2021届高三年级第一学期期中调研考试
英语试题
（考试时间：120分钟
试卷满分：150分）
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分
听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的
A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例：How
much
is
the
shirt?
A.?19.15.
B.
?9.15.
C.
?9.18.
答案是B.
1.What
will
the
woman
do
tomorrow?
A.
Give
money
to
the
charity.
B.Go
on
a
charity
walk.
C.Visit
the
flood
victims.
2.When
will
the
woman
be
back?
A.
7:30.
B.
7:00.
C.8:00.
3.What
is
the
woman
doing?
A.
Returning
a
piece
of
clothing.
B.Looking
for
a
T-shirt.
C.Buying
a
picture.
4.Where
did
the
man
go
last
Saturday?
A.To
the
seaside.
B.To
the
cinema.
C.To
the
country
park..
5.What
is
the
possible
relationship
between
the
speakers?
A.
Husband
and
wife.
B.Doctor
and
patient.
C.Colleagues.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的
A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.
Why
isn't
the
man
impressed
with
Peter?
A.
He
lacks
work
experience.
B.He
has
no
good
qualifications.
C.He
isn't
enthusiastic
enough
in
work.
7.Who
will
probably
be
the
right
person
for
the
job?
A.Jenny.
B.John.
C.Paula.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8.What
is
the
woman?
A.A
producer.
B.A
hostess.
C.An
environmentalist.
9.What
is
the
interview
about?
A.
The
result
of
a
study.
B.
Tonight's
evening
news.
C.Environmental
protection.
10.When
does
the
conversation
take
place?
A.Before
the
interview.
B.During
the
interview.
C.After
the
interview.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11.What
are
the
speakers
discussing?
A.
The
man's
green
house.
B.The
temperature
in
Greenland.
C.The
change
of
life
in
Greenland.
12.
What
is
always
nice
according
to
the
man?
A.Animals
can
get
more
food.
B.He
can
see
the
ocean
every
day.
C.Green
can
be
seen
all
year
round.
13.What
does
the
man
have
near
his
house?
A.Grass.
B.
Trees.
C.Vegetables.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14.
Where
does
the
conversation
probably
take
place?
A.At
the
train
station.
B.At
the
police
station.
C.At
home.
15.Why
did
the
kids
set
off
the
alarm?
A.To
amuse
themselves.B.
To
report
an
incident.
C.To
attract
the
guard's
attention.
16.
Whom
did
the
man
argue
with?
A.
The
kids.
B.The
policeman.
C.The
guard.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17.
What
is
the
show
about?
A.Young
enthusiastic
scientists.
B.
Experiments
done
by
audience.
C.Explanations
for
some
mysteries.
18.What
subject
is
the
speaker
most
looking
forward
to?
A.
How
to
live
a
colorful
life.
B.How
to
eat
chocolate
properly.
C.
How
to
meet
the
perfect
partner.
19.What
does
the
speaker
think
of
the
show?
A.
It's
beneficial.
B.It's
boring.
C.It's
time-wasting.
20.How
long
will
the
show
last
?
A.
30
minutes.
B.
60
minutes.
C.90
minutes.
第二部分
阅读理解（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Tamworth
Short
Story
Competition
Across
the
Tamworth
area
of
Staffordshire,children
who
enjoy
writing
short
stories
are
being
encouraged
to
put
their
creative
imagination
to
the
test.
They
are
being
given
the
chance
to
enter
a
competition
during
these
times
of
self
isolation(隔离）。
Tamworth
Borough
Council's
Arts
and
Events
and
Assembly
Rooms
teams
have
joined
forces
to
look
at
ways
of
helping
people
entertain
their
families
at
home.
They
have
now
set
a
challenge
for
children
living
in
Tamworth,which
is
to
write
a
maximum
500-word
story
using
a
topic
of
their
choice.
However,
it
must
include
the
name
of
Tamworth
somewhere
in
the
story.Prizes
are
given
to
all
age
groups.
The
winning
stories
are
to
be
recorded
by
a
celebrity
and
then
shared
with
the
local
media!
Other
prizes
will
include
tickets
to
future
shows
at
Tamworth
Assembly
Rooms.
Adey
Ramsel,Theatre,Artistic
and
Events
Manager
for
the
Assembly
Rooms,
said,＂We've
been
really
pleased
by
the
response
so
far;
it
seems
we
have
quite
a
lot
of
gifted
young
authors
out
there.
