tell funny and touching stories about the role of science in
their lives.
Cost: $10
Make Your Own iPhone Case through Toysinbox 3D Printing
Families & Teens & Adults
10:00 am-12:30 pm
In this workshop, you will learn to design and make your own iPhone case by 3D printing. First, you will learn
how to use a 3D printer. Next, you will design a 3D model for your iPhone case that will have a lovely pattern and
your name. Once you create the model, you will print it out on our 3D printers. A 3D-printing worker will guide
you through this process step by e and enjoy this fun and unique learning experience!
Cost: $35
DIY Underwater Vehicle Design in MIT Museum
Teens
2:00 pm-5:00 pm
Dive into the world of ocean engineering by designing and building an underwater vehicle! Test your vehicle
in large tanks on the Museum’s floor. Show off your engineering creations and share your design process with
Museum visitors.
Cost: $15, Ages 12
Animal Kingdom for Young Ones in Museum of Science, Boston
Families
9:30 am-2:00 pm
Join us for a day of hands-on science fun designed especially for pre-schoolers!
Activities include the Museum’s popular “Live Animal Story Time” shows and a talk about baby animals and
book-signing by children’s book authors. Take part in special live animal visits and activities in the exhibition halls,
as well as design challenges and lab activities—all created with your young scientist in mind!
Cost: free, from Ages Pre-kindergarten to Ages 8
1. What can people do in Story Show
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A. Do role-play games.
B. Put on science shows.
C. Hear touching stories.
D. Meet authors of the books.
2. If you are interested in ocean engineering, you will probably attend ________ .
A. Story Show
B. DIY Underwater Vehicle Design
C. Make Your Own iPhone Case
D. Animal Kingdom for Young Ones
3. Animal Kingdom for Young Ones is designed for________.
A. adults
B. children of all ages
C. kids under 8 years old
D. children aged twelve and older
B
Even at 80, Mei Jingtian still patrols (巡逻) the Shixiaguan part of the Great Wall. With over40 years of
experience, he taps the overgrown ground with a wooden stick, warning wild animals for safety.
He lives in Shixia village near the 8.6-kilometer part. Shixia villagers have a deep love for the wall. Mei
remembers when he ran and played hide-and-seek with his friends on the large building as a child. However, in
1979, when he returned to Shixia after working outside for years, he was shocked by the terrible situation of the old
wall. “Some villagers even took stones from it to build their houses,” Mei says. To protect the wonder, Mei
volunteered as a guardian (守护者), patrolling 20 kilometers daily, preventing people from taking stones, writing
on the wall or dropping litter.
In 1984, a Great Wall protection program started. With Mei’s effort, the situation gradually picked up.
Realizing the importance of protection, more and more villagers returned the stones they had taken and joined Mei
on patrol. In 2006, as village head, Mei set up a volunteer protection organisation, and about 80 of 100 villagers
joined as guardians. His niece, Liu Hongyan, encouraged by him, also became a guardian in 2019. “When I was a
child, my uncle always told me his patrol stories and talked about the history of the Great Wall,” Liu says. “It is my
duty and responsibility to protect the Great Wall.”
Mei’s hard work has made a difference. From 2015 to 2023, 289 protection projects were allowed and
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thousands of guardians joined.
Even though there is progress, the Shixiaguan part still remains closed to the public. “My biggest wish,” Mei
says, “is to see the Great Wall well-protected and open for all to visit, encouraging more people to join us in
protecting it.”
4. What made Mei Jingtian decide to protect the Great Wall
A. The dream of being a hero. B. The influence of his friends.
C. The poor condition of the Great Wall. D. Encouragement from the villagers.
5. What do the underlined words “picked up” in paragraph 3 probably mean
A. Improved. B. Appeared. C. Remained. D. Worsened.
6. Which of the following best describes Mei Jingtian
A. careful and confident. B. kind-hearted and humorous.
C. creative and curious. D. responsible and strong-willed.
7. What does the text mainly talk about
A. A lifelong guardian of the Great Wall. B. Villagers’ deep love for the Great Wall.
C. The progress in protecting the Great Wall. D. A Practical Great Wall protection program.
C
France is famous the world over for its wonderful food. If you were lucky enough to enjoy a French meal, you
would most likely be offered some bread to eat with it. The most popular bread they bake is called a baguette. Ten
million baguettes are sold every year in France. Because the French expect their bread to be super fresh, most of
France’s 30, 000 bakers have to end their day by throwing into the waste bin any remaining baguettes.
