2019-2020学年度第二学期期末检测试题
高
一
英
语
2020.07
（本试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟）
选择题部分
第一部分
听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节
(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.
What
is
the
man
doing?
A.
Reading
the
paper.
B.
Having
a
meal.
C.
Watching
TV.
2.
When
will
the
woman
get
her
dress?
A.
Late
in
the
evening.
B.
In
the
afternoon.
C.
Early
the
next
morning.
3.
What
are
the
speakers
mainly
talking
about?
A.
How
to
pass
the
exam.
B.
When
to
finish
the
article.
C.
Where
to
buy
the
magazine.
4.
Where
are
the
two
speakers?
A.
In
a
restaurant.
B.
In
a
hospital.
C.
At
home.
5.
What
does
the
man
imply?
A.
Betty
doesn’t
work
hard.
B.
Betty
went
shopping
yesterday.
C.
Betty
stayed
at
home
yesterday.
第二节(共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.
What
are
the
speakers
doing?
A.
Cooking.
B.
Seeing
a
doctor.
C.
Having
dinner.
7.
What
was
put
on
the
man’s
finger?
A.
Some
ice.
B.
A
bandage.
C.
Some
cream.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8.
What’s
the
probable
relationship
between
the
speakers?
A.
Restaurant
manager
and
customer.
B.
Dentist
and
patient.
C.
Colleagues.
9.
Why
did
the
man
complain?
A.
The
order
was
too
late.
B.
The
food
was
very
bad.
C.
The
waiter
misunderstood
him.
10.
What
does
the
woman
promise
to
do?
A.
Fire
the
waiter.
B.
Have
the
steak
changed.
C.
Let
the
man
eat
the
steak
for
free.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11.
What
does
Alison
dislike
doing?
A.
Meeting
people.
B.
Filing
documents.
C.
Answering
the
phone.
12.
What
does
the
man
advise
Alison
to
do?
A.
Meet
more
people.
B.
Go
into
business.
C.
Get
more
education.
13.
What
will
the
man
probably
do
for
Alison?
A.
Help
her
study.
B.
Get
a
new
job
for
her.
C.
Find
some
information
for
her.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14.
How
long
did
the
man
wait
on
the
playground?
A.
About
20
minutes.
B.
About
15
minutes.
C.
About
5
minutes.
15.
Where
is
Mrs
Smith
now?
A.
In
the
teachers’
office.
B.
On
the
playground.
C.
In
the
classroom.
16.
Whom
does
the
ring
belong
to?
A.
Mrs
Smith.
B.
Mr
Black.
C.
Mrs
Black.
17.
What
will
the
man
do
when
getting
home?
A.
Make
a
phone
call.
B.
Go
to
attend
a
wedding.
C.
Wait
for
the
woman’s
call.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18.
What
is
Mr
Green?
A.
A
teacher.
B.
A
doctor.
C.
A
driver.
19.
When
does
Mr
Green
have
breakfast?
A.
At
6:15.
B.
At
6:45.
C.
At
7:15.
20.
How
does
Mr
Green
go
to
work?
A.
By
car.
B.
By
bus.
C.
By
subway.
第二部分
完形填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Angela
had
a
serious
disease
about
her
nervous
system(神经系统).
She
was
unable
to
walk
and
her
21
was
affected
in
other
ways.
The
doctors
did
not
22
much
hope
of
her
recovering
from
this
illness.
They
forecast
she
would
spend
the
rest
of
her
life
in
a
23
and
said
that
few
were
able
to
come
back
to
normal
after
24
this
disease.
However,
the
little
girl
was
25
.
She
would
tell
others
she
was
26
going
to
be
walking
again
someday.
She
was
sent
to
a
rehabilitation
hospital(康复医院)
in
San
Francisco.
Whatever
treatments
could
be
27
to
her
disease
were
used.
The
doctors
were
28
by
her
optimistic
spirit.
They
taught
her
about
29
seeing
herself
walking.
If
it
did
nothing
else,
it
would
30
give
her
hope
and
something
positive
to
do
in
the
long
waking
hours
in
her
bed.
Angela
would
work
as
hard
as
possible
in
physical
treatment.
She
worked
just
as
hard
31
there
imagining
herself
moving,
moving,
moving!
One
day,
as
she
was
trying
hard
to
imagine
her
32
moving
again,
it
seemed
33
a
miracle(奇迹)
happened:
The
bed
moved!
It
began
to
move
around
the
room!
She
shouted
out
in
34
,
“Look
what
I’m
doing!
Look!
Look!
I
can
do
it!
I
moved,
I
moved!”
In
fact,
it
was
the
recent
San
Francisco
earthquake.
At
that
35
moment,
everyone
else
in
the
hospital
was
shouting
out,
too,
and
running
for
36
.
People
were
shouting,
equipment
was
falling
and
glass
was
breaking.
It
was
an
earthquake.
37
they
had
no
time
to
tell
that
to
Angela.
She
was
38
that
she
did
it.
Only
a
few
years
later,
she
was
back
in
school!
You
see,
anyone
who
can
39
San
Francisco
can
40
a
disease,
can’t
they?
21.
A.
memory
B.
character
C.
hearing
D.
movement
22.
A.
hold
B.
lose
C.
reduce
D.
destroy
23.
A.
school
B.
wheelchair
C.
stadium
D.
workshop
24.
A.
suffering
from
B.
working
out
C.
breaking
down
D.
appealing
to
25.
A.
innocent
B.
humorous
C.
scared
D.
optimistic
26.
A.
simply
B.
usually
C.
certainly
D.
hardly
27.
A.
applied
B.
observed
C.
reflected
D.
ignored
28.
A.
impressed
B.
tricked
C.
puzzled
D.
annoyed
29.
A.
reporting
B.
imagining
C.
cheating
D.
complaining
30.
A.
at
best
B.
at
most
C.
at
worst
D.
at
least
31.
A.
rising
B.
standing
C.
climbing
D.
lying
32.
A.
arms
B.
legs
C.
heads
D.
eyes
33.
