Unit 3 Travel journal单元测试题 1

Unit
3
单元测试题
1
第二部分： 阅读理解 （共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项。
A
We
were
late
as
usual.
My
husband
had
insisted
on
watering
the
flowers
in
the
garden
by
himself,
and
when
he
discovered
that
he
couldn't
manage
he
asked
me
for
help
at
the
last
moment.
So
now
we
had
an
hour
to
get
to
the
airport.
Luckily,
there
were
not
many
cars
or
buses
on
the
road
and
we
were
able
to
get
there
just
in
time.
We
checked
in
and
went
direct
to
a
big
hall
to
wait
for
our
flight
(航班)
to
be
called.
We
waited
and
waited
but
no
announcement
(通知)
was
made.
We
asked
for
information
and
the
girl
there
told
us
that
the
plane
hadn't
even
arrived
yet.
In
the
end
there
was
another
announcement
telling
us
that
passengers
waiting
for
Flight
LJ108
could
get
a
free
meal
voucher
(餐券)
and
that
the
plane
hadn't
left
Spain
for
technical
reasons.
We
thought
that
meant
that
it
wasn't
safe
for
the
plane
to
fly.
We
waited
again
for
a
long
time
until
late
in
the
evening
when
we
were
asked
to
report
again.
This
time
we
were
given
free
vouchers
to
spend
the
night
in
a
nearby
hotel.
The
next
morning
after
a
bad
night
because
of
all
the
planes
taking
off
and
landing,
we
reported
back
to
the
airport.
Guess
what
had
happened
while
we
were
asleep!
Our
plane
had
arrived
and
taken
off
again.
All
the
other
passengers
had
been
woken
up
in
the
night
to
catch
the
plane,
but
for
some
reason
or
other
we
had
been
forgotten.
You
can
imagine
how
we
felt!
21.
Before
leaving
for
the
airport,
the
author
_____.
A.
helped
water
the
flowers
B.
found
it
hard
to
start
her
car
C.
cleaned
the
garden
by
herself
D.
made
a
phone
call
to
her
husband
22.
Why
didn't
the
author's
plane
take
off
on
time
A.
The
airport
was
too
busy.
B.
The
weather
was
terrible.
C.
Some
passengers
were
late.
D.
Something
was
wrong
with
it.
23.
How
did
the
author
probably
feel
the
next
morning
A.
Lucky.

B.
Excited.
C.
Angry.




D.
Nervous.
24.
What's
the
main
idea
of
the
text
A.
It
is
important
to
be
a
polite
passenger.
B.
A
couple
were
left
behind
at
an
airport.
C.
It
is
dangerous
to
travel
around
in
a
plane.
D.
More
and
more
airports
provide
a
bad
service.