The
competition
will
run
till
July
31st,giving
everyone
plenty
of
time
to
prepare
their
best
work.So
get
writing
and
discover
the
hidden
author
in
you
today.”
Cost:Free
Phone:01827709618
Website:www.Tamworthassemblyrooms.co.uk
21.What
is
the
requirement
for
the
story
entries?
A.
They
must
include
at
least
500
words.
B.They
must
be
submitted
before
mid-July.
C.
They
must
focus
on
lives
of
local
people.
D.They
must
mention
the
word
Tamworth.
22.Winners
of
the
competition
will
get
A.
their
stories
collected
into
a
set
of
books
B.their
stories
read
by
a
well-known
person
C.chances
to
deliver
a
speech
on
local
media
D.tickets
to
visit
Tamworth
Assembly
Rooms
23.
What
can
be
inferred
from
Adey
Ramsel'
s
words?
A.
Few
children
signed
up
for
the
competition.
B.The
hidden
author
would
be
given
a
free
gift.
C.He
was
content
with
the
high-quality
entries.
D.He
was
forced
to
entertain
people
at
home.
B
Did
you
know
that
the
Chinese
built
the
largest
canal
in
the
world?
Its
length
of
1,104
miles
easily
compares
with
a
route
linking
New
York
and
Florida.
Connecting
five
river
systems
and
four
provinces,
it
ends
at
Beijing
in
the
North
and
Hangzhou
in
the
south.
For
this
reason,
it
is
officially
called
the
Beijing-Hangzhou
Grand
Canal.
In
486
B.C.,the
leader
of
the
State
of
Wu,to
transport
goods
to
the
northern
areas
of
China,constructed
a
man-made
channel
using
already
existing
waterways
to
link
the
Yangtze
and
Huai
rivers.
It
was
this
channel
that
laid
the
foundation
for
the
future
longer
Grand
Canal.
More
than
1000
years
later,Emperor
Yang
of
Sui
Dynasty
had
the
old
canals
rebuilt
and
connected
to
form
what
we
know
today
as
the
Grand
Canal.
Then
in
1403,Emperor
Yongle
of
the
Ming
Dynasty
transferred
his
capital
from
Nanjing
to
Beijing.
In
order
to
feed
all
those
moving
North,
he
had
to
transport
grain
from
the
south
along
the
Grand
Canal.
To
restore
the
Canal,more
than
47,000
men
were
employed.
The
canal
soon
became
the
economic
lifeline
of
the
empire.
Grain
was
not
the
only
trade
goods
transported
North
on
the
waterways.Salt
was
another,
as
well
as
wine
and
tea.
Goods
traded
from
the
North
included
cotton,
wool,coal,
flour,precious
stones,
and
dried
meat.
At
times,
more
than
120,000
soldiers
and
officers
were
needed
to
operate
the
almost
12,000
ships
that
annually
travelled
the
Grand
Canal.
With
the
expansion
of
the
railway
system
in
the
mid-1800s,
the
Grand
Canal
became
less
and
less
important
to
traders.
Today,few
goods
are
transported
along
its
waterways.Still,
the
current
South-North
Water
Transfer
Project
proves
that
the
Chinese
government
still
sees
the
Grand
Canal
important
to
the
welfare
of
China,
The
aim
of
this
costly
project
is
to
divert
huge
amounts
of
water
every
year
from
the
Yangtze
River
to
the
drier
regions
in
the
north.
24.
What
is
special
about
the
Grand
Canal?
A.
It
can
date
back
to
the
Sui
Dynasty.
B.
It
has
a
history
of
less
than1,000
years.
C.It
runs
from
New
York
to
Florida.
D.It
is
the
longest
canal
across
the
world.
25.
What
can
we
learn
about
the
function
of
the
Grand
Canal?
A.
It
was
first
constructed
to
convey
officers.
B.
It
was
employed
for
wars
by
Emperor
Yongle.
C.
It
used
to
transport
goods
between
south
and
north.
D.It
is
now
carrying
more
goods
than
the
railway
system.
26.What
does
the
underlined
word
“divert”
in
the
last
paragraph
refer
to?
A.Transfer.
B.Recycle.
C.Conserve.
D.Clarify.
27.
Where
is
the
text
most
likely
from?
A.A
diary.B.A
magazine.
C.A
novel.
D.A
biography.
C
New
research
indicates
that
a
person's
neighborhood
may
play
a
large
role
in
influencing
decisions
to
commute(通勤）by
bike.The
study,published
recently
in
the
Journal
of
Transport
and
Land
Use,
could
give
city
planners
new
ideas
about
how
to
design
neighborhoods,
streets
and
bike
paths
with
active
commuting
in
mind,
said
Yuiin
Park,
lead
author
of
the
study.
