2026中考江西第一次模拟考试英语能力提升测试卷
(考试时间:120分钟 试卷满分:120分)
注意事项:
1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。写在本试卷上无效。
3.回答非选择题时,必须用黑色字迹的签字笔或者钢笔将答案写在答题卡相应位置上。写在本试卷上无效。
4.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
一、听力。(本大题共20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
A. 请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。
1.Where are the speakers
A.At home. B.At school. C.In the store.
2.Why did Tim go to school on foot
A.Because of his old car.
B.Because of his lost bike.
C.Because of the heavy traffic.
3.Who does the woman like
A.The singer who looks really cool.
B.The singer who writes his own songs.
C.The singer who can play the piano.
4.What does Kate think of Bill
A.He is more careful than Li Lei.
B.He is funnier than Li Lei.
C.He is more outgoing than Li Lei.
5.What does Annie mean
A.The exam will be easy for her.
B.She is ready for the exam.
C.She isn’t preparing for the exam.
B. 听短对话选答案。
听下面一段对话,回答6-7小题。
6.What does Daniel think of the news
A.Boring. B.Noisy. C.Exciting.
7.What time will the soccer game start
A.At 4:20. B.At 4:40. C.At 5:20.
听下面一段对话,回答8-9小题。
8.What is the shoe shop next to
A.A school. B.A bank. C.A restaurant.
9.What does the boy say about the cinema
A.It has big screens.
B.It sells cheap tickets.
C.It has comfortable seats.
C. 听长对话选答案。
听下面一段对话,回答10-12小题。
10.What does the woman suggest the man do first
A.Finish his homework.
B.Go out of the classroom to relax.
C.Have a snack.
11.Why does the woman think relaxing for a while is important
A.Because it helps save time.
B.Because it makes learning better in class.
C.Because it’s more fun than doing homework.
12.What did the man learn about in the history class
A.The history of Tang Dynasty (朝代).
B.The history of ancient Greece.
C.The history of World WarⅡ.
听下面一段对话,回答13-15小题。
13.When will Henry leave to see his grandparents
A.On July 1st. B.On July 3rd. C.On July 4th.
14.What does Kate want to buy for Jenny
A.A bag. B.An art book. C.A scarf.
15.What can we get from the conversation
A.Henry will go to Jenny’s party.
B.The 597 Market is behind the art center.
C.There are many things made by hand in 597 Market.
D.听力填空。
16.Mr. Black works in a(n) .
17.Bridge Village tells the story of a talented .
18.People in Win Today win prizes by answering questions about .
19.Funny Days is a(n) show.
20.Mr. Black watches Funny Days for about minutes every Sunday.
二、单项选择。(本题共8小题,每小题1分,共8分)
21.Frank and his friend gave each other their phone numbers and promised to ________ each other.
A.get on well with B.end up with
C.keep in touch with D.come up with
22.There ________ a talent show in our school the day afternoon tomorrow.
A.is going to be B.are going to be
C.will have D.is going to have
23.—Hello! Can I speak to Jenny, please
—Sorry, she isn’t in. Can I ________ a message
A.take B.read C.check D.receive
24.—What did our teacher say just now
—He asked ________.
A.if we needed any help or not B.whether we had any questions
C.which question we can’t understand D.that we could finish homework on time
25.—Why do you ________ swimming as your hobby
—Because I think it is good for my health.
A.grow up B.put up C.make up D.take up
26.—Look at that man in black. Is that Mr. Brown
—No, it _________ be Mr. Brown. He has gone to Beijing.
A.mustn’t B.can’t C.may not D.needn’t
27.When I am free, I can’t stop singing this song. It in my mind all the time.
A.replies B.stops C.remains D.manages
28.—It seems that you don’t know much about New York.
—You’re right. I am a ________ here.
A.stranger B.relative C.patient D.teacher
三、完形填空。(本题共26小题,每小题1分,共26分)
A) 请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项。
Bill Sumiel was having a difficult day in October 2020. The 71-year-old, who had been on dialysis (透析) for kidney 29 , had to visit a medical center for the second time in 24 hours. The day before, his dialysis access port had been cleared, but it unexpectedly 30 again that night. Sumiel, who had been 31 with diabetes 20 years ago, was on the kidney transplant list but had not yet found a suitable candidate. He took an Uber home after his appointment as he had no other means of 32 .
