北京市门头沟区2018届高三上学期期末考试英语试题

门头沟区2018年高三年级期末考试
英 语 2018．1
本试卷共10页，共120分。考试时长100分钟。考生务必将答案答在答题卡上，在试卷上作答无效。考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分：知识运用(共两节，45分)
第一节 单项填空 (共15小题；每小题1分，共15分)
从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
1. This summer holiday, many foreign students _______ to China for a holiday.
A. come B. have come C. had come D. came
2. Huawei Mate 10 is a big beautiful phone, _______ it’s a little expensive.
A. for B. or C. but D. so
3. At present more and more people _______ clothes online to save time and money.
A. bought B. had bought C. will buy D. are buying
4. _______ the flowers every week and they will not get too dry or too wet.
A. Water B. To water C. Watered D. Watering
5. _______ the classroom for a whole afternoon, the monitor decided to have a rest.
A. Having cleaned B. To clean C. Cleaned D. Clean
6. Mrs. Wang helped me a lot with my English last term, _______ made me very moved.
A. who B. where C. which D. when
7. –– Do you think you can pass the exam?
–– En…I’m not sure. It _______ be possible if I work hard.
A. must B. might C. should D. would
8. With the homework _______, the students can go to have a picnic.
A. being done B. done C. doing D. to do
9. _______houses are getting more and more expensive, people want to buy one of their own.
A. As B. When C. Once D. Though
10. Oral English exams _______ in China twice a year to give more chances to the students.
A. has held B. will be held C. will hold D. has been held
11. After a heated discussion, we decided _______ we should buy for the elder people.
A. when B. that C. what D. why
12. I found the film hard to follow because it _______ when I arrived.
A. had begun B. was beginning C. has begun D. would begin
13. When we met again 20 years later, we chatted a lot _______ tea.
A. for B. in C. over D. during
14. We _______ home now if you hadn’t taken the wrong turning.
A. would be B. are C. were D. will be
15. Students surf the internet _______ more information about the university they are dreamt of.
A. found B. finding C. having found D. to find
第二节 完形填空 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，共30分)
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
It was 1959. Life became hard after my husband got killed in a traffic accident. With five children aged from two to seven to take care of, I 16 thought of finding a job. But 17 was running out and Christmas was drawing near. Every child was talking about the present that Santa Claus would bring them. It occurred to me that I had to find a 18 .
I went to almost all the places where I had 19 to get a job. But when the interviewers learned about my case, they 20 me politely. I felt sad and 21 , saying to myself that I would try the last place.
I went into a 24-hour chain restaurant with five children 22 patiently in the car. The manager was an elegant woman of about 40. As I explained my 23 to her, she kept looking out of the window to see all those kids.
Finally she told me she really needed someone but the time was from 11 at night until 7 in the morning and that the pay was one dollar an hour. I accepted the job without hesitation and 24 to do it well. The problem was that I had to find a person to look after my children during my work time. At last I found a teenage girl. I would pay her one dollar for looking after my five children. She seemed 25 with the work because there would be 26 that she needed to do as all my children would be sleeping during the time she “worked”.
The other employees were very friendly and helpful. They knew my 27 situation and often brought some “old” toys from home to give me, of which some were new. It was obvious that they actually bought them for my kids but said they were old in order not to 28 me.
Christmas was only three days away. Everyone was preparing presents 29 their families. But I knew there would be no money for toys for the kids. So, I found some red paint and started repairing and painting some old toys. Then I hid them in the 30 so there would be something for Santa Claus to 31 on Christmas morning.
On the morning of Christmas, I 32 to the car, hoping to get home and get the presents from the basement and place them under the tree before they 33 up. But when I opened the car door, I found my car was filled with boxes of presents for children aged from two to seven. Beside the presents was a 34 saying ”Merry Christmas!” 35 and appreciation filled my heart.
16.
A. never
B. always
C. often
D. sometimes
17.
A. time
B. money
C. water
D. petrol
18.
A. present
B. restaurant
C. job
D. toy
19.
A. offered
B. chosen
C. decided
D. expected
20.
A. accepted
B. refused
C. fired
D. hired
21.
A. careless
B. hopeful
C. helpless
D. cheerful
22.
A. standing
B. waiting
C. laughing
D. crying
23.
A. case
B. kids
C. family
D. husband
24.
A. continued
B. started
C. promised
D. required
25.
A. angry
B. serious
C. unsatisfied
D. happy
26.
A. everything
B. nothing
C. anything
D. something
27.