B
Sequoyah
was
born
in
the
1770s
and
grew
up
in
the
Cherokee village of Tuskeegee, Tennessee.
He
was
skilled
at
working
with
silver
jewelry
(首饰).
One
day
Sequoyah
was
advised
to
put
his
name
on
the
silver
jewelry
he
made.
However,
he
could
not
write
his
name
because
Cherokee
was
only
a
spoken
language.
Sequoyah
decided
to
learn
how
to
write
his
name,
so
he
asked
one
of
his
customers
(顾客)
to
teach
him,
who
knew
English
very
well.
From
that
time
on,
Sequoyah
signed
(签名)
his
work
in
English.
Then
Sequoyah
realized
that
a
written
language
was
necessary
for
his
people.
In
1809,
he
started
by
making
small
drawings,
and
then
he
experimented
with
creating
a
letter
for
each
sound
in
the
Cherokee
language.
First,
Sequoyah
picked
out
all
the
sounds
in
the
Cherokee
language.
Then
he
gave
each
sound
a
symbol.
Unlike
English,
however,
no
two
sounds
shared
the
same
symbol.
Sequoyah's
work
was
difficult
and
took
him
a
lot
of
time.
Worse,
those
around
Sequoyah
didn't
understand
what
he
was
doing
with
all
those
strange
symbols.
Some
raised
doubts
about
his
work.
However,
Sequoyah
didn't
stop
working.
In
1821,
Sequoyah
completed
his
alphabet
(字母表).
Each
symbol
in
the
alphabet
symbolized
one
of
the
eighty-five
sounds
in
the
Cherokee
language.
By
saying
the
name
of
each
symbol,
a
person
could
read
the
spoken
word.
Sequoyah
taught
the
symbols
to
his
six-year-old
daughter,
Ayoka.
One
day,
they
went
to
visit
the
elders
of
the
Cherokee
Nation.
Sequoyah
asked
Ayoka
to
leave
while
he
wrote
down
what
the
elders
said.
When
Ayoka
returned,
she
read
out
loud
what
Sequoyah
had
written.
The
elders
were stunned.
Ayoka
was
able
to
repeat
their
words
without
being
present!
Sequoyah's
alphabet
was
soon
accepted
as
the
written
language
of
the
Cherokee
Nation.
25.
Sequoyah
learned
to
sign
his
work
_____.
A.
so
that
he
would
become
famous
B.
with
the
help
of
one
of
his
customers
C.
when
he
moved
to
a
Cherokee
village
D.
in
order
to
save
the
Cherokee
language
26.
What
can
we
learn
about
Sequoyah's
alphabet
A.
It
is
made
up
of
eighty-five
letters.
B.
It
uses
at
least
two
letters
to
symbolize
a
sound.
C.
It
was
created
in
the
early
eighteenth
century.
D.
It
was
the
same
as
the
English
alphabet
at
first.
27.
The
underlined
word
“stunned”
in
the
last
paragraph
probably
means
“_____”.
A.
worried














B.
thankful
C.
regretful













D.
surprised
28.
What
would
be
the
best
title
for
the
text
A.
The
Cherokee
Nation

B.
A
popular
language
C.
A
gift
beyond
price


D.
Fine
silver
jewelry

C
How
do
young
children
learn
to
have
good
values
How
can
parents
teach
their
children
about
the
importance
of
kindness
and
patience
At
a
time
when
more
and
more
parents
worry
about
the
violent
images
(暴力形象)
their
children
see
on
TV,
some
are
turning
to
fairy
tales
(童话).
It
is
believed
that
fairy
tales
have
a
great
influence
on
children
because
they
describe
the
two
sides
of
good
and
evil
(邪恶)
very
clearly.
When
children
hear
the
stories,
they
learn
to
care
about
others'
feelings.
In
each
tale,
they
can
see
that
there
are
many
different
kinds
of
people
in
the
world
and
that
we
all
have
a
choice
about
what
kind
of
person
we
want
to
be.
We
can
choose
to
do
good
actions,
rather
than
bad
ones,
in
our
lives.
What
kind
of
values
can
children
learn
from
fairy
tales
In
The
Princess
and
the
Pea
(《豌豆公主》),
a
poorly
dressed
girl,
who
insists
she
is
a
princess,
is
given
a
difficult
test
by
the
Queen.
When
she
passes
the
test,
we
learn
that
her
dream
comes
true
because
she
stays
true
to
herself.
In
The
Little
Mermaid
(《小美人鱼》),
the
mermaid,
who
lives
under
the
sea,
wishes
to
be
with
the
humans
on
land.
Through
her
experiences,
we
learn
about
the
importance
of
living
with
and
accepting
other
cultures.
In Pinocchio,
a
wooden
puppet
(木偶)
turns
into
a
boy
when
he
finally
learns
how
to
tell
the
truth.
Teaching
values
is
the
reason
most
often
given
for
encouraging
children
to
read
stories.
These
fairy
tales
can
teach
children
lessons
about
human
relationships
that
are
accepted
around
the
world
for
many
centuries.
This
might
be
the
reason
why
they
have
been
around
for
so
long
and
will
not
disappear
any
time
soon.
29.
Why
do
fairy
tales
have
a
great
influence
on
children
A.
Fairy
tales
can
teach
them
how
to
make
a
choice.
B.
Fairy
tales
can
help
them
get
higher
scores
at
school.
C.
They
can
learn
how
to
avoid
most
difficulties
in
their
lives.
D.
Good
and
evil
are
shown
in
a
way
they
can
easily
understand.
30. The
Little
Mermaid may
be
helpful
when
children
_____.
A.
are
given
a
difficult
test
B.
make
friends
with
foreigners
C.
wish
to
be
a
princess
or
prince
D.
are
going
to
lie
to
their
parents
31.
The
author
writes
the
text
mainly
to
_____.
A.
introduce
some
fairy
tales
B.
talk
about
the
history
of
fairy
tales
C.
discuss
how
to
improve
human
relationships
D.
show
how
fairy
tales
help
children
shape
values