A.
even
if
B.
even
though
C.
as
though
D.
so
that
34.
A.
relief
B.
excitement
C.
panic
D.
terror
35.
A.
extreme
B.
only
C.
very
D.
just
36.
A.
hide
B.
trouble
C.
attack
D.
advance
37.
A.
And
B.
So
C.
But
D.
Or
38.
A.
concerned
B.
warned
C.
convinced
D.
blamed
39.
A.
hit
B.
explode
C.
dig
D.
shake
40.
A.
occupy
B.
defeat
C.
explore
D.
cause
第三部分
阅读理解(共三节，满分45分)
第一节
单项选择(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Growing
up,
I
understood
one
thing
about
my
dad:
he
knew
everything.
This
was
our
relationship:
I
asked
him
questions
and
he
told
me
the
answers.
Is
there
really
a
man
in
the
moon?
How
do
sailboats
work?
In
my
teen
years,
he
taught
me
things
I’d
need
to
know
to
survive
in
the
real
world.
How
to
check
your
car.
The
correct
knife
to
bring
along.
When
I
moved
out,
I
called
him
at
least
once
a
week,
usually
when
something
broke
in
my
apartment.
After
I
got
married,
I
needed
him
less
because
I
had
my
husband
and
Google.
When
I
called
our
conversations
changed
into
six
words.
Me:
“Hi,
Dad.”
Him:
“Hi,
sweets.
Here’s
Mom.”
(Because
I
still
needed
her
—
How
do
I
cook
chicken?
Do
I
need
to
call
the
doctor
for
my
daughter’s
fever?)
I
loved
my
dad,
of
course,
but
I
wondered
at
times
if
maybe
he
had
already
shared
everything
I
needed
to
know.
Maybe
I’d
heard
all
his
stories.
Maybe,
after
knowing
a
man
for
30
years,
there’s
nothing
left
to
say.
Then,
this
past
summer,
my
husband
and
I
moved
in
with
my
parents
for
three
weeks
while
our
house
was
being
repaired.
They
own
a
lake
house,
and
Dad
asked
me
to
help
him
repair
the
walls.
I
didn’t
balk
—
it
was
the
least
I
could
do
for
free
rent(房租)
—
but
I
felt
anxious.
It
was
difficult.
We
got
wet
and
sandy.
But
as
we
rebuilt
the
walls,
my
dad
knowing
exactly
what
went
______,
I
looked
at
him.
“How
do
you
know
how
to
build
walls?”
“I
spent
a
summer
in
college
building
them.”
“You
did?”
I
thought
I
knew
everything
about
my
dad,
but
I
never
knew
this.
“Yep.
Now
let
me
teach
you
how
to
use
this
saw(锯子).”
As
he
explained
the
skills,
I
realized
that
maybe
it’s
not
that
there’s
nothing
left
to
say.
Maybe
it’s
just
that
I’ve
spent
my
life
asking
him
the
wrong
questions.
A
few
weeks
later,
after
my
family
moved
back
into
our
own
house,
I
called
my
parents.
Dad
answered.
“Hi,
sweets,”
he
said.
“Here’s
Mom.”
“Wait,
Dad,”
I
said.
“How
are
you?”
We
ended
up
talking
about
work
he
was
doing.
Nothing
life-changing.
To
anyone
else,
it
would
sound
like
a
normal
conversation
between
a
dad
and
his
daughter.
But
to
me,
it
was
a
new
beginning.
I
spent
the
first
part
of
my
life
needing
to
talk
to
my
dad.
Now
I
talk
to
him
because
I
want
to.
41.
It
is
unlikely
that
the
author’s
dad
tried
to
teach
her
_______
when
she
was
a
teenager.
A.
to
swim
in
a
river
B.
to
make
a
fire
safely
C.
to
climb
mountains
D.
to
solve
a
difficult
math
problem
42.
What
does
the
sentence
“Hi,
sweets.
Here’s
Mom.”
mean
in
paragraph
2?
A.
The
father
sounded
like
the
mother
to
make
fun.
B.
The
author
did
not
want
to
speak
to
her
parents.
C.
The
father
then
gave
the
phone
to
the
mother.
D.
The
father
brought
up
the
author
by
himself.
43.
The
underlined
word
“balk”
in
paragraph
3
is
closest
in
meaning
to
______.
A.
shout
B.
refuse
C.
smile
D.
talk
44.
Which
should
we
fill
in
the
blank
in
paragraph
3?
A.
around
B.
by
C.
crazy
D.
where
45.
The
author
wants
to
talk
to
her
father
now
because
_______.
A.
there
is
still
a
lot
left
to
say
B.
the
author
has
to
survive
C.
the
father
asks
her
to
do
that
D.
the
mother
asks
her
to
do
that
B
First
introduced
in
1927,
The
Hardy
Boys
Stories
are
a
series(系列)
of
books
about
the
stories
of
brothers
Frank
and
Joe
Hardy,
teenaged
detectives
who
solve
one
mystery(神秘)
after
another.
The
cover
of
The
Hardy
Boys
says
that
the
author
of
the
series
is
Franklin.
Over
the
years,
though,
many
fans
of
the
books
have
been
surprised
to
find
out
that
Franklin
is
not
a
real
person.
If
Franklin
never
existed,
then
who
wrote
The
Hardy
Boys
Stories?
The
Hardy
Boys
are
written
through
a
process
called
ghostwriting(鬼手写作).
A
ghostwriter
writes
a
book
according
to
a
fixed
formula(公式).
Although
ghostwriters
are
paid
for
writing
the
books,
their
names
do
not
appear
on
the
published
books.
Ghostwriters
can
write
books
for
children
or
adults,
the
content
of
which
is
various.
The
idea
for
The
Hardy
Boys
series
was
developed
by
a
publisher
named
Stratemeyer.
He
noticed
the
increasing
popularity
of
mysteries
among
adults,
and
thought
that
children
would
enjoy
reading
mysteries
about
younger
detectives
of
their
age.