Timothy Letts, 31, was on his way to visit a friend when he received Sumiel’s ride 33 . Even though it was out of his way, 34 he accepted, believing the passenger might need help. During the 40-minute drive, the two began to 35 . Sumiel shared about his struggle with dialysis and his search for a kidney 36 . Letts, an Army veteran, 37 that he could be a good donor because he didn’t drink or smoke. At first, Sumiel didn’t take it seriously, but Letts couldn’t stop 38 about it.
Close to Sumiel’s home, Letts offered to see if he could be a 39 . Sumiel was shocked but 40 . Later, he wondered if Letts would follow through. However, Letts kept his 41 and contacted the transplant program. After months of testing, Letts was confirmed as a 42 pairing.
In December 2021, they both underwent successful 43 . Today, Sumiel no longer needs dialysis and enjoys life with his family. Letts has moved to Germany but remains in touch with Sumiel, who calls him a “special person” for his life—saving gift.
29.A.disability B.failure C.performance D.obstacle
30.A.healed B.blocked C.granted D.restricted
31.A.realized B.identified C.suffered D.diagnosed
32.A.connection B.transportation C.urgency D.communication
33.A.invitation B.bill C.request D.offer
34.A.still B.otherwise C.therefore D.meanwhile
35.A.argue B.chat C.sing D.sleep
36.A.donor B.doctor C.sponsor D.patient
37.A.admitted B.joked C.announced D.remarked
38.A.explaining B.laughing C.thinking D.worrying
39.A.doctor B.match C.nurse D.relative
40.A.angry B.grateful C.confused D.indifferent
41.A.secret B.action C.talk D.word
42.A.perfect B.close C.distant D.flawed
43.A.examinations B.surgeries
C.sessions D.treatments
B) 请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框所给的词的适当形式填空,并将答案填写到答题卷的相应位置,每个词限用一次。
again easy fun after like read both into hand quickly move
Can you quickly put a cup on top of other cups to make a special shape If so, you can be a stacker!
Children all over the world are doing sport stacking. In sport stacking, or cup stacking, you must 44 place cups one on top of the other in the right order. There are three ways to make these stacks, and the 45 way is called the 3-3-3. In the 3-3-3, nine cups are made 46 three stacks, with two cups on the bottom and one cup on top. 47 making the stacks, you have to take them down 48 . More cups can be added to make the stacks of cups much higher.
Cup stacking is a lot 49 building with blocks (积木), but you need to build very fast. Cup stacking is good for you, too. It helps your eyes and 50 work together. It also helps you 51 much more quickly. Cup stacking helps you use 52 sides of your brain. Cup stacking may also help you learn how 53 better.
It seems that cup stacking can help students in many ways. But what is the most important thing about cup stacking It is a lot of 54 !
阅读理解。(本题共23小题,每小题2分,共46分)
A)请阅读下面短文,短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Is comprehension the same whether a person reads a text onscreen or on paper And are listening to and viewing content as effective as reading the written word when covering the same material The answers to both questions are often “No.” The reasons relate to a variety of factors, including reduced concentration, an entertainment mindset (心态) and a tendency to multitask while consuming digital content.
When reading texts of several hundred words or more, learning is generally more successful when it’s on paper than onscreen. A large amount of research confirms this finding. The benefits of print reading particularly shine through when experimenters move from posing simple tasks—like identifying the main idea in a reading passage—to ones that require mental abstraction—such as drawing inferences from a text.
The differences between print and digital reading results are partly related to paper’s physical properties. With paper, there is a literal laying on of hands, along with the visual geography of distinct pages. People often link their memory of what they’ve read to how far into the book it was or where it was on the page.
But equally important is the mental aspect. Reading researchers have proposed a theory called “shallowing hypothesis (假说)”. According to this theory, people approach digital texts with a mindset suited to social media, which are often not so serious, and devote less mental effort than when they are reading print.
Audio (音频) and video can feel more engaging than text, and so university teachers increasingly turn to these technologies—say, assigning an online talk instead of an article by the same person. However, psychologists have demonstrated that when adults read news stories, they remember more of the content than if they listen to or view identical pieces.
Digital texts, audio and video all have educational roles, especially when providing resources not available in print. However, for maximizing learning where mental focus and reflection are called for, educators shouldn’t assume all media are the same, even when they contain identical words.
55.What does the shallowing hypothesis assume
A.Readers treat digital texts lightly.
B.Digital texts are simpler to understand.
C.People select digital texts randomly.