The
study
was
based
on
a
survey
of
1,
200
people
who
commuted
to
The
Ohio
State
University.
About
12.6
percent
of
those
people
classified
themselves
as
bicyclists,
and
about
5.4
percent
reported
that
a
bicycle
was
their
main
choice
of
transportation
to
campus.
People.who
lived
in
high-density(高密度）
areas
were
more
than
twice
as
likely
to
commute
by
bike
as
people
in
medium-density
areas
and
more
than
three
times
as
likely
to
commute
by
bike
as
people
in
suburban
areas.
Both
bicyclists
and
non-bicyclists
in
the
survey
agreed
that
bicycling
was
environmentally
friendly,created
health
benefits
and
would
save
money.
It
indicates
that
recognizing
the
benefits
of
bicycling
is
not
enough
to
push
non-bicyclists
to
start
commuting
on
two
wheels.
However,
most
bicyclists
surveyed
said
they
would
commute
by
bike
more
frequently
if
they
had
access
to
more
bike'
paths,
bike-sharing
opportunities
and
covered
parking
for
their
bikes.
Non-bicyclists
who
lived
in
high-density
neighborhoods
appeared
to
be
more
concerned
about
safety-both
from
other
vehicles
and
from
crime-when
traveling
by
bike
than
their
friends
who
commute
by
bike.
Park
finally
said
that
the
conditional
willingness
to
ride
a
bicycle
to
commute
gradually
decreases
from
high-density
neighborhoods
to
low-density,
single-family
neighborhoods.
She
also
said
that
if
campus,
city
and
regional
planners
want
to
increase
the
percentage
of
people
commuting
by
bike,
they
might
want
to
target
public
investment
in
protected
bike
paths
and
bike
parking
near
downtown
and
campus
areas.
28.
What
can
we
learn
about
the
participants
from
paragraph
2?
A.They
live
near
the
Ohio
State
University.
B.Quite
a
few
of
them
commute
by
bicycle.
C.They
are
students
from
the
Ohio
State
University.
D.People
living
downtown
are
most
likely
to
ride
bikes.
29.Non-bicyclists
are
more
concerned
about
A.
narrow
bicycle
paths
B.potential
safety
risks
C.few
sharing
chances
D.
poor
parking
facilities
30.How
can
city
planners
encourage
more
people
to
commute
by
bike?
A.
By
requiring
university
students
to
ride
bikes.
B.By
investing
more
money
in
purchasing
bikes.
C.By
building
safe
paths
and
parking
for
cyclists.
D.By
educating
people
about
the
benefits
of
cycling.
31.
What
is
the
text
mainly
about?
A.Campuses
should
be
designed
as
bike-friendly
areas.
B.People
are
supposed
to
commute
downtown
by
bike.
C.Neighborhood
may
affect
people's
commuting
choices.
D.Commuting
by
bike
makes
neighbourhood
more
active.
D
The
weather
was
ideal.
There
could
not
have
been
a
more
perfect
day
for
a
garden
party.
The
gardeners
had
been
up
since
dawn,cutting
the
lawns
and
sweeping
them
until
the
grass
seemed
to
shine.
As
to
the
roses,
you
could
not
help
feeling
they
understood
that
roses
are
the
only
flowers
that
impress
people
at
garden
parties.
Breakfast
was
not
over
before
the
men
came
to
put
up
the
big
tent.
“Where
do
you
want
the
tent
put,
mother?"
“My
dear
child,
it
is
no
use
asking
me.
I'm
determined
to
leave
everything
to
you
children
this
year.
Forget
I
am
your
mother.
Treat
me
as
an
honored
guest."
But
Meg
could
not
possibly
go
and
inspect
the
men.
She
had
washed
her
hair
before
breakfast,
and
sat
drinking
her
coffee
with
a
green
towel
round
her
head,
and
a
dark
wet
curl
stuck
onto
each
cheek.
Jose,the
butterfly,came
down
in
a
silk
petticoat
and
a
kimono
jacket.
“You
will
have
to
go,Laura,you
are
the
artistic
one."
Off
Laura
went,
still
holding
her
piece
of
bread
and
butter.
It
is
so
delicious
to
have
an
excuse
for
eating
outside
and,
besides,
she
loved
having
to
arrange
things;
she
always
felt
she.
could
do
it
so
much
better
than
anybody
else.