He
first
developed
each
book
with
an
outline(提纲).
Once
having
completed
the
outline,
he
then
hired
a
ghostwriter
to
turn
it
into
a
book
of
over
200
pages.
After
finishing
a
draft(草稿)
of
a
book,
he
or
she
would
send
it
back
to
Stratemeyer,
who
would
make
a
list
of
corrections
and
mail
it
back
to
the
ghostwriter.
The
ghostwriter
would
improve
the
book
according
to
Stratemeyer’s
suggestions
and
then
return
it
to
him.
Once
Stratemeyer
approved
the
book,
it
was
ready
to
be
published.
The
Hardy
Boys
had
a
number
of
different
ghostwriters
producing
books.
However,
the
first
ghostwriter,
Leslie,
proved
to
be
the
most
influential.
Although
he
was
using
prepared
outlines
as
guides,
Leslie
developed
the
characters
through
his
imagination.
He
was
also
responsible
for
the
details
in
the
story.
For
example,
Leslie
created
Bayport,
the
Hardy
Boys’
hometown,
based
on
where
he
grew
up.
Although
The
Hardy
Boys
were
very
popular
with
children,
not
everyone
approved
of
them.
Critics
thought
their
stories
were
not
real,
since
most
teenagers
did
not
have
the
same
experience
as
Frank
and
Joe
Hardy.
Besides,
many
teachers
and
librarians
are
against
the
ghostwriting
process,
saying
it
was
designed
to
produce
books
quickly,
but
not
to
create
quality
literature.
Some
libraries
even
refuse
to
include
the
books
in
their
children’s
collections.
46.
Which
of
the
following
people
was
a
real
ghostwriter?
A.
Franklin
B.
Stratemeyer
C.
Leslie
D.
Joe
Hardy
47.
A
ghostwriter
is
someone
who
_______.
A.
only
writes
loving
stories
for
adults
B.
doesn’t
receive
praise
as
the
author
C.
writes
the
content
of
his
books
freely
D.
doesn’t
receive
money
for
writing
48.
According
to
the
passage,
it
can
be
inferred
that
Leslie
_______.
A.
hated
writing
according
to
a
fixed
formula
B.
didn’t
respect
the
art
of
ghostwriting
C.
was
unsuccessful
in
his
writing
career
D.
was
a
man
of
imagination
and
creativity
49.
Some
teachers
and
librarians
dislike
ghostwritten
books
because
they
_______.
A.
believe
the
books
were
poor
in
quality
B.
consider
mystery
stories
bad
for
adults
C.
think
the
books
were
too
expensive
D.
believe
Stratemeyer
cheated
readers
50.
Which
of
the
following
would
be
the
best
title
for
this
passage?
A.
Ghostwriting:
Create
Quality
Literature
B.
Who
Was
Leslie?
C.
The
Hardy
Boys:
Ghostwriting
a
Series
D.
Why
Were
The
Hardy
Boys
Published?
C
In
recent
years,
experiments
examining
exercise
and
weight
loss
have
found
that
people
lose
far
much
less
weight
than
expected,
considering
how
many
additional
calories(卡路里)
they
are
burning
with
their
workouts.
Scientists
have
guessed
that
exercisers
are
likely
to
become
hungrier
and
eat
more
after
working
out.
They
also
may
sit
longer
when
not
doing
exercise.
Together
or
separately,
these
changes
could
make
up
for
the
extra
energy
used
during
exercise.
To
prove
that
possibility,
scientists
came
up
with
the
idea
of
using
infrared
light(红外线)
to
track
mice’s
movements
in
their
cages.
Then
software
can
use
that
information
to
analyse
their
daily
physical
activity.
So
the
researchers
prepared
special
cages,
putting
inside
some
locked
running
wheels,
and
let
mice
roam(闲逛)
and
explore
for
four
days
in
the
cages.
This
provided
the
researchers
with
information
about
how
many
calories
each
mouse
burned
every
day.
Then
the
wheels
were
unlocked
and
for
nine
days,
the
mice
could
run
at
will,
and
they
could
decide
how
much
to
eat
and
when
to
get
off
the
wheels,
walking
around.
The
mice,which
enjoyed
running,
jumped
readily
on
the
wheels
and
started
to
run.
On
and
off
the
wheels,
they
could
run
for
hours.
They
showed
a
following
height
in
their
daily
energy
expenditure(支出)
since
they
had
added
exercise
to
their
lives.
But
they
did
not
change
their
eating
habits.
Although
they
were
burning
more
calories,
they
did
not
eat
more.
They
did,
however,
change
how
they
moved.
They
now
usually
jogged
on
their
wheels
for
a
few
minutes,
jumped
off,
rested
or
roamed
in
a
while,
and
then
climbed
back
on
the
wheels,
ran,
rested,
briefly
roamed,
and
it
repeated.
These
changes
in
how
they
spent
their
time
almost
counteracted(抵消)
the
extra
calorie
costs
from
running,
says
Daniel
Lark,
who
led
the
new
study.
What
caused
the
running
mice
to
run
less
is
still
uncertain.
“But
it
does
not
seem
to
have
been
tiredness
or
lack
of
time;
wheel
running
is
not
arduous
for
mice,
and
does
not
fill
their
waking
hours.”
Dr.
Lark
says.
Instead,
he
says,
it
is
likely
that
the
animals’
bodies
and
brains
sensed
the
increasing
energy
expenditure
when
the
mice
began
to
run
and
sent
out
biological
signals
that
somehow
advised
the
animals
to
slow
down,
save
energy
and
lose
weight.
Mice
will
never
be
people,
of
course,
so
we
cannot
say
whether
the
results
of
this
would
directly
apply
to
us,
Dr.
Lark
says.
But
the
results
do
indicate
that
if
we
hope
to
lose
more
weight
through,
we
should
watch
what
we
eat
and
try
not
to
move
less
while
we
work
out
more.
51.
What
did
NOT
change
for
the
mice
in
the
experiment?
A.
How
they
moved.
B.
How
long
they
ran.