D
Hi,
everyone!
I
am
Paul
Hawking,
the
trip
leader
for
this
weekend's
activity.
It's
that
time
of
the
year
again
when
the
days
are
long
and
it
is
nice
to
sit
outside
and
enjoy
some
oysters
(牡蛎).
We
plan
to
head
out
to
the Mission Bay this
Sunday
for
a
beach
picnic.
You
can
buy
fresh
oysters
at
the
Mission
Bay
Oyster
Company
and
you
just
need
to
pay
$6
to
$10
for
each
dozen,
depending
on
the
size.
It's
on
Sunday,
June
30.
We
will
meet
at
the Student Center at
9:00
a.m.
and
all
go
together.
The
driving
time
is
one
and
a
half
to
two
hours,
and
the
time
of
return
is
still
uncertain.
Come
and
join
us
in
what
must
now
be
the
4th
or
5th
such
trip
for
the
Outing
Club.
The
oyster
farm
has
a
small
picnic
area
with
chairs
and
barbecue
grills
(烧烤架).
Bring
some
briquettes
(煤球)
if
you
would
like
to
grill.
Except
for
oysters,
oysters
and
oysters,
little
is
available
there,
so
please
bring
your
own
food
and
drinks.
And
of
course,
if
you
have
any
special
oyster
recipes
(食谱),
bring
them,
make
them
and
share
them!
The
weather
forecast
says
it's
going
to
be
sunny
and
around 26℃ this
weekend.
My
telephone
number
is
408-896-3228.
Please
feel
free
to
call
me
if
you
have
any
questions.
Remember
to
finish
your
homework
before
we
leave
for
the
picnic.
32.
On
June
30,
Paul
Hawking
will
_____.
A.
hold
a
meeting
at
the Student Center
B.
arrive
at
the
oyster
farm
at
9:00
a.m.
C.
teach
the
students
to
cook
oysters
D.
take
the
students
for
a
picnic
33.
If
you
buy
24
big
oysters,
you
should
probably
pay
_____.
A.
$6


















B.
$10
C.
$12

















D.
$20
34.
If
you
plan
to
grill,
you
must
bring
_____.
A.
a
BBQ
grill











B.
some
briquettes
C.
your
own
recipes

D.
some
oysters
35.
Where
does
this
text
probably
come
from
A.
A
notice
on
a
school
website.
B.
A
book
on
the Mission Bay.
C.
A
business
newspaper.
D.
A
science
magazine.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Bedrooms
Bedrooms
are
very
important.
In
fact,
you
spend
one
third
of
your
life
in
yours.
This
means
that
you
probably
don't
want
a
boring
bedroom.
You
will
not
want
a
bedroom
full
of
so
many
things
that
you
can't
get
to
your
bed,
or
that
is
painted
in
your
least
favorite
color. 36
When
you
are
designing
(设计)
a
bedroom
and
you
don't
know
what
to
do
with
some
space
in
the
corner,
you
may
want
to
see
if
you
can
fit
in
a
desk
or
a
small
sitting
area. 37 You
might
want
to
fill
this
space
to
get
some
more
storage
(储存)
space
or
have
somewhere
to
have
some
privacy.
Furniture
is
not
the
only
thing
to
consider
when
you
design
your
bedroom. 38 If
you
aren't
sure
what
to
do,
just
keep
your
walls
and
furniture
white,
and
make
sure
that
little
things
are
also
in
the
same
style
(风格).
39 You
can
put
up
dry
erase
boards,
chalkboards,
and
pictures
to
give
your
room
some
style.
You
may
also
want
to
put
in
a
bedside
table.
Those
are
great
ways
to
show
others
some
of
your
favorite
photos
and
lovely
toys.
Finally,
try
to
find
something
that
adds
energy
and
life
to
your
bedroom. 40
A.
You
also
need
to
consider
color.
B.
You
could
also
put
in
a
bookshelf
to
create
space.
C.
Besides,
you
might
have
some
wall
space
to
use
up.
D.
This
means
you
will
need
to
plan
out
your
bedroom.
E.
Don't
choose
a
heavy,
large
bed
for
a
small
bedroom.
F.
Of
course,
plants
help
a
lot
and
they
can
also
keep
the
air
clean.
G.
If
you
love
to
read
in
bed,
a
small
bedside
table
probably
won't
work.