Frenchman Franck Wallet has thought about this food waste issue for many years. He originally trained to be
an urban (城市的) planner and worked in that area for many years. But his mind would regularly turn to the
problems of what to do with wasted food — especially baguettes. He began to talk with some engineers to see if
they could come up with a solution. In 2016, a solution was found. They called the machine the “Crumbier”.
When a good baguette is just made, it is crispy on the outside and as soft as a cloud on the inside. Once it has
cooled down the bread soon becomes hard. Before the Crumbier, this old bread would be thrown away. Today, if
that bread is placed into the Crumbier, it is very quickly turned into very fine breadcrumbs (面包屑). These can be
mixed with fresh flour (面粉), salt and water and baked again like normal bread.
Bread made with Crumbier breadcrumbs has a darker colour, but just a little bit. The taste is also a little
different and has been described as having the flavour of toast. Once the breadcrumbs have been produced, they
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can last up to six months if they have been packed properly. Because less water is used in Crumbier bread, it will
last a little longer. The Crumbier is now on sale and bakers throughout France are making sure they have one. No
one wants to waste food.
8. What do most of French bakers do at the end of their day
A. Prepare the materials for the next day. B. Give the remaining bread out for free.
C. Throw the remaining bread away. D. Sell the bread at a very low price.
9. What did Franck Wallet care about most
A. The waste of bread. B. The new taste of bread.
C. The freshness of bread. D. The popularity of bread.
10. What is special about the bread made with Crumbier breadcrumbs
A. It has a much darker colour. B. It keeps for a shorter time.
C. It takes less time to bake. D. It tastes like toast.
11. Which word best describes bakers’ attitude to Crumbier in France
A. Doubtful. B. Uninterested. C. Supportive. D. Unclear.
D
Teenagers who spend more time on after-school activities and less than two hours of screen time after school
are more mentally healthy, according to a study published in the journal Preventive Medicine.
The study used information collected from more than 28,000 seventh-grade Canadian students between 2014
and 2018. The students first answered questions about their usage of screen time after school, including how much
time they spent watching TV or something else. Then, students reported how many days they had taken part in
after-school activities such as sports or arts programmes. After that, researchers asked students to describe their
state of mind. For example, when given a statement such as “I start most days thinking that I will have a good day”,
they could choose to what level they agreed with it on a scale (等级).
Researchers said in the study some of the results were expected. Students with no after-school activities
usually had high levels of screen time, for example. And they expected girls would score higher on negative
indicators (消极指标)of mental health. as earlier research had found that they tended to have higher levels of
anxiety compared to boys.
What was noteworthy, researchers say, is that even among students who took part in after-school activities, 46%
still went beyond the recommended screen time of two hours. At the same time, 67% of students who didn’t take
part in after-school activities also had more than two hours of screen time. Together, this suggests high screen time
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among teenagers generally.
“The findings suggest that after-school activities are valuable for the happy growing of teenagers,” the study
said. “While past studies have proved the importance of after-school activities for social and academic development,
the present study shows their importance for good mental health results.”
12. Which of the following came last when students took part in the new study
A. Talking about their lifestyles.
B. Introducing their after-school activities.
C. Reporting their mental states on a scale.
D. Answering questions about screen time use.
13. What do the researchers find about teenage girls
A. They often have higher levels of satisfaction.
B. Few of them take part in after-school activities.
C. Anxiety has become a serious problem among them.
D. Too much screen time may be more harmful to them.
14. What does the author want to show by using the numbers in paragraph 4
A. Earlier findings about screen time are wrong.
B. High screen time is common among teenagers.
C. No after-school activities mean no screen time.
D. Screens attract teenagers more than after-school activities do.
15. Why are after-school activities so important according to the new study
A. They are good for teenagers’ physical health.
B. They help to improve teenagers’ mental health.
C. They encourage teenagers’ social development.
D. They allow teenagers to become better learners.
第二节 (共 5 小题,每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的七个选项中选出填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余项。
Friendship is a very important human relationship and everyone needs good friends. But there are times in our
lives such as when we have recently moved into a new town, or changed our schools or jobs. Such changes often
leave us without a friend.____16____,but for many of us, the process is difficult and requires courage. Below are
some helpful suggestions on how to make and keep friends.