C.
How
much
they
chose
to
eat.
D.
How
they
spent
their
time.
52.
What
happened
to
the
mice
in
the
experiment
according
to
the
6th
paragraph?
A.
They
didn’t
like
to
run
the
wheels.
B.
They
ate
more
after
running
the
wheels.
C.
They
spent
less
time
roaming
in
the
cage.
D.
They
didn’t
need
rest
after
running
the
wheels.
53.
The
underlined
word
“arduous”
in
paragraph
7
is
closest
in
meaning
to
_______.
A.
tiring
B.
energetic
C.
difficult
D.
different
54.
Which
of
the
following
statements
may
Dr.
Lark
agree
with?
A.
Wheel
running
costs
the
same
amount
of
energy
as
roaming
does.
B.
The
mice
ran
more
because
they
really
wanted
to
lose
weight.
C.
The
experiment
is
a
failure
because
the
results
don’t
apply
to
humans.
D.
It
might
not
be
tiredness
that
caused
the
mice
to
run
less.
55.
The
purpose
of
writing
this
passage
is
_______.
A.
to
prove
that
scientists’
guess
about
exercising
is
wrong
B.
to
introduce
a
recent
research
on
exercise
and
weight
loss
C.
to
analyze
how
wheel
running
changes
mice’s
movements
D.
to
explain
why
eating
and
running
are
bad
for
exercisers
第二节
七选五阅读
(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Camping
is
a
great
way
to
enjoy
nature.
You
can
breathe
fresh
air,
cook
over
a
campfire
and
sleep
under
the
stars.
However,
camping
also
means
various
troubles,
including
dealing
with
bugs,
bad
weather
and
few,
if
any,
toilets.
56
But
there
is
a
way
to
enjoy
the
natural
world
without
giving
up
the
comforts
at
home.
It’s
called
glamping,
and
interest
in
it
has
been
growing
since
2007!
Glamping,
made
up
by
joining
the
words
glamorous(有魅力的)
and
camping,
is
a
new
word.
57
Since
around
600
B.C.
Nomadic
Mongolians
have
enjoyed
the
benefits
of
glamping.
Their
tents
were
so
comfortable
that
they
inspired
the
design
of
modern
glamping
tents!
There
are
many
reasons
why
you
should
consider
glamping
for
your
next
vacation.
One
of
them
is
that
glamping
gives
you
access
to
some
beautiful
places.
58
Nowadays,
glamping
can
be
less
expensive
than
staying
in
a
hotel,
but
you
can
still
enjoy
the
modern
comforts
of
a
hotel!
59
Glampsites
often
use
eco-friendly
materials
and
avoid
using
much
plastic.
So,
there
is
less
waste,
and
the
area
stays
beautiful.
No
matter
what
kind
of
experience
you’re
looking
for,
a
glampsite
exists
for
you.
From
Three
Camel
Lodge
in
Mongolia
to
Clayoquot
Wilderness
Resort
in
Canada,
adventure
is
waiting
for
you.
Sites
can
include
a
spa,
a
swimming
pool
and
dinner
under
the
stars.
Activities
can
include
exploring
on
horseback
or
camel
and
sightings
of
elephants,
mountain
sheep
or
tigers.
60
第三节
《黑布林》阅读（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据《黑布林》小说内容，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
61.
Which
statement
is
true
according
to
“The
Boy
who
could
fly”?
A.
Michael
had
a
pair
of
wings
when
he
was
born.
B.
When
in
hospital,
doctors
gave
Michael
series
of
training
to
enable
him
to
fly.
C.
Michael
enjoyed
his
stay
in
the
hospital
because
he
was
taken
good
care
of.
D.
Everyone
was
happy
when
Michael
returned
home
from
the
hospital.
62.
Why
did
Wilson,
Peters
and
Hunter
kidnap
Michael?
A.
They
wanted
to
make
more
films
about
Michael.
B.
They
wanted
to
ask
Sarah
and
George
for
a
large
sum
of
money.
C.
They
wanted
to
find
out
why
he
could
fly.
D.
They
wanted
Michael
to
steal
something
for
them.
63.
What’s
in
the
“Lion”
envelop
that
Michael
got
from
the
office?
A.
Some
government
secrets
that
the
terrorists
want.
B.
A
check
with
a
large
sum
of
money.
C.
A
tracking
device
to
ensure
his
safety.
D.
A
letter
to
Michael
from
the
police.
64.
What
can
we
learn
from
“The
Call
of
the
Wild”?
A.
Buck
lived
a
happy
life
with
Judge
Miller.
B.
The
law
of
club
and
tooth
was
made
by
the
owner
of
the
dog
team.
C.
The
primitive
beast
inside
Buck
was
hidden
until
Thornton’s
death.
D.
Buck
was
always
gentle
and
friendly
to
other
dogs.
65.
What
led
to
the
failure
of
Hal,
Charles
and
Mercedes?
A.
That
winter
was
too
cold,
and
there
was
too
much
snow.
B.
They
didn’t
bring
enough
food.
C.
There
had
fewer
dogs
than
they
actually
need.
D.
They
lacked
order
and
discipline.
第四部分
语言运用(共三节，满分25分)
第一节
单项填空(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
阅读下面各题，从题中所给的
A、B、C、D
四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
66.
A
U.S.
company
has
developed
facial
_______
software
that
can
help
police.
A.
recognition
B.
recommendation
C.
representation
D.
reality
67.
This
new
technology
will
make
a
great
_______
to
the
development
of
Chinese
communication
industry.
A.
comprehension
B.
contribution
C.
composition
D.
conclusion
68.
Take
the
medicine
three
times
a
day.
_______
your
doctor
if
the
pain
continues.
A.
Defend
B.
Accuse
C.
Consult
D.
Challenge
69.
The
Dragon
Boat
Festival
is
_______
a
Chinese
poet,
Qu
Yuan.
A.
in
memory
of
B.
in
favour
of
C.
in
charge
of
D.
in
case
of
70.