第三部分： 语言知识运用 （共两节，满分45分）
第一节：完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Among
all
seasons
I
like
summer
best.
First
of
all,
summer
is
when
school
is
out
and
I
can
spend
most
of
my
time 41 both
outside
and
in.
My
parents 42 me
to
get
out
in
sunlight
as
much
as
possible.
This
is
fine
since
my
friends
and
I
like
to 43 together.
We
often
go
on
bike
trips,
which
give
us
a
lot
of 44 .
Besides,
there
are
more
daylight
hours
to 45 .
The
sun
stays
out
longer, 46 sometime
after
eight
in
the
evening.
This
means
that
there's
a
lot
more 47 .
I
can
go
swimming
or
just
48
to
get
a
suntan
(日光浴).
I
don't
want
to
do
it
for
too
long, 49 I
don't
want
to
get
burnt.
The
sun
is
the
reason
why
we
often
take
a
walk
outside,
which
I
believe
can
help
us
stay 50 .
The
last
reason
is
that
it's
the 51 time
of
year
for
us
since
we
don't
get
very
much
sunny
weather
where
we 52 .
For
most
of
the
year,
it's
either
cool
and 53 or
cold
and
icy
in
my
country.
We
only
have
three
months
of
reprieve
(缓解)
from
the 54 weather
—
that
is
summer.
When
my
neighbors
and
I
want
to 55 the
summer,
we
go
out,
have
barbecues
or
just
sit
and
talk 56 .
This
is
a
good
thing
to
do
at
night
when
the 57 of
the
day
remains
in
the
air.
58 ,
summer
is
the
time
of
year
that
really
puts
together
everything
I
like
to 59 .
It
is
certainly
the
season
that 60 me
most.
41.
A.
singing
B.
playing
C.
working