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Associate with others.
The first step to make friends is associating with people. You can go to public places to meet new people.
Besides, you will need to make yourself known by becoming an active member of such places.
Start a conversation.
Starting a conversation is the second most important step in making new friends. ___17___ You can always
start the conversation. Being able to make small talk is a very useful skill in relating (关联的) with other people.
____18____
Choosing friends with common interests is important in building friendship as these interests always bring you
and your friend together. Hanging out will always be a pleasant experience.
Let it grow.
It is a good thing to stay in touch. However, try not to press your new friend with calls, messages or visits as
this would likely wear him or her out and finally you may lose your friend. ___19___The best friendships are the
ones that grow naturally.
Enjoy your friendship.
The best way to enjoy your friendship is to allow your friends to be themselves. ___20___ Try not to change
them from who they are to what you want them to be. Become the kind of friend you will want your friend to be.
A. Be cheerful.
B. Do things together.
C. Don’t wait to be spoken to.
D. Try not to find fault with your friend.
E. Making new friends comes easy for some people.
F. For a friendship to develop you need to stay in touch.
G. So you will need to give your friend time to react to you.
第三部分 语言知识应用 (共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节:完形填空 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中,选出
可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 (共 15 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
I love spending time with kids. So, when I heard about the work at Happy Kids Center, I couldn’t wait to sign
up. Last Saturday, I worked as a(n) ____21____ at the center. Mrs. Chen, the headmaster, handed me a uniform
printed with little stars. Looking at the laughing kids behind me, I felt ____22____ and a bit nervous.
“Look at my picture,” shouted Mary, an 8-year-old girl, holding up a bright paper sun. “It’s so creative,” I said.
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“Let’s ____23____ your sun.”
Suddenly, a boy called Leo came running. He stood with a ____24____ toy car, tears in his eyes.
“Let’s ____25____ it,” I said. We sat on the floor, carefully repairing. “Blue tape will make it nicer!”
When the car rolled again Leo whispered (低声说), “The ____26____ is that I … I broke it by accident.”
I answered, “That’s really ____27____ of you to be honest.”
Then, Mrs. Chen brought in a box of bright paints. Kids ran to her except (除了) Lily. Her hands ____28____
her back.
“Your brother painted a beautiful tree last week,” I said, sitting by her. “Do you want to try flowers like his ”
____29____, she started drawing. I saw her smile and her face was full of joy.
At snack time, Lily shyly pushed her painting _____30_____. I gently touched her head and said, “Lily, your
painting is truly excellent.”
Seeing the sunset, I quickly borrowed Mrs. Chen’s _____31_____. The kids posed (摆姿势) with their works,
and Lily showed her painting happily.
While saying _____32_____, Mrs. Chen handed me the gift—a picture of smiling kids. She said, “Thank you
for helping our stars _____33_____ brighter.”
I realized that even a _____34_____ day at the center could become special when people provide kindness. As
I walked home, I thought about the _____35_____ of seeing kids grow. Volunteering isn’t just about doing jobs but
about helping every star find their light in the sky.
21. A. worker B. maker C. volunteer D. engineer
22. A. sad B. perfect C. shocked D. excited
23. A. put up B. make up C. wake up D. take up
24. A. new B. beautiful C. broken D. cheap
25. A. throw B. fix C. invent D. count
26. A. reason B. change C. research D. truth
27. A. brave B. silly C. clever D. weak
28. A. moved around B. hid behind C. held beside D. stayed above
29. A. Quickly B. Suddenly C. Slowly D. Luckily
30. A. forward B. back C. away D. down
31. A. tool B. object C. record D. camera
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32. A. goodbye B. thanks C. hello D. yes
33. A. look B. keep C. shine D. paint
34. A. strange B. common C. noisy D. busy
35. A. fear B. pressure C. challenge D. joy
第二节:语法填空 (共 10 小题,每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面材料,在空格处填入适当的内容 (1 个单词) 或括号内单词的正确形式。
As a must-see tourist ____36____ (attract) in China Xi’ an is really a living history book in China. People
____37____ home and abroad come to the city to broaden ____38____ (they) knowledge of Chinese civilisation
(文明). The Terracotta Warriors, Xi’an City Wall and Huashan ____39____ (true) are highlights of Xi’an tours, but
the Y592 tourist train in Xi’an is also worth a try.