Jack
_______
in
the
lab
when
the
electricity
went
out.
A.
works
B.
has
worked
C.
was
working
D.
would
work
非选择题部分
第四部分
语言运用(共三节，满分25分)
第二节
单句填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
根据所给句子和所学语法知识填空，每空仅填一词。
71.
The
countries
should
work
together
to
find
▲
will
be
the
best
approach
to
treating
COVID-19.
72.
The
prize
will
go
to
the
writer
▲
story
shows
the
most
imagination.
73.
As
the
saying
goes,
▲
is
no
use
crying
over
spilt
milk.
74.
Many
black
American
people
live
in
poverty.
The
situation
will
not
change
much
▲
the
government
takes
effective
measures.
75.
A
good
coach
always
stays
calm
in
a
game
because
anger
can
lead
to
▲
(make)
wrong
strategies.
76.
It
was
not
until
I
got
home
▲
I
realized
that
I
had
left
my
bag
at
school.
77.
With
all
the
problems
▲
(settle),
the
chairman
announced
the
meeting
was
over.
78.
Whether
we
can
raise
enough
money
to
carry
out
the
project
▲
(remain)
to
be
discussed.
79.
There
is
no
doubt▲
near-sightedness
is
a
serious
problem
among
the
youth
in
our
country.
80.
Not
his
carelessness
but
the
bad
road
conditions
▲(be)
responsible
for
the
accident
yesterday
第三节
短文填空(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
A
king
offered
a
prize
to
the
artist
81
would
paint
the
most
impressive
picture
of
peace.
The
82
(compete)
was
heated
as
many
artists
tried.
The
king
looked
at
all
the
pictures,
of
which
only
two
he
really
liked,
and
he
had
to
choose
between
them.
One
picture
was
of
a
calm
lake
83
(perfect)
reflecting
towering
mountains
all
around
it.
Overhead
was
a
blue
sky
with
white
clouds.
What
the
king
84
(see)
in
the
other
picture
were
bare
mountains,
and
above
was
an
angry
sky,
from
which
rain
fell
85
(constant).
Down
the
side
of
the
mountain
tumbled(翻滚)
a
huge
waterfall,
which
did
not
look
86
(peace)
at
all.
Looking
closely,
the
king
saw
behind
the
waterfall
a
tiny
bush
growing
in
a
rock.
In
the
bush
87
bird
had
built
her
nest.
There,
in
the
middle
of
the
rush
of
angry
water,
sat
the
bird
on
her
nest
—
in
perfect
peace.
All
who
saw
this
picture
thought
that
the
first
picture
was
better,
88
the
king
preferred
the
second
one.
“Because,”
explained
the
king,
“peace
does
not
mean
a
place
where
there
is
no
noise,
trouble,
or
hard
work.
Peace
means
89
(be)
in
the
middle
of
all
those
things
and
still
be
calm
in
your
heart.
That
is
the
real
90
(significant)
of
peace.”
第五部分
书面表达(满分20分)
91.
请阅读下面内容,
按照要求写一封书信。
Despite
being
asked
to
stay
safe
during
the
outbreak(爆发)
of
the
novel
coronavirus(新型冠状病毒),
students
and
teachers
across
the
country
can
keep
themselves
busy
with
classes
online.
A
student
used
a
mobile
phone
to
attend
an
online
class
at
home
in
the
Inner
Mongolia
Autonomous
Region
in
April.
His
home
was
recently
connected
to
the
Internet.
[Xinhua]
DingTalk,
a
virtual
workplace
developed
by
Alibaba
Group,
held
online
classes
for
about
50
million
students
nationwide,
from
primary
to
high
school
level.
Physics
teacher
Zhao
Chuanliang
gave
an
online
class
to
his
students
at
Henan
Experimental
Middle
School
in
Zhengzhou
on
Sunday.
[Xinhua]
【写作内容】假设你是李华，按照要求，用英语给英语老师写一封信，汇报今年寒假期间的网络课程学习情况，内容包括：
1.你和同学在网络课程期间的真实表现，包括上课与平时作息等；
2.寒假网络课程期间父母如何关心你的学习；
3.这次网络课程给你的感受。
【写作要求】
1.词数为120左右，写三段；
2.书信开头和结尾已经写好，不计入总词数；
3.不能直接引用原文语句，作文中不能出现真实姓名和学校名称。
【评分标准】
内容完整，语言规范，语篇连贯，词数适当。
Dear
Sir，
I
am
writing
to
report
my
online
lessons.
▲
Yours
Sincerely,
Li
Hua
2019-2020学年度第二学期期末检测试题
高
一
英
语
答
案
及
解
析
第一部分
听力（共两节，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5
ABBAC
6-10
AAABB
11-15
BCCBA
16-20
CABBA
第二部分
完形填空(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
21-25
DABAD
26-30
CAABD
31-35
DBCBC
36-40ACCDB
第三部分
阅读理解(共三节，满分45分)
第一节
单项选择(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)
41-45
DCBDA
46-50
CBDAC
51-55
CCADB
第二节
七选五
(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
56-60
DEBGC
第三节
《黑布林》阅读
（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
61-65
BDCAD
第四部分
语言运用(共三节，满分25分)
第一节
单项填空
(共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
66-70
ABCAC
第二节
单句填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
71.
what
72.
whose
73.
it
74.
unless/until
75.
making
76.
that
77.
settled
78.
remains
79.
that
80.
were
第三节
短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
81.
who/that
82.
competition
83.
perfectly
84.
saw
85.
constantly
86.
peaceful
87.
a
88.
but
89.
being
90.
significance
第五部分
书面表达
(120词，满分20分)
（A
possible
version）
Dear
Sir，
I
am
writing
to
report
my
online
lessons.
From
Monday
through
Friday,
I
got
up
at
seven
and
logged
onto
DingTalk
to
attend
online
lessons.
I
was
active
in
communicating
with
teachers,
for
they
couldn’t
see
me
online.
Some
of
my
classmates,
though,
paid
little
attention
to
courses,
busy
chatting
or
posting
messages
or
clicking
likes
during
live-streaming
lessons.