D.
studying
42.
A.
force


B.
warn
C.
invite











D.
encourage
43.
A.
go
out

B.
look
back

C.
run
away







D.
stand
up
44.
A.
luck








B.
time

C.
fun












D.
help
45.
A.
keep








B.
enjoy

C.
take











D.
count
46.
A.
finally







B.
possibly
C.
suddenly







D.
usually
47.
A.
sunshine




B.
moonlight
C.
noise









D.
air
48.
A.
run








B.
jump


C.
lie












D.
walk
49.
A.
once







B.
because
C.
unless








D.
although
50.
A.
busy







B.
simple
C.
young









D.
healthy
51.
A.
warmest




B.
quietest
C.
hardest








D.
shortest
52.
A.
get
off






B.
cross
over

C.
come
from






D.
hurry
down
53.
A.
hot









B.
wet

C.
fine











D.
snowy
54.
A.
lovely






B.
clear


C.
freezing







D.
terrible
55.
A.
celebrate





B.
look
for
C.
introduce


D.
wait
for
56.
A.
loudly
B.
bravely
C.
happily

D.
politely
57.
A.
order

B.
heat


C.
story











D.
smell
58.
A.
At
first

B.
In
fact


C.
As
usual


D.
In
short
59.
A.
teach
B.
answer
C.
experience

D.
examine
60.
A.
interests






B.
worries
C.
touches

D.
hurts
第Ⅱ卷
第三部分： 语言知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。
Billy:
It's
great
to
have
the
opportunity
to
see
the
Chinese
acrobatics
(杂技)
performance.
I
like
watching
them
very
much.
Jennifer:
So
61.
________
I.
Which
act
do
you
like
the
most
Billy:
I'm
fond
62.
________
the
magic
show.
Jennifer:
Oh!
It
is
beginning
now.
Is
that
tight-rope
walking
Billy:
I
think
so.
Jennifer:
I
get
nervous
every
time
I
watch
this.
It's
so
63.
________
(danger)
and
hard
for
him
to
balance.
He
may
fall
off
and
hurt
himself.
Billy:
Don't
worry.
It
seldom
64.
________
(happen).
He
has
practiced
a
lot.
Jennifer:
Oh,
he's
65.
________
(final)
finished.
I
heard
66.
________
many
acrobats
started
their
training
when
they
were
very
young.
Billy:
Yes.
It
takes
many
years
of
hard
training
before
they
can
give
67.
________
public
performance.
Jennifer:
Exactly.
And
the
acrobats
have
to
be
cool-headed
68.
________
(succeed)
in
their
performance.
Billy:
That's
true.
By
the
way,
the
clowns
show
is
one
of
my
favorites.
I
69.
________
(come)
to
see
it
next
weekend.
Would
you
like
to
come
with
me
on
that
day
Jennifer:
I'd
love
to,
Billy.
Well,
let's
stop
70.
________
(talk).
There're
many
animals
on
the
stage.
Another
show
is
about
to
begin.
Billy:
OK.
Look!
The
little
dogs
are
so
cute.

第四部分： 写作 （共两节，满分35分）
第一节：短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（＼）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；



2. 只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
Dear
Yang
Hui,
I
heard
you'll
have
a
two-weeks
summer
holiday
and
have
decided
to
visit
as
much
new
places
as
possible.
I
don't
think
it's
a
good
idea.
My
friend
Li
Hua
goes
to Europe last
July.
He
visited
four
countries,
and
stayed
for
only
three
days
in
each
of
the
country.
He
was
always
in
hurry.
Li
Hua
was
neither
on
a
train
or
a
bus
almost
every
day.
When
he
returned
back
from Europe,
he
was
very
tiring.
So
I
suggest
that
he
travel
to
one
country
and
visit
only
one
city.
Choose
a
city
on
the
coast,
or
you'll
be
able
to
have
a
good
rest
at
the
seaside.
Best
wishes!

Yours,


Wang
Feng
第二节：书面表达（满分25分）
假设你叫李华。你的美国朋友Linda发邮件询问你上周末与父母去海边游玩的情况，请你根据以下要点给她回一封电子邮件。
要点如下：

1. 周六早上6点出发；

2. 看日出、捡拾贝壳、游泳、拍照、吃海鲜、买纪念品；

3. 下午5点乘船返回。
注意：1. 词数100左右（开头已给出，但不计入总词数）；


2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
Dear
Linda,
How's
it
going
I'd
like
to
tell
you
about
my
trip
to
the
beach
with
my
family
last
weekend.
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________

Yours,
Li
Hua

参考答案
21-25
ADCBB

26-30
ADCDB
31-35
DDDBA
36-40
DBACF
41-45
BDACB
46-50
DACBD
51-55
ACBDA


56-60
CBDCA
61.
do







62.
of





63.
dangerous
64.
happens

65.
finally

66.
that
67.
a


68.
to
succeed
69.
am
coming
/
will
come
/
am
to
come
/
am
going
to
come
/
shall
come
70.
talking
短文改错：
71.
...
a
two-weeks
summer
...

two-weeks → two-week
72.
...
much
new
places
...

much → many
73.
...
goes
to Europe ...
goes → went
74.
...
of
the
country.
country → countries
75.
...
always
in
hurry.
hurry前加a
76.
Li
Hua
was
neither
...



neither → either
77.
...
he
returned
back
...
去掉back
78.
...
was
very
tiring.

tiring → tired
79.
...
that
he
travel
...