A. physical
B. mental
C. social
D. financial
28.
A. reward
B. disappoint
C. embarrass
D. satisfy
29.
A. for
B. from
C. with
D. to
30.
A. shelf
B. bed
C. bathroom
D. basement
31.
A. buy
B. sell
C. deliver
D. carry
32.
A. hurried
B. walked
C. went
D. stepped
33.
A. came
B. sat
C. spoke
D. woke
34.
A. note
B. poster
C. bill
D. report
35.
A. Anger
B. Warmth
C. Guilt
D. Pride
第二部分：阅读理解(共两节，40分)
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Successful People
People can succeed in many aspects. Here are some successful people.
Stephen Hawking
Much more than the namesake of Into the Universe with Stephen Hawking, Stephen Hawking is one of the most well-known physicists in the world, and he was able to achieve that in spite of being diagnosed with ALS when he was 21. He can now only speak with the assistance of a computer and has been a full-time power chair-user since the 1980s. His disability, however, has never been an excuse to give up on his desire to study the universe, specifically the framework of general relativity and quantum mechanics. His best-selling book, A Brief History of Time, stayed on the Sunday Times bestsellers list for a surprising 237 weeks.
Franklin Delano Roosevelt
A beloved U. S president who helped guide the nation successfully through World War II, President Franklin Delano Roosevelt is considered a great president and the entire time he was in office, FDR was also a wheelchair-user. Upon starting his political career in excitement, he got illness while drinking water at a campground and became disabled from the waist down. Even though it wasn’t made public until years later that he couldn’t walk for fear of the public doubting his ability, FDR proved disability wasn’t a roadblock to being a great leader.
Marlee Matlin
An Academy Award winning actress for her leading role in Children of a lesser God, Marlee Matlin is one of the most successful actresses who are deaf. She has been deaf since she was 18 months old. She also received a Golden Globe Award for her role in Children of a lesser God. Since receiving her Oscar, Marlee has been a character on many TV shows including The Word and Law & Order: SVU, and has appeared on reality shows such as The Apprentice and Dancing with the Stars.
Steven Wonder
One of the most beloved singers alive today, Stevie Wonder is a musician, singer and songwriter who was born blind. He was born six weeks early. The blood vessels at the back of his eyes had not yet reached the front and stopped their growth, therefore leading to his blindness.
Considered a child talent, Stevie signed with his first record label at age 11, Motown’s Tamla label, and he’s been performing since. Over his wildly successful music career, Stevie has recorded more than 30 U. S. top ten hits, including his singles “Superstition” “Sir Duke” and “ I Just Called to Say I Love You”.
36. A Brief History of Time was written by _______.
A. Stephen Hawking B. Franklin Delano Roosevelt
C. Stevie Wonder D. Marlee Matlin
37. Franklin Delano Roosevelt didn’t get his disability public because _______.
A. he could only speak with the help of a computer
B. he was afraid of the doubt from the public
C. he had no time in the time of war
D. He was a president
38. Marlee Matlin won a Golden Globe Award because of her performance in _______.
A. The Apprentice and Dancing with the Star B. I Just Called to Say I Love You
C. The Word and Law & Order: SVU D. Children of a lesser God
39. What do they have in common?
A. They are all scientists. B. They performed well on stages.
C. They were disabled in some ways. D. They were injured when they do sports.
B
A story of a man who made the brave journey of love, cycling from India to Sweden to see his sweetheart, has gained the hearts of thousands online. A Facebook post, that has been linked more than 113,000 times, shares the tale of how Dr. Pradyumna Kumar Mahanandia crossed eight countries to be reunited with his wife Charlotte Von Schedvin in her native country.
The story began in 1975 when wealthy 19-year-old Charlotte Von Schedvin, who was a student in London at the time, travelled to India in 1975 to meet the poor but famous artist Mahanandia. The Indian was born in 1949 into a poor family in Odisha, Dhenkanal and was considered an untouchable in the society.
Although his family couldn’t afford his education, he managed to gain a place at the College of Art in New Delhi where word of his talent quickly spread.
In events that wouldn’t be out of place in a romantic movie, when the young Charlotte Von Sledvin met with the painter, the two fell in love with one another. He was greatly impressed by her beauty and she, with his pure simplicity. Despite their contrasting backgrounds, the pair shortly married.
In 1978, the time came for Charlotte to return to her native country, and she requested her husband join her back in Europe. However, Mahanandia was in the middle of his studies and said he would join her after these were completed. The couple stayed in touch through letters and despite Charlotte’s offers to send flight tickets, Mahanandia was determined to meet her in his own way.