My
parents
were
under
pressure
as
they
wanted
to
monitor
me
at
home
to
ensure
I
was
not
distracted
by
games
while
attending
online
classes.
Now
I
am
at
school
and
their
life
is
back
to
normal.
Online
courses
are
as
effective
as
face-to-face
lessons
at
school.
For
me,
every
minute
of
the
online
courses
counts,
since
the
national
college
entrance
examination,
determining
which
university
I
can
attend,
may
have
lifelong
consequences.
Thank
you
for
reading
my
letter.
Best
wishes!
Yours
sincerely,
Li
Hua
附录一
书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
1.
本题总分为20分，按5个档次给分。
2.
评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言（内容要点、词汇运用和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性）初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分（如通篇文章层次不清、句型单调、无关联词、逻辑混乱，则降档处理）。
3.
全文少于100词或多于140词，从总分中减去2分。
4.
如仅开头一段和最后一段切题，中间部分从阅读理解中抄一段则判0分。
5.
语言形式错误分为大错和小错。大错包括“时态、语态、主谓一致”等，1个大错扣1分。小错包括“单词拼写错误、小品词用法错误”等，3个小错相当于1个大错。
6.
写作没有分段，从总分中减去2分。
二、评分要点
1）你和同学在网络课程期间的真实表现，包括上课与平时作息等（8分）。
2）寒假网络课程期间父母如何关心你的学习（6分）。
3）这次网络课程给你的感受（4分）。
4）书写（2分）。如书写较差，以致影响表达，将分数降低一个档次。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档
（很好）
（17—20分）
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点。
语法结构和词汇有个别小错误，但为尽量使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
有效地使用了衔接手段，全文结构紧凑，内容连贯。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档
（好）
（13—16分）
完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一、二个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
语法结构和词汇方面应用基本准确，少许错误主要是因为尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
应用简单的语句间的衔接手段，全文结构紧凑，内容较连贯。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
（中等）
（9—12分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容，但基本覆盖主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
应用简单的衔接手段，内容基本连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
（较差）
（5—8分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未清楚描述某些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
语法结构单一，所用词汇有限。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对所写内容的理解。
较少使用衔接手段，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
（差）
（1—4分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
语法结构单一，所用词汇不当。
有较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响内容理解。
缺乏语句间的衔接手段，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；所写内容均与试题要求内容无关或无法看清；作文中有不恰当内容。
附录二
听力原文
Text
1
W:
Have
you
finished,
John?
Sunday
is
the
only
day
I
have
time
to
read
the
paper.
You
read
it
every
day.
M:
Well,
here
you
are.
Watching
TV
is
a
good
choice
for
me.
Text
2
W:
When
will
my
dress
be
ready?
M:
Well,
it’s
twelve
o’clock
now.
I
think
it
will
be
ready
in
a
couple
of
hours.
Text
3
M:
Have
you
finished
that
article
you
promised
to
do
for
our
magazine?
W:
I
won’t
be
able
to
get
to
it
until
after
my
exams
if
that’s
OK
with
you.
Text
4
M:
Now,
take
the
menu
and
choose
whatever
you
like.
It’s
on
me.
W:
Oh,
it’s
very
kind
of
you.
But
I
really
don’t
feel
like
eating
anything
now.
Text
5
W:
Didn’t
Betty
go
shopping
with
you
yesterday?
M:
Even
if
she
hadn’t
had
a
lot
of
studying,
she
would
have
preferred
to
stay
home
than
go
shopping.
Text
6
W:
Well,
the
salad’s
almost
ready.
How’s
the
steak
going?
I’m
starving.
M:
So
am
I.
The
steak
looks
just
about
ready.
Just
one
minute.
Ouch!
W:
What’s
the
matter?
M:
Oh,
my
finger!
I
burned
my
finger!
W:
Oh,
wait!
Don’t
touch
it!
I’ll
get
some
ice
and
put
it
on
your
finger.
M:
OK.
W:
There!
How
does
it
feel?
M:
Oh,
I
feel
much
better.
The
ice
really
works.
Thanks.
Text
7
M:
Manager!
W:
You
asked
to
see
me,
Sir?
M:
I
certainly
did.
I’m
not
at
all
satisfied
with
the
service
you
provided
here.
W:
Perhaps
you
could
tell
me
what
the
problem
is
exactly?
M:
It’s
my
extra
thick
steak.
W:
What’s
wrong
with
it,
Sir?
M:
It’s
like
old
leather!
It’s
enough
to
break
every
tooth
in
your
head.
When
I
complained
to
your
waiter,
he
didn’t
take
any
notice.
It
is
unbelievable.
If
I
hadn’t
experienced
that,
I
couldn’t
have
imagined
such
a
thing
happening
in
this
noble
restaurant.
W:
I’m
extremely
sorry,
Sir.
I’m
sure
that
the
waiter
didn’t
mean
to
be
rude.
Perhaps
he
didn’t
understand
you
correctly.
He
should
have
changed
it.
M:
Well,
why
didn’t
he?
W:
A
misunderstanding,
Sir.
I’ll
have
the
steak
changed
immediately.
Text
8
M:
How’s
the
new
job,
Alison?
W:
Well,
I’m
terribly
busy.
Every
day
I
meet
lots
of
people.
And
I
do
lots
of
typing
and
filling,
too.
M:
Don’t
you
like
being
a
receptionist?
W:
Oh,
I
enjoy
meeting
people.
And
I
like
answering
the
phone.
But
I
hate
typing,
and
can’t
stand
filing.
M:
You
could
go
to
college,
you
know.
Why
don’t
you
study
for
a
year?
W:
What
do
you
mean?
M:
I
mean,
you
could
do
a
course
in
business
studies.
After
a
year,
you
will
get
a
certificate.
Then
you
can
apply
for
lots
of
different
jobs.
W:
That’s
a
good
idea.
I
like
studying.
M:
Why
don’t
you
get
some
information
from
the
universities?