D.Digital texts are suitable for social media.
56.Why are audio and video increasingly used by university teachers
A.They can bold students’ attention.
B.They are more convenient to prepare.
C.They help develop advanced skills.
D.They are more informative than text.
57.What does the author imply in the last paragraph
A.Students should apply multiple learning techniques.
B.Teachers should produce their own teaching material.
C.Print texts cannot be entirely replaced in education.
D.Education outside the classroom cannot be ignored.
B
All through grade school, I got extra help with schoolwork. If I got a D, I was very happy. If I got a C-minus(C-), I was happy with tears. A’s and B’s were a mountain top I could never reach.
Once my teacher, Miss Mills, gave me a list of ten spelling words. My mother and I went over the list until I knew those words. I felt great. I thought, “Wow! This time, I’m going to pass”. The next day, I went into the classroom and began to write down the words. The first word was “carpe”r. I wrote that one down: c-a-r-p-e-t. I was feeling pretty confident. Then came “neighbor”-I wrote down the letter n. Then “rhythm”-I knew there was an r. “Suburban”-I wrote s-u-b. My confidence failed me. I had gone from 100 percent to maybe a D-minus. Where did the words go
Some people talk about information sliding off their brain(脑袋). That was my life.
Now I know I have dyslexia(读写障碍症). A person with dyslexia might see the as teh, and bird as brid. My brain learns differently. A learning disability(疾病)can really change the way you feel about yourself. Now I know that even if I learn differently, I can still be filled with greatness.
Today when I visit schools as an actor, director, and writer of children’s books, I tell children that everyone has something special inside. It’s our job to find out what that is and get it out, and give it to the world as a gift.
58.What was the writer’s problem in school
A.He had trouble spelling. B.He often got C-minuses.
C.He could never pass a test. D.He had a physical disability.
59.From Paragraph 2, we can know that the writer ________.
A.wrote down 20% words correctly B.knew he had dyslexia then
C.felt sad about himself at last D.studied hard and got an A
60.The underlined phrase “sliding off” in Paragraph 3 probably means ________.
A.coming into B.going through C.moving around D.disappearing from
61.After the writer knew he had dyslexia, he ________.
A.felt very excited B.had more difficulties in study
C.was filled with sadness D.changed the way he saw himself
62.What would be the best title for the passage
A.A Change for Sure B.People with Dyslexia
C.A Gift from the World D.A Special Spelling Test
C
After 10 years of difficult talks, nearly 200 countries agreed to a new United Nations (UN) agreement to protect the world’s oceans. The agreement has been the first of its kind in 40 years. It plans to protect 30% of the open oceans by 2030.
Oceans cover about 71% of the Earth’s surface and are home to hundreds of thousands of different kinds of animals and plants. Healthy oceans are a very important part of a healthy planet. But the oceans are in trouble. Overfishing (捕捞过度) has had a terrible effect on many kinds of fish and other animals. Pollution from ships and other places has caused serious problems. In 1982, an agreement described the “high seas (公海)”, but it did not protect them. In these areas, all countries have the right to fish, send ships, and do research. The high seas cover about two-thirds of the ocean. But now people only protect 1.2% of the areas.
Last December, over 110 countries agreed to protect 30% of their land and ocean areas by 2030. Without an international agreement, there was no way to make this goal meaningful for the whole ocean. The new agreement now makes this feasible (可行的).
The new agreement tries to turn 30% of the high seas into protected areas by 2030. It also says that activities planned for the high seas must first be examined to see what kind of influences they might have on the ocean environment. Businesses in some countries hope to make a lot of money by getting valuable things from the bottom of the sea. Other businesses hope to find plants or animals in the ocean that could lead to new discoveries and new medicines.
Many of the disagreements were about how valuable things would be shared between rich countries and poor ones. Poor countries wanted to make sure that the valuable things would help everyone, not just people in rich countries.
63.How many countries agreed to a new United Nations (UN) agreement to protect the world’s oceans
A.Nearly 20 countries. B.Very few countries.
C.Just a few countries. D.Most countries in the world.
64.What does Paragraph 2 mainly show us
A.The problems oceans face. B.Some ways to protect oceans.
C.Different kinds of ocean creatures. D.People’s different ideas about oceans.
65.What did over 110 countries agree to do last December
A.Stop all activities in the high seas.
B.Share the ocean resources equally.
C.Protect 30% of their land and ocean areas by 2030.