The Y592 ____40____ (be) Shaanxi province’s first Han and Tang ____41____ (dynasty) culturally themed
tourist train. Through various forms of cultural decorations, the themed train recreates the rich atmosphere from
these ancient times, which provides ____42____ unique travel experience for passengers.
____43____ (help) passengers better appreciate the beauty of hanfu, this tourist train has not only a section
displaying hanfu and Armour (甲胄) , but also a special make-up area with professional make-up artists. Inside the
train, passengers can not only admire ____44____ (tradition) Chinese clothing hanfu and Armour, but also
personally experience costume (服装) changes _____45_____ allow them to transcend (超越) time upon arrival.
第四部分 写作 (共两节;满分 40 分)
第一节 (满分 15 分)
46. 假如你是李华,你收到交换生朋友 Eric 的来信,他告诉你他不适应数学老师的课,在数学方面有些困难,
以至于跟不上其他同学,他感到非常着急。请给他写一封电子邮件安慰他并提供一些有用的建议。
注意:1. 词数 80 左右;2. 邮件的开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
参考词汇:适应 adapt to
Dear Eric,
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
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Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节:(满分 25 分)
47. 阅读下面材料,根据具体内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was my birthday that day, and my grandfather gave me a gift—a piggy bank. It had an opening through
which one could put money in, but the opening was not big enough to reach in and get the money out. The only
way to get the money was to break the piggy hank open. My grandfather explained that was the whole idea. And he
added. “The piggy bank would help save your money so that, at the end of the year, you might have enough for that
bike you dreamed about.” He asked if I would put some of the money he gave me into the piggy bank. I agreed
immediately and promised sincerely, “I wouldn’t break it open until I could afford my dream bike.”
Whenever my grandfather gave me some pocket money, he would say, “This is for spending. But you can save
some and put it in the piggy bank if you want to save it up.” When he gave me larger amounts, it was clear for me
to save the extra money in the piggy bank. For some time, this worked fine. I loved shaking the piggy hank and
hearing the sound of the coins. As it became heavier, I grew more excited, dreaming about buying my new bike,
and all the adventures I could have on it.
Whenever I wanted to take some money from the piggy bank to buy delicious ice-creams or beautiful presents.
I would imagine riding my bike on the street, and thinking of that, my thoughts about buying those things went
away. So for almost three years. I had only put money into the piggy hank without taking any out. I thought I
wouldn’t break my piggy hank for anything. Bat one day something unexpected happened. I saw a piece of news on
the television that a serious earthquake had happened in a nearby province. As many houses were destroyed, a lot
of children became homeless. Seeing their shabby clothes and crying faces. I was sleepless that night. Staring at my
piggy bank. I was thinking about what I could do with it.
注意:
1.续写词数应为 50 左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
The next morning. I took out my piggy bank and shook it.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
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________________________________________________
Hearing the noise. my grandfather came over.
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________
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2025 年秋学期会昌中学高一第一次月考英语试题
考试时间:120 分钟 总分:150 分
第一部分 听力 (共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节 听下面 5 段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出
最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置,听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题
和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Who gave the girl an interesting book
A. Her father. B. Her brother. C. Her mother.
2. Where does Shelia come from
A. China. B. Japan. C. America.
3. What is the weather like
A. Sunny. B. Cloudy. C. Rainy.
4. How does the man feel
A Nervous. B. Angry. C. Sad.