he → you
80.
...
or
you'll
be
...
or → and
One
possible
version:
Dear
Linda,
How's
it
going
I'd
like
to
tell
you
about
my
trip
to
the
beach
with
my
family
last
weekend.
We
set
off
at
six
in
the
morning,
hoping
to
enjoy
the
sunrise.
When
we
arrived,
there
were
already
many
people
there.
The
beautiful
sunrise
impressed
us
very
much.
After
that,
we
joined
those
who
were
picking
up
shells.
The
most
exciting
thing
was
swimming
in
the
sea.
We
enjoyed
the
waves,
which
always
carried
us
back
to
the
beach.
After
having
some
delicious
seafood,
we
bought
souvenirs
for
our
friends.
Besides,
we
took
many
beautiful
pictures.
It
was
five
o'clock
in
the
afternoon
when
we
started
to
return
by
boat.
It
was
a
wonderful
day
and
we
had
great
fun.
How
was
your
weekend
Please
write
to
tell
me.

Yours,

Li
Hua
部分解析
阅读理解：
A篇 (日常活动)
本文是记叙文。作者讲述了自己和丈夫赶飞机的一次不愉快经历。
21.
A。细节理解题。由第一段中的My
husband
had
insisted
on
watering
the
flowers和he
asked
me
for
help可知，A项说法正确。
22.
D。细节理解题。由第二段中的the
plane
hadn't
left
Spain
for
technical
reasons可知，作者的飞机出了故障，故选D项。
23.
C。推理判断题。由最后一段中的Our
plane
had
arrived
and
taken
off
...
we
had
been
forgotten可知，作者可能会很生气，故选C项。
24.
B。主旨大意题。由于飞机延误，作者和丈夫被安排在机场附近的宾馆过夜，然而飞机在夜间抵达时却没有人通知他们，于是他们错过了那趟航班，故选B项。
B篇 (语言学习)
本文是记叙文。文章主要讲述了切罗基语文字的由来。
25.
B。细节理解题。由第一段中的he
asked
one
of
his
customers
to
teach
him可知，B项说法正确。
26.
A。细节理解题。由第二段中的he
...
creating
a
letter
for
each
sound和第三段中的the
eighty-five
sounds
in
the
Cherokee
language可知，他发明的字母表中共有85个字母，故选A项。
27.
D。词义猜测题。由该词后面的Ayoka
was
able
to
repeat
their
words
without
being
present可知，那些长者感到非常惊讶，故选D项。
28.
C。标题归纳题。文章主要讲述了Sequoyah是如何为切罗基族人的口头语言设计出一套实用的书写文字，这是一份无法用价钱来衡量的礼物，故用C项作为标题最恰当。
C篇 (文学)
本文是说明文。作者主要介绍了童话故事对孩子们的积极影响。
29.
D。细节理解题。由第二段中的they
describe
the
two
sides
of
good
and
evil
very
clearly可知，童话故事对孩子们的影响大是因为它们将善恶很直白地呈现给了孩子们，便于他们辨别是非，故选D项。
30.
B。推理判断题。由第三段中的we
learn
about
the
importance
of
living
with
and
accepting
other
cultures可知，当孩子们和外国人结交朋友时，《小美人鱼》会告诉他们如何去接受其它文化，故选B项。
31.
D。写作目的题。总览全文可知，作者主要介绍了童话故事对孩子们的积极影响，故选D项。
D篇 (旅游)
本文是应用文。文章是一则有关野营活动的通知。
32.
D。细节理解题。由第三段中的We
plan
...
for
a
beach
picnic和It's
on
Sunday,
June
30可知，D项说法正确。
33.
D。细节理解题。由第三段中的you
just
need
to
pay
$6
to
$10
for
each
dozen,
depending
on
the
size可知，购买大点的牡蛎，价钱很可能就是十美元一打，购买两打，即二十四只的话，就需要二十美元，故选D项。
34.
B。细节理解题。由倒数第二段中的Bring
some
briquettes
if
you
would
like
to
grill可知，如果打算烧烤的话，应该自带煤球，故选B项。
35.
A。推理判断题。Paul
Hawking通过本文旨在告知学生们周末野餐活动的安排情况，所以这篇文章很可能来自学校网站的通知，故选A项。