Selling his belongings, he managed to get enough money to buy a second-hand bike and set out on the intrepid journey to be reunited. From New Delhi, the brave love-struck adventurer entered Afghanistan, Iran, Turkey, Bulgaria, Yugoslavia, Germany, Austria and Denmark. It wasn’t all easy sailing. His bike broke down a lot of times along the way and he had to go on without food for days.
In total the trip took four months and three weeks before he finally reached Gothenburg, Sweden. Upon arrival, he was questioned by immigration officers, who were said to be amazed at his story of devotion after he shared photographs of his marriage.
Her parents welcomed him with open arms and 40 years later, the pair are still happily married. Dr PK Mahanandia serves as the Odiya Cultural Ambassador of India to Sweden and lives with his wife and two children in Sweden. He has become well-known in Sweden as an artist and as an adviser of Art and Culture, under the Swedish Government too.
40. How did Mahanandia and Charlotte meet for the first time?
A.?Mahanandia went to study in the same school with Charlotte.
B. Charlotte travelled to India to meet Mahanandia.
C. Their families arranged the meeting.
D. Mahanandia cycled to Sweden.
41. The underlined word “intrepid” in Paragraph 5 means _______.
A. exciting B. long C. poor D. brave
42. What’s the best title for this passage?
A.?Meet across Boarder. B. A Romantic Story.
C. Journey of Love. D. Mahanandia and Charlotte.
C
Donald Trump has been known to do it in the middle of the night. Kim Kardashian has done it more than 22,000 times. Many people don't understand why you would want to do it at all.
We're talking about tweeting and, unlike posting your entire life on Facebook, this social media activity demands a particular set of skills.
Why use Twitter? It's a way to have a one-on-one virtual connection with your heroes and anybody who interests you. Likewise, you can share your life and views with an almost limitless number of people. And it all has to be done within the limit of 140 characters of text – plus photos, videos and links – which really helps you focus your mind.
Katy Perry has the most Twitter followers, with 95.6 million of the micro-blogging site's 317 million monthly active users. Justin Bieber isn't far behind with 91.5 million, followed by Barack Obama and Taylor Swift with around 83 million each. The heaviest hitters of Twitter are pop stars, heroes of sport and other celebrities. But you don't need to be famous to create a buzz with the right tweets at the right time.
In fact, Katy Perry is a great example of how to do it well. She has a bubbly tweeting style that mashes up chat about her tours and her music, insights into her emotional roller coaster over the US election, and playful descriptions about her daily life. "Done with my Christmas shopping", she tweeted, and posted a link to her Instagram page that featured crazy gadgets like a "pet emergency jacket" and a "chocolate donut camera".
To get started on Twitter, pick a simple, memorable user name like @KatyPerry, post a short profile and choose a photo. Some tips: post your own photo (not a photo of your dog, it's not Facebook) and don't be an "egg person" – referring to the absent egg-shaped image when a user hasn't posted their own picture. In that case, Twitter won't get you any followers or respect.
Then, it's time to start tweeting by sending your updates ("what's happening?") and following people. Building up an army of followers can take time. Generally, the more people you follow and the more you tweet, the more followers you'll get. To become a Twitter star, you need to carve out a reputation for posting original, eye-catching tweets on trending topics – and maximise your visibility by mastering the use of hashtags.
Twitter Analytics will show you how your tweets are performing and who is following you – right down to their age category, country, income bracket, gender and interests. If your popularity is flagging and your Twitter ego is keeping you awake at night, you can turn to the business of buying thousands of "followers" from online sites. But do be ware – there may be a lot of fake profiles in there and, at the end of the day, it'll feel like paying a crowd of people you don't know to come to your birthday party.
Happy tweeting!
43. Twitter is social media activity to _______.
A. share your life and opinion with others B. post your entire life on it
C. make photos and videos D. follow your heroes
44. _______ have the most twitter followers.
A. Heroes of sport B. Most common people
C. Active users D. Katy Perry
45. Paragraph 5 to Paragraph 7 show _______.
A. the advantage of twitter B. the reason to use twitter
C. the skills to use twitter D. the user of twitter
46. You can find this article in the part of _______.
A. Education B. Lifestyle C. Health D. News
D
Are you addicted to computer games? Do you stay up all night playing them? Do you feel happy after you play computer games? There's no doubt that the excitement and appealing of games these days makes them hard to put down. More and more people are attracted by the choice when it comes to gaming: You can role play--creating your own fantasy characters and stories, giving you a chance to step out of everyday life into an imaginary world. And there are shooting games where you can let out your anger and depression in violent situations where you kill people with guns. You can get excited from the games.