D.Ban the extraction of valuable things from the sea bottom.
66.What can we know from the passage
A.The new agreement only tries to protect fish.
B.All countries will stop fishing in the high seas.
C.Valuable things from the oceans will go to rich countries.
D.Many countries have paid attention to protecting the oceans.
67.Which of the following is the best title for the passage
A.The Importance of Oceans
B.The Problems of the High Seas
C.A New Agreement to Protect the Oceans
D.Disagreements between Rich and Poor Countries
D
Have you ever looked at a cat’s face and wondered what it is thinking A team of scientists from the University of California might have some answers. In a fascinating new study, researchers discovered that cats use 276 different facial expressions to show their feelings—far more than we have ever imagined!
①________
The scientists visited a local cat cafe in Los Angeles for over several months to observe (观察) 53 cats. They recorded 194 minutes of videos, carefully watching how the cats communicate with each other. Using a special system called FACS (Facial Action Coding System), which is normally used to study human expressions, they identified 26 unique facial movements in cats. These movements—like licking (舔) their nose, opening their mouth, or widening their pupils (the black part of their eyes)—combine in different ways to create all those expressions. They also found cats use 26 of these facial movements in total, which can be mixed to express how they are feeling. Dogs use 27 facial movements and humans use a total of 44.
②________
Out of the expressions they recorded, 45% were friendly and 37% were angry. “A friendly cat moves its ears and whiskers forward while closing its eyes slowly—almost like a smile! However, an angry cat often flattens its ears to its head, makes its pupils smaller and licks its lips,” said the team.
③________
Although the researchers aren’t sure what the cats were trying to communicate with each other using their faces, they plan to study cats in other places to improve their understanding. They also hope that the research could help animal shelters (收容所) improve the way they look after the cats. Some pet owners even suggest the researchers develop an app that scans a cat’s face to explain its mood—like a “cat translator”.
Next time your cat stares at you, pay attention—it might be “talking” with its face!
68.How does the writer start the passage
A.By giving numbers. B.By telling a story.
C.By showing some facts. D.By asking a question.
69.Which of the following uses the most facial movements
A.Cats. B.Humans. C.Dogs. D.Tigers.
70.Match the title with each part.
a. Why Does This Matter b. Friendly Faces or Angry Faces
c. How Did They Study Cats d. Future Research on Cat Communication.
A.①-a ②-b ③-d B.①-b ②-c ③-a
C.①-c ②-b ③-d D.①-d ②-b ③-c
71.What might the scientists do next
A.Keep on studying to know more about cats.
B.Find out why the cats try to communicate with each other.
C.Build an animal shelter to look after cats.
D.Use an app to study cats’ expressions.
72.What would be the best structure of the passage
A. B. C. D.
B)阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后根据短文内容从下面七个选项中选择五个还原到文中,使短文内容通顺、结构完整。一空一句。
Time is the most important part of life. 73 Used badly, you will feel life is short. Everyone starts a new day with 1,440 minutes. That’s more than enough to spend.
Ralph Waldo Emerson was right—“This time, like all times, is a very good one, if we know what to do with it.” 74 You have only 1,440 minutes today to make a difference in your life: how are you using it
In a fast changing world, the real question that can help you use time well is: how am I spending my next 1,440 minutes 75 What they do in 1,440 minutes is very different from what common people do.
Warren E. Buffett spends 80% of his day reading. He once said, “The difference between successful people and very successful people is that very successful people say ‘no’ to almost everything.”
76 In 1,440 minutes, you can start reading a few pages of your favorite book and make it a habit. You can use the time to learn timeless skills. You can learn from others to improve your work ability. And you can choose to spend sweet time with your family.
Being successful doesn’t make you manage your time well. But managing your time well makes you successful. Making full use of every 1,440 minutes can help you build a better life, which can remind you to think about time differently every day. It’s a call to spend your most valuable time wisely. “Wasting time means wasting life,” Robert R. Shannon said. Don’t waste the next 1,440 minutes. 77
A.Make full use of your time, and you will succeed.
B.You can start an exercise program to improve your health.
C.How are you spending the most important “This time”
D.For successful people, every minute is important.
E.1,440 minutes is more than enough to build a meaningful life.
F.Used well, you will experience a long and meaningful life.
G.Your success depends on it.
五、补全对话。(本题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
选择恰当的句子补全对话,选项中有两项是多余的。
A: Hey, David. We’ll l have a three-day holiday. 78
B: Nothing much. What about you
A: I’m going to my hometown with my parents.