Four
men
carried
poles
covered
with
rolls
of
canvas
and
they
had
big
tool
bags
on
their
backs.
They
looked
impressive.
Laura
wished
now
that
she
was
not
holding
that
piece
of
bread
and
butter,but
there
was
nowhere
to
put
it
and
she
couldn't
possibly
throw
it
away.
She
blushed(脸红）
and
tried
to
look
severe
and
even
a
little
bit
short-sighted
as
she
came
up
to
them.
＂Good
morning,"she
said,copying
her
mother's
voice.
But
it
sounded
so
awful
that
she
was
ashamed,
and
hesitated,
like
a
little
girl,
“Oh-erm-have
you
come
-is
it
about
the
tent?”
“That's
right,
miss,”
said
the
tallest
of
the
men,
and
he
moved
his
tool
bag,
pushed
back
his
straw
hat
and
smiled
down
at
her."That's
it.”
32.
Who
is
responsible
for
the
garden
party?
A.Jose.
B.Laura.
C.
Meg.
D.Mother.
33.How
did
Laura
feel
when
meeting
the
workmen?
A.
Frightened.
B.Shocked.
C.Awkward.
D.Confused.
34.Which
of
the
following
can
best
describe
Laura?
A.Childish
and
nervous.
B.Artistic
and
forgetful.
C.
Determined
and
serious.
D.Dependent
and
honest.
35.Which
is
the
best
title
for
the
text?
A.
The
tent
to
build."
B.
The
men
at
work.
C.The
party
to
come.
D.The
gardeners
on
duty.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
36
Involving
yourself
in
an
activity
that
makes
you
breathe
a
little
more
heavily
will
improve
the
development
of
your
heart
and
lungs
and
help
them
work
more
effectively
and
efficiently.
Another
benefit
of
exercise
is
that
it
will
improve
your
body's
immune
system,
making
you
better
prepared
to
fight
off
infection.
Every.sport
has
its
own
specific
health
benefits.
37
It
improves
flexibility,
balance
and
muscle
strength.
Of
course,
it's
also
a
great
way
to
cool
down
on
a
hot
day!
Sport,
as
well
as
being
a
physical
activity,
has
a
mental
aspect
too.
38
Sport
builds
character
and
promotes
the
development
of
a
number
of
qualities
that
are
essential
for
a
successful
and
fulfilling
time.
Firstly,sport
requires
self-discipline,
as
you
have
to
set
goals,
make
plans
and
keep
going
even
without
immediate
rewards.
Secondly,
sport
will
encourage
you
to
maintain
a
positive
and
balanced
outlook.
Everyone
has
their
ups
and
downs.
Participating
in
competitive
sport
help
you
better
understand
winning
and
losing.·
39
It
will
show
you
that
you
often
need
to
rely
on
others
for
your
success
and
that
you
also
have
a
responsibility
to
contribute
to
the
success
of
others.
The
world
of
sport
is
full
of
exciting
opportunities
where
you
can
discover
who
you
really
are.
40
A.
It's
time
to
put
on
your
sports
shoes
and
go
play!
B.
It
can
also
help
you
maintain
a
healthy
body
weight.
C.
It
can
help
define
who
you
are
and
who
you
can
become.
D.
Finally,
sport
will
help
you
understand
the
importance
of
teamwork.
E.
Regular
exercise
contributes
to
the
development
of
your
muscles
and
joints.
F.
Sport
will
not
only
make
you
feel
energetic,
but
also
improve
your
overall
health.
G.
Swimming,for
example,
is
an
excellent
activity
as
it
provides
a
full-body
workout.
第三部分
语言运用（共三节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Considerate
giving
requires
no
special
talent,
nor
large
amounts
of
money.
It
involves
the
heart
and
head
acting
together
to
achieve
the
41
means
of
expressing
our
feelings.
As
Emerson
42,"The
only
gift
is
a
part
of
yourself.”
One
man
I
know
is
planning
an
43
present
for
his
wife.
When
I
saw
him
coming
out
of
a
dancing
studio,
he
explained,"I
got
tired
of
hearing
my
wife
44
about
my
poor
dancing.My
dancing
well
is
going
to
be
a
lasting
birthday
present
for
her."
An
elderly
lady
on
an
Iowa
farm,wept
with
delight
when
her
son
in
New
York
had
a
telephone
45
in
her
house
and
followed
it
up
with
a
weekly
long-distance
call.
A
young
bride
received
a
wedding
present
from
an
older
lady.