However, can these kinds of games really be fun and can being absorbed in virtual reality be good for us? Should we worry about their effects on our health? Popular games like Grand Theft Auto have been blamed for everything from falling results at school to causing acts of extreme violence. Internet safety advisor, Alan MacKenzie, thinks “many people understandably will just think that a game is just a game and not realizing the exact content that’s in there”.?He gives an example of the violence, which he says is “wholly inappropriate for anybody, not to mention children.”
Others will argue that gaming is a harmless form of entertainment. There is evidence that playing video games could actually be good for us. Some games are educational and using games certainly can help children learn good qualities. Studies have also shown that the skills used in playing games can cause growth in certain areas of the brain, the ability to think in 3D and even improve our eyesight.
Video gamers are also no longer just simple creatures. Just as Edward Smith, the professor in Oxford University, puts it that for some, gaming is having a positive effect on their social lives with games like Halo and World of Warcraft often being played in groups. When your group works together to win the game, your sense of achievement is higher than when winning by yourself.
So every coin has two sides. It seems today, gaming isn't just for game fans and if used in a proper way, we can all take part. If video games have two sides, what side do you stand by?
47. The writer used a lot of questions at the beginning to _______.
A. lead into the topic of the passage
B. show his worries about the effect on health
C. doubt the advantage of playing computer games
D. ask the reader for their own opinions about games
48. Paragraph 2 mainly talks about _______.
A. games contain extreme violence
B. the contents of the game are complex
C. gaming is a harmful form of entertainment
D. popular games leads to students’ falling results at school
49. According to Edward Smith, which of the following shows the good influence of the games?
A. Li Hua leant many English words from playing games.
B. Han Meimei failed the exam after playing the games.
C. Yang Li let out his anger and expressions.
D. Sunyan worked well with his teammates.
50. Which of the following shows the development of ideas in this passage?

（I：introduction；P：point；Sp: sub-point; C: conclusion)
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Let’s Go Skiing
Skiing can be a good sport. Here is a list of advice for a new skier. It can also be used by would-be instructors to help you give a beginner the best possible skiing experience.
The biggest complaint of the complete beginner is cold feet. This is because the boots you are using don’t fit. Boots should allow you to shake your toes. 51 But, boots should not allow you to turn your foot side-to-side within the boot. If you can turn your foot inside the boot, you won’t have a chance to control your skis.
Try several pairs of boots ---not every boot marked the same size is actually the same size (even if they are the same brand and model). This extra effort will be annoying, but worth it.
Probably fitting ski boots are warm. Do NOT wear very thick socks, or more than one pair of socks inside your boots. 52 Besides, socks can help here. Bring two pairs of socks for your first outing, a thin pair, and a medium-thick pair. Then choose the socks based on how the boots seem to be fitting. You may even find you wear a thin sock on one foot and a thicker sock on the other because the boots won’t match exactly.
Do NOT wear jeans or sweatpants. You will be falling down in snow and even if it is cold enough to be dry snow, some of it will stick to you and melt. If you get wet, it’s over. There’s no chance to stay warm. I suggest thick ski pants for beginners. The ski pants will also help keep you warm on the lift. Similarly, your jacket should also be waterproof. It doesn’t matter how heavy it is. 53
Keeping warm isn’t so hard. Make sure you read the parts on boots, socks and clothes above. 54 Remember to start out warm. When you go out into the cold, you should be a little too warm, not quite sweating but close. If your body is warm but your neck, nose or ears are cold, it is always because you left them uncovered.
55 If you are sweating a tiny bit, that’s fine. If you are sweating a lot, you are too hot. Your sweat will make parts of you very cold, even while other parts are still too hot. To deal with this, don’t be afraid of opening your coat, or removing your hat or gloves, for just a minute, or for the day.