I
can
help
you.
W:
That’s
really
kind
of
you.
Text
9
W:
What
do
you
have
there
in
your
hand,
Ted?
M:
It’s
a
diamond
ring.
Look!
How
beautiful
it
is!
W:
It
sure
is.
Where
did
you
get
it?
M:
I
found
it
on
the
playground
of
the
school
about
20
minutes
ago.
I
waited
there
for
about
15
minutes,
but
nobody
came
to
look
for
it.
W:
So
what
will
you
do
with
it?
M:
I
think
it
must
belong
to
one
of
our
teachers.
I’ll
go
to
the
teachers’
office
to
ask
Mrs
Smith
whether
she
has
seen
this
ring
before.
W:
Let
me
have
a
better
look
at
it.
Oh,
I
think
I
have
seen
this
ring
before.
M:
Really?
Where?
W:
I
can’t
remember
now,
but
I’m
sure
it
looks
familiar.
Let
me
think
for
a
while...
Oh,
now
I
know
whom
it
belongs
to.
M:
Great!
W:
It
belongs
to
Mrs
Black.
She
got
married
last
year.
It’s
her
wedding
ring.
You
can
give
her
a
phone
call
and
ask
her
if
she
has
lost
her
ring.
M:
That’s
a
good
idea.
I’ll
do
that
as
soon
as
I
get
home.
W:
Keep
me
updated.
Text
10
Mr
Green
is
a
dentist.
Most
of
his
patients
are
children.
Children
like
to
come
to
his
office.
He
tells
them
about
their
teeth.
He
cleans
their
teeth
well.
He
also
takes
care
of
their
teeth
and
fixes
their
broken
teeth.
Then
he
gives
them
a
small
gift.
Mr
Green
lives
in
Olney.
That’s
a
small
town
near
Washington
DC.
But
his
dental
office
is
in
Washington
at
1616
Jefferson
Street.
He
gets
up
at
6:15
every
morning.
He
eats
breakfast
at
6:45
and
leaves
for
work
at
7:15.
He
drives
to
work
and
keeps
his
car
in
a
parking
lot
on
Madison
Street.
He
gets
to
his
office
at
about
8:00.
Dentists
earn
a
lot
of
money,
and
they
also
have
a
lot
of
responsibilities.
附录三
答案解析
一、完形填空
本文是一篇记叙文。小女孩Angela患有严重的神经系统疾病，医生对她的康复没抱多大希望。但Angela非常乐观，她相信自己总有一天会重新行走。一天，她惊奇地发现她的腿能动了，为此她欢欣无比。Angela对自己的成功坚信不疑，没有人告诉她那实际是一次地震带来的震动。几年后她真的靠自己的双腿重新走进学校。安吉拉的故事告诉读者：怀有坚定的信念与希望的人终会成功。
21.
D
考查名词辨析。
A.
memory
记忆；
B.
character
性格；C.
hearing听觉；D.
movement活动。
Angela患有严重的神经系统疾病，她不能走路，由此推断出她其它的行动也受到限制。
22.
A
考查动词辨析。A.
hold怀有，持有；B.
lose
失去；C.
reduce减少；D.
destroy
摧毁。下文提及“few
were
able
to
come
back
to
normal”，所以医生对安吉拉的康复不抱希望。
23.
B考查名词辨析。B.
wheelchair轮椅；C.
stadium体育场，运动场；D.
workshop车间，作坊。医生对她的康复不抱希望，他们预测她将在轮椅上度过余生。
24.
A
考查动词短语辨析。A.
suffering
from
遭受，蒙受；B.
working
out
锻炼，成功地发展，计算，解决；C.
breaking
down出故障，失败，垮掉；D.
appeal
to
上诉，吸引，呼吁。”suffer
from
this
disease”
患有疾病。
25.
D
考查形容词辨析。A.
innocent清白的，纯真的；B.
humorous幽默的；C.
scared惊恐的；D.
optimistic乐观的
26.
C
考查副词辨析。A.
simply仅仅，确实；B.
usually
通常；C.
certainly无疑，肯定；D.
hardly几乎不。小女孩非常乐观，她相信自己总有一天会重新行走。
27.
A
考查动词辨析。
A.
applied应用，申请；B.
observed观察，评论，遵守；C.
reflected反映，反射；D.
ignored
忽视，不理会。“be
applied
to”应用于。所有可能的治疗手段都被应用于她的疾病。
28.
A
考查动词辨析。
A.
impressed留下深刻印象；B.
tricked欺骗；C.
puzzled使困惑；D.
annoyed
使烦恼;
令人讨厌。她顽强的精神打动了医生。
29.
B
考查动词辨析。A.
reporting报告；B.
imagining想象；C.
cheating欺骗；D.
complaining抱怨。这里是原词复现，下文多次出现“imagine”一词。句意：医生教她想象自己能够走路。
30.
D
考查介词短语辨析。at
best充其量；.
at
most至多；at
worst往最坏处说，充其量；at
least至少。句意：想象自己能够走路，即使没有效果，至少给她一些希望，让她有积极的事情可做。
31.
D
考查动词辨析。由上文“in
the
long
waking
hours
in
her
bed”可知她躺在床上想象自己的腿能动。
32.
B
考查名词辨析。由上文医生教她想象自己会走路，可知此处表示她想象自己的腿能够移动。
33.
C
考查连词辨析。A.
even
if即使；B.
just
as正如；C.
as
though好像；D.
so
that以便，结果是。句意：好像一个奇迹发生了。
34.
B
考查名词辨析。她以为自己的腿真的能够动了，所以她兴奋地尖叫。
35.
C
考查形容词辨析。very
正是的，恰好的，
at
this
very
moment
就在这一刻
36.
A
考查名词辨析。由“It
was
the
recent
San
Francisco
earthquake”，可知地震发生了，人们奔跑躲藏。
37.
C
考查连词辨析。此处表示转折,因此选择“but”。
38.
C
考查形容词辨析。“convinced”坚信，深信。Angela坚信她确实做到了。
39.