5. Where does the conversation most probably take place
A. On a bus. B. In a bank. C. In a zoo.
第二节 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三
个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各
个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各个小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两
遍。
听第 6 段材料,回答第 6 至 7 题。
6. What is the matter with the man
A. He can’t remember every word.
B. He doesn’t get enough writing practice.
C. He can’t catch what people are saying sometimes.
7. What is the woman’s suggestion
A. Join an English club. B. Read English magazines. C. Watch English-language TV.
听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. Which countries will play in the coming football match
A. China and Japan. B. China and Korea. C. Japan and Korea.
9. When will the football match start
A. At 7: 30 am on June 20th. B. At 7: 30 pm on June 20th. C. At 7: 30 pm on July 20th.
10. How much does the man pay
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A. $22. B. $33. C. $44.
听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. Where are the speakers
A. In Liverpool. B. In Manchester. C. In London.
12. How did the woman go to work in her hometown
A. By underground. B. By bus. C. On foot.
13. What does the woman think of taking the underground
A. It is time-saving. B. It is cheap. C. It is interesting.
听第 9 段材料,回答第 14 至 16 题。
14. Why does the woman invite the man to join the theater group
A. He was an actor before. B. He is interested in acting. C. He is looking for an acting job.
15. What is the man worried
A. He can’t spare time to practice.
B. He hasn’t been in a play for a long time.
C. He might dislike the way the group works.
16. What does the man agree to do
A. Practice once a week.
B. Meet the woman on Wednesday.
C. Watch the group play if he is free.
听第 10 段材料,回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. How many people were there in the band
A. Five. B. Four. C. Three.
18. How did the band become famous
A By singing in radio programs.
B. By copying other groups.
C. By giving humorous performances.
19. When did the band start touring around the world
A. Before 1970. B. In about 1996. C. In the mid-1980s.
20. What will the speaker do next
A. Introduce another band. B. Tell more details about the band. C. Play Monkees’ songs.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节,满分 50 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题,每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C 和 D) 中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~3 题答案】
第 14页/共 17页
【答案】1. C 2. B 3. C
B
【4~7 题答案】
【答案】4. C 5. A 6. D 7. A
C
【8~11 题答案】
【答案】8. C 9. A 10. D 11. C
D
【12~15 题答案】
【答案】12. C 13. D 14. B 15. B
第二节 (共 5 小题,每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的七个选项中选出填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余项。
【16~20 题答案】
【答案】16. E 17. C 18. B 19. G 20. D
第三部分 语言知识应用 (共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节:完形填空 阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项 (A、B、C、D) 中,选出
可以填入空白处的最佳选项。 (共 15 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
【21~35 题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. A
31. D 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. D
第二节:语法填空 (共 10 小题,每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
【36~45 题答案】
【答案】36. attraction
37. at 38. their
39. truly 40. is
41. dynasties
42. a 43. To help
44. traditional
45. which##that
第四部分 写作 (共两节;满分 40 分)
第 15页/共 17页
第一节 (满分 15 分)
【46 题答案】
【答案】Dear Eric,
I’m sorry to learn you’re struggling to adapt to your math teacher’s class and falling behind. Take it easy it’
s completely normal. Here are some tips to help you catch up.
Try previewing lessons before class to get a head start. During class, focus on listening and jot down key
points, which can help you clarify doubts later. After class, review daily and practice similar problems to reinforce
concepts. If necessary, ask the teacher or classmates for help — they’ll likely be glad to assist. Most
importantly, stay confident and patient.
Let me know if you need more support.
Yours sincerely,
Li Hua
第二节:(满分 25 分)
【47 题答案】
【答案】参考范文:
The next morning, I took out my piggy bank and shook it. “There should be a lot of money in it. This is years
of my savings,” I said to myself. I was about to break it and withdraw money when my mina came back to the bike
I wanted to buy, and I hesitated. However, thinking of the look in the eyes of the children hoping for help in the
earthquake, I grabbed the piggy bank and threw it to the ground. Suddenly, the piggy bank broke into pieces and
the coins rolled all over the floor.
Hearing the noise, my grandfather came over. I explained to him what had happened. Having known my
thought, he fondly touched my head and said, “Good boy, you did the right thing. Grandpa is proud of you.” He
continued, “My dear grandson, you deserve that bicycle. As a bonus, let’s buy that bike together now.” “Thank you,
Grandpa,” I was overwhelmed with happiness. From that day on, you would always see me riding my bike on the
street, leaving my hearty laughter behind.
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