A. Keeping warm can be difficult.
B. Getting too hot can be a problem too.
C. Wear heavy boots and socks together.
D. All the clothes you wear must be waterproof.
E. If you can’t shake your toes, then your feet will be cold.
F. If you didn’t rent your boots in advance, finding a good fit will be a problem.
G. Apart from this, you have to wear the right amount of clothing and keep moving.
第三部分：书面表达(共两节，35分)
第一节 (15分)
你的英国朋友Jim要参加外国人学唱中国歌曲比赛，有两首歌可以选择：“好一朵美丽的茉莉花”或者“明月几时有”。Jim来信希望你能给些建议。请你给他回信，内容包括：
1．你建议的歌曲；
2．你的理由；
3．你的祝愿。
注意：1. 词数不少于50；
2. 开头和结尾已给出，不计入词数。
提示词：茉莉花：Jasmine Flower 明月几时有：The Mid-Autumn Tune
Dear Jim,
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua

第二节 (20分)
假设你是红星中学高三学生李华，请按照下面四幅图的先后顺序，介绍在“传统文化进校园”活动中，向制作风筝的民间艺术家学习做风筝的过程，并以“A Day with a Craftsman” 给校刊 “英语角” 写一篇英文稿件。
注意：词数不少于60。
门头沟区2018高三年级
英语学科评分标准
第一部分：知识运用(共两节， 45分)
第一节 单项填空(共15小题；每小题1分，共15分)
1-5 DCDAA 6-10 CBBDB 11-15 CACAD
第二节 完形填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分，共30分)
16-20 ABCDB 21-25 CBACD 26-30 BDCAD 31-35 CADAB
第二部分：阅读理解(共两节，40分)
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，共30分）
36-40 ABDCB 41-45 DCADC 46-50 BACDB
第二节（共5小题；每小题２分，共10分）
51-55 EFDGB
第三部分：书面表达(共两节，35分)
第一节：(15分)
评分原则：
1．本题总分为15分，按4个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．评分时应考虑：内容是否完整，条理是否清楚，交际是否得体，语言是否准确。
4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5．词数少于50，从总分中减去1分。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第一档
（13分－15分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容完整，条理清楚；
·交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际对象的需求；体现出较强的语言运用能力。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
（9分－12分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
·内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求；
·所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求；
·语法或用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
（4分－8分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
·内容不完整；
·所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。
未能清楚地传达信息。
第四档
（1分－3分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
·写了少量相关信息；
·语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。
0分
未传达任何信息；所写内容与要求无关。
三、One possible version:
Dear Jim,
I’m happy to receive your letter and know you’re going to participate in the Singing Competition for Foreigners.
Of the two songs Jasmine Flower and The Mid-Autumn Tune, both are highly recommended. Personally, I prefer Jasmine Flower, the sweetest and one of the oldest traditional songs of Chinese folk music. You can appreciate the beauty of the music of China. Moreover, the melody of the song is amazing, with many moving tunes. In addition, it’s also a song accepted by the people all over the world. That’s why I think Jasmine Flower will be a better choice.
Hope you’ll win the award in the competition.
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（20分）
一、评分原则：
1．本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言质量初步确定其档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．评分时应考虑：内容要点的完整性、上下文的连贯性、词汇和句式的多样性及语言的准确性。
4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
5．词数少于60，从总分中减去1分。
二、内容要点：
1、欢迎艺术家
2、教授做风筝
3、练习做风筝
4、户外放风筝
三、各档次的给分范围和要求：
第一档
（18分－20分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
·覆盖了所有内容要点；
·运用了多样的句式和丰富的词汇；
·语法或用词方面有个别错误，但为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致；
体现了较强的语言运用能力；
·有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，所写内容连贯、结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
（15分－17分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
·覆盖了所有内容要点；
·运用的句式和词汇能满足任务要求；
·语法和用词基本准确，少许错误主要为尽可能表达丰富的内容所致；
·使用了简单的语句间连接成分，所写内容连贯。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
（12分－14分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
·覆盖了内容要点；
·运用的句式和词汇基本满足任务要求；
·语法和用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。
基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档
（6分－11分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
·漏掉或未描述清楚主要内容；
·所用句式和词汇有限；
·语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。
未能清楚地传达信息。
第五档
（1分－5分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
·明显遗漏主要内容；
·句式单调、词汇贫乏；
·语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对所写内容的理解。
0分
未能传达任何信息；所写内容与要求无关。
四、One possible version:
Last Tuesday, our class invited an craftsman to teach us how to make kites.
When the craftsman came into the classroom, we gave him a warm welcome . First, he showed us the beautiful kites he had made, which impressed us. Then, he showed the basic steps and skills of making kites. We stood around him and watched attentively. Then we started to have a try on our own. The craftsman walked around and helped us patiently. Finally, we flew the kites together. Looking at the flying kites, we were all very excited.
We hoped we can have more activities of this kind!