D
考查动词辨析。“shake”摇动。
40.
B
考查动词辨析。“defeat”击败。句意：你瞧，能够摇动旧金山大地的人，就一定能战胜疾病。
二、阅读理解
A篇
本文讲述了作者从童年到成年与父亲沟通的过程。
41.
选D。根据第一段末尾的In
my
teen
years,
he
taught
me
things
I’d
need
to
know
to
survive
in
the
real
world.
How
to
check
your
car.
The
correct
knife
to
bring
along.可知，父亲教她的都是一些和在真实世界生存有关的最实用的知识，ABC都属于基本技能，因此选择D项。
42.
选C。第二段中的Because
her,
I
still
needed—How
do
I
cook
chicken?
Do
I
need
to
call
the
doctor
for
my
daughter’s
fever?表明了作者在婚后有不少问题要向母亲请教，而问父亲的不多了（I
loved
my
dad,
of
course,
but
I
wondered
at
times
if
maybe
he
had
already
shared
everything
I
needed
to
know.
Maybe
I’d
heard
all
his
stories.
Maybe,
after
knowing
a
man
for
30
years,
there’s
nothing
left
to
say.）因此，打电话的时候，作者的父亲已经习惯于在问候一句后就把电话交给作者母亲接听了。
43.
选B。根据第三段的They
own
a
lake
house,
and
Dad
asked
me
to
help
him
repair
the
walls.
I
didn’t
balk—it
was
the
least
I
could
do
for
free
rent—but
I
felt
anxious.
It
was
difficult.可知，父母拥有一个湖边房屋，父亲让我帮他修墙，我没有balk，因为我免费租住在父母处，这也是我能做的最基本的事情了，但是我感到焦虑，因为这样的活比较难。由此可以推测，作者同意了父亲让她修墙的要求，没有拒绝。
44.
选D。根据第三段的But
as
we
rebuilt
the
walls,
my
dad
knowing
exactly
what
went
______,
I
looked
at
him.
“How
do
you
know
how
to
build
walls?可知，我们在砌墙的时候，父亲准确地知道什么材料应该放在什么地方，于是作者就看着父亲问道“您怎么知道如何砌墙（什么东西放在哪里）的呀？”
45.
选A。根据第四段末尾的As
he
explained
the
skills,
I
realized
that
maybe
it’s
not
that
there’s
nothing
left
to
say.以及第五段末尾的But
to
me,
it
was
a
new
beginning.
I
spent
the
first
part
of
my
life
needing
to
talk
to
my
dad.
Now
I
talk
to
him
because
I
want
to.可知，作者的父亲仍然有很多不为女儿知道的技能和知识，作者和父亲之间并非真的没有话题可以交流了。作者和父亲的交流，以前（小时候）是出于需要，现在出于内心（想要和父亲交流）。
B篇
本文介绍了The
Hardy
Boys
Stories系列书和它的代写创作过程。
46.
选C。根据第四段前两句The
Hardy
Boys
had
a
number
of
different
ghostwriters
producing
books.
However,
the
first
ghostwriter,
Leslie,
proved
to
be
the
most
influential.可知，Leslie是The
Hardy
Boys系列第一本书的真正作者。
47.
选B。根据第二段中Although
ghostwriters
are
paid
for
writing
the
books,
their
names
do
not
appear
on
the
published
books.一句可知，ghostwriters(影子写手)的名字不会出现在出版的书上，因此他们也得不到应有的褒奖。
48.
选D。根据第四段Leslie
developed
the
characters
through
his
imagination.
He
was
also
responsible
for
the
details
in
the
story.
For
example,
Leslie
created
Bayport可知。
49.
选A。根据最后一段中的saying
it
was
designed
to
produce
books
quickly,
but
not
to
create
quality
literature.
Some
libraries
even
refuse
to
include
the
books
in
their
children’s
collections可知。
50.
选C。本文介绍了The
Hardy
Boys这套书以及它的创作过程（请人捉刀代写）和对这套书的评价。选项C最符合全文意思。
C篇
本文讲述了用转轮对老鼠进行实验，分析运动达不到预期减肥效果的原因。
51.
选C。根据第六段中的Although
they
were
burning
more
calories,
they
did
not
eat
more可知。
52.
选C。根据第六段中They
did,
however,
change
how
they
moved.
They
now
…
rested
or
roamed
in
short
periods,
and
then
…
briefly
roamed,
and
repeated.可知，解锁转轮后，老鼠闲逛的时间变短了。
53.
选A。把划线词的句子与前一句But
it
does
not
seem
to
have
been
tiredness
or
lack
of
time对照，可知arduous指的是tiredness，可推知arduous意为“费力的”。
54.
选D。根据第七段的What
caused
the
running
mice
to
run
less
is
still
uncertain.
“But
it
does
not
seem
to
have
been
tiredness
or
lack
of
time可知。
55.
选B。通读全文，可知文章介绍了最近的一个关于运动和减肥关系的研究实验。
三、七选五
56.
选D。空格处与后一句是转折关系。空格后一句说有一种不必舍弃舒适而能欣赏自然美景的方法。根据句子逻辑可知，空格处应该是露营的种种不便使人们不愿去露营。选项D中的troubles指的是前一句中露营的种种缺点。
57.
选E。根据空格后一句游牧的蒙古人从公元前六世纪就开始glamping了，可知glamping这种露营方式已经存在了许多世纪。
58.
选B。空格前一句中的wonderful
places就指选项中的beauty，空格后面内容又说glamping比住宾馆便宜，同时又能享受宾馆你的现代化的舒适设施，故选B。
59.
选G。本题是段落主旨句。本段讲述了glamping能保护环境，选项G符合段落内容。
60.
选C。本段提到了蒙古和加拿大的glampsites,
对应选项中的all
over
the
world；又列举了spa,
a
swimming
pool
and
dinner
under
the
stars,
exploring
on
horseback
or
camel,
sightings
of
elephants等各种活动，对应选项中的a
wide
variety
of
glamping
experiences。