七选五：
话题：周围的环境
本文是说明文。文章主要介绍了布置卧室的几种方法。
36.
D。由该空前的This
means
that
...
your
least
favorite
color和下文相关内容可知，D项内容符合此处语境，即：如果你想要一个温馨舒适的卧室，就需要好好规划一下了。
37.
B。由该空前的what
to
do
with
some
space
in
the
corner
...
a
desk
or
a
small
sitting
area可知，在卧室的角落处还可以安置书架，故选B项。
38.
A。由该空后的just
keep
your
walls
and
furniture
white可知，这里是说卧室中的颜色，故选A项。
39.
C。由该空后的You
can
put
up
dry
erase
boards,
chalkboards,
and
pictures可知，这里是说如何布置卧室的墙壁，故选C项。
40.
F。由该空前的try
to
find
something
that
adds
energy
and
life
to
your
bedroom可知，这里是说需要摆放一些植物，故选F项。

完形填空：
话题：自然
本文是议论文。作者主要讲述了自己喜欢夏天的原因。
41.
B。下文的go
on
bike
trips和go
swimming等信息是提示。
42.
D。由下文的This
is
fine可知，父母“鼓励（encourage）”“我”多出去晒太阳。
43.
A。由下文的We
often
go
on
bike
trips可知，“我”和朋友喜欢一起“出去（go
out）”。
44.
C。骑车出去游玩给我们带来很多“快乐（fun）”。
45.
B。日照时间长了，我们就可以好好“享受（enjoy）”了。
46.
D。因为是夏天，所以晚上八点钟后“通常（usually）”还有太阳。
47.
A。上文的The
sun
stays
out
longer是提示。
48.
C。由该空后的get
a
suntan可知是说“躺下（lie）”。
49.
B。该空前后是因果关系，故填because。
50.
D。由该空前的we
often
take
a
walk
outside可知，这样可以使我们保持“健康（healthy）”。
51.
A。由该空后的since
we
don't
get
very
much
sunny
weather和上下文语境可知，对我们来说，这是一年当中“最暖和的（warmest）”时候了。
52.
C。下文的in
my
country是提示。
53.
B。一年当中大部分时间，要么清凉“潮湿（wet）”要么寒冷多冰。
54.
D。由上文的it's
either
cool
...
cold
and
icy可知是“糟糕的（terrible）”天气。
55.
A。由该空后的we
go
out,
have
barbecues可知，“我”和邻居们出去“庆祝（celebrate）”夏天。
56.
C。夏天是作者最喜欢的季节，所以这里应该是吃着烧烤，“快乐地（happily）”聊着天。
57.
B。由上文的The
sun
stays
out
longer可知，到了晚上大气中还有余“热（heat）”。
58.
D。这里是对全文内容的概括总结，故填In
short。
59.
C。夏天有很多“我”喜欢去“体验（experience）”的事情。
60.
A。由文章首句及全文的介绍可知，这（夏天）是一个最“吸引（interests）”“我”的季节。
语法填空：
61.
do。考查倒装。“so+助动词/情态动词+主语”表示前面所说情况也适用于另一人（或物），且结合I
like
watching
them
very
much可知，在此填do。
62.
of。考查介词。be
fond
of 意为“喜爱，喜欢”。
63. dangerous。考查形容词作表语的用法。设空处与hard并列作表语，故填dangerous （危险的）。
64. happens。 考查一般现在时。由语境及seldom可知，设空处应用一般现在时，故填happens。
65.
finally。考查副词。设空处修饰整个句子，意为“终于”，故填副词finally。
66. that。考查连接词。设空处引导宾语从句，又因从句意义及结构均完整，故填that。
67.
a。考查不定冠词。performance作“表演”讲，是可数名词，且在此表示泛指，故填a。
68. to
succeed。考查不定式作目的状语的用法。设空处表示目的，故填to
succeed。
69.
am
coming
/
will
come
/
am
to
come
/
am
going
to
come
/
shall
come。考查一般将来时。由Would
you
like
to
come
with
me
on
that
day可知，设空处表示的动作尚未发生，故填am
coming
/
will
come
/
am
to
come
/
am
going
to
come
/
shall
come。
70.
talking。考查动词-ing形式作宾语的用法。由There're
many
animals
...
begin可知，设空处所在句句意是 “我们快别聊了”。stop
doing
sth.意为“停止做某事”，故填talking。