With
it
went
a
note,"Do
not
open
46
you
and
your
husband
have
your
first
quarrel.”
When
there
47
came
a
day
of
misunderstanding,
the
bride
48
the
package.
In
it
she
found
a
card
box
filled
with
her
friend's
favorite.
49
-and
a
note,
“You
will
catch
more
flies
with
honey
than
you
will
with
vinegar(醋）．”It
was
a.50,lady
indeed
who
gave
her
experience
with
her
gift.
All
gifts
that
51
a
part
of
self
show
that
someone
has
been
really
thinking
of
us.
Chances
for
heroic
giving
are
52,
yet
every
day
there
are
opportunities
to
give
a
part
of
yourself
to
someone
who
53
it.It
may
be
no
54
a
kind
word
or
a
letter
written
at
the
right
time.
The
important
thing
about
any
gift
is
the
amount
of
55
you
put
into
it.
41.A.various
B.direct
C.simple
D.perfect
42.A.
made
it
B.
put
it
.got
it
D.meant
it
43.A.ordinary
B.abnormal
C.unusual
D.expensive
44.A.complain
B.worry
C.talk
D.argue
45.A.called
B.rung
C.installed
D.repaired
46.A.when
B.after
C.since
D.until
47.A.immediately
B.originally
C.finally
D.occasionally
48.A.remembered
B.mentioned
C.received
D.forgot
49.A.chocolates
B.recipes
C.books
D.photos
50.A.hardworking
B.open-minded
C.kind
D.wise
51.A.introduce
B.contain
C.prove
D.assess
52.A.rare
B.
valuable
C.possible
D.common
53.A.receives
B.wants
C.accepts
D.needs
54.A.
rather
than
B.less
than
C.
more
than
D.other
than
55.A.
yourself
B.itself
C.time
D.money
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Do
you
know
that
the
eagle
knows
when
a
storm
56________(approach)
long
before
it
breaks?
It
will
fly
to
some
high
spot
57______
it
waits
for
the
winds
to
come.
When
the
storm
hits,it
spreads
its
wings
so
that
the
wind
will
pick
it
up
and
lift
58______
above
the
storm.
While
the
storm
rages(肆虐）below,the
eagle
is
soaring
above
it.
The
eagle
does
not
escape
the
storm.
Rather,it
simply
uses
the
storm
to
lift
it
much
59______（high).It
rises
on
60______
the
storm
brings.
When
the
storms
of
life
come
upon
us-and
all
of
us
will
experience
them-we
can
rise
above
them
by
61_______(set)
our
belief
that
we
can
make
it.The
storms
do
not
have
to
overcome
us.
We
can
allow
our
inner
power
to
lift
us
above
them.
We
can
enable
ourselves
to
ride
the
winds
of
the
storm
that
bring
sickness,
tragedy,
62_______
(fail)
and
disappointment
in
our
lives.
We
can
soar
above
the
storm.
Remember,
it
is
not
the
burdens
of
life
63______
how
we
handle
them
that
weigh
us
down.
To
some
people,
the
storm
in
life
is
64
______disaster
that
leaves
nothing
but
ruins:
While
others
see
the
storm
as
a
65_______(turn
point
in
life.
Sometimes
it
is
not
the
hopeless
situation
that
destroys
you;
it
is
the
rain
that
has
fallen
into
your
heart
that
ruins
you.
When
hardship
knocks
on
your
door,
how
will
you
greet
it?
第四部分
写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
66.假定你是李华，你的英国笔友Owen对中国古典名著很感兴趣。请你用英文写一封邮件，推荐他阅读《西游记》。内容包括：
1.作品简介；
2.推荐理由。
注意：
1.词数80左右（开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数）；
2.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3.参考词汇：
取经
fetch
sutras
Dear
Owen,
So
glad
to
know
you
are
fond
of
Chinese
classics._________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Hope
that
you
will
love
it.
Yours,
Li
Hua
第二节（满分25分）
67.阅读下面的材料，根据其内容和所给的段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
I
was
six
years
old
and
my
sister,
Sally
Kay,
was
a
submissive(顺从的）three.
For
some
reason,I
thought
we
needed
to
earn
some
money.I
decided
we
should
"hire
out"
as
maids.
We
visited
the
neighbors,
offering
to
clean
houses
for
them
for
a
quarter
cents.
Reasonable
as
our
offer
was,there
were
no
takers.
But
one
neighbor
telephoned
Mother
to
let
her
know
what
Mary