B: 79
A: To celebrate the Dragon Boat Festival.
B: 80
A: It’s a traditional festival in China.
B: 81
A: We’ll have dinner with my relatives together, watch the Dragon Boat races and eat zongzi.
B: Zongzi What is it Is it delicious
A: Yes. Every year my grandmother makes it with some rice, meat and the leaves of bamboo. 82 We can celebrate it together.
B: Great, I’d love to. Thanks a lot.
A: You’re welcome.
A.That’s interesting.
B.What are you going to do
C.For what
D.What kind of festival is it
E.How will you celebrate it
F.I have never tasted it.
G.Would you like to go with us
六、书面表达。(共15分)
老人是社会的宝贵财富,他们生活经验丰富,值得我们尊敬和学习。假设你校英语社团正在开展以“我和身边老人的故事” 为主题的征文活动,请你根据以下要点提示,用英语写一篇短文讲述你和一位老人之间的故事。内容包括:老人的基本信息、你和他/她相处的经历以及你将怎样关爱老人。
要点:
1. The introduction of an old man or woman;
2. The experience between you and him or her (What did he or she do for you What did you learn from him or her );
3. The things you’ll do for the old people.
要求:
1. 短文应包括所有的写作要点,条理清楚,行文连贯,可适当发挥
2. 短文中不能出现真实的人名、校名、地名等信息;
3. 词数80—120,短文开头已给出,不计入总词数。
In my neighborhood
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参考答案
听力。(共20分)
A 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.B 11.B 12.A 13.A 14.C 15.C
16.post office 17.farmer 18.Chinese culture 19.talk 20.forty-five/45
二、单项选择。(本题共8小题,每小题1分,共8分)
21.C 22.A 23.A 24.B 25.D 26.B 27.C 28.A
三、完形填空。(本题共26小题,每小题1分,共26分)
29.B 30.B 31.D 32.B 33.C 34.A 35.B 36.A 37.B 38.C 39.B 40.B 41.D 42.A 43.B
44.quickly 45.easiest 46.into 47.After 48.again 49.like 50.hands 51.move 52.both 53.to read 54.fun
四、阅读理解。(本题共23小题,每小题2分,共46分)
55.A 56.A 57.C
58.A 59.C 60.D 61.D 62.B
63.D 64.A 65.C 66.D 67.C
68.D 69.B 70.C 71.A 72.C
73.F 74.C 75.D 76.E 77.G
五、补全对话。(本题共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
78.B 79.C 80.D 81.E 82.G
六、书面表达。(共15分)
In my neighborhood lives Mr. Li, a 70-year-old retired teacher. With grey hair and a kind smile, he’s thin but energetic, always wearing a blue shirt.
Last autumn, I saw him cut red paper into a beautiful butterfly and asked to learn. My hands shook, tearing the paper and making me disappointed. But he guided my hand and taught me patiently. We were excited when my first “butterfly” was done. Mr. Li’s wisdom shined through his patience, making me realize how much we can learn from the elderly.
So, I’ll visit Mr. Li once a week, learning paper cutting and helping with chores. I also plan to start a “Young Helper” group at school to care for more old people.2026中考江西第一次模拟考试英语能力提升测试卷
答题卡
第Ⅰ卷(请用2B铅笔填涂)
1.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 2.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 3.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 4.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 5.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 6.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 7.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 8.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 9.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 10.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 11.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 12.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 13.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 14.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 15.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] 21.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 22.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 23.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 24.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 25.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
26.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 27.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 28.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 29.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 30.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 31.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 32.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 33.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 34.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 35.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 36.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 37.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 38.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 39.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 40.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 41.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 42.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 43.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
55.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 56.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 57.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 58.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 59.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 60.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 61.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 62.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 63.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 64.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 65.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 66.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 67.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 68.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 69.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 70.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 71.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] 72.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
73.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ][ F ][ G ] 74.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ][ F ][ G ] 75.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ][ F ][ G ] 76.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ][ F ][ G ] 77.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ][ F ][ G ] 78.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ] 79.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ] 80.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ] 81.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ] 82.[ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ][ E ]
一、听力理解(本大题共20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
D)16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
三、完形填空(本大题共26小题,每小题1分,共26分)
B)44. 45. 46. 47. 48.
49. 50. 51. 52. 53.
54.
六、书面表达(15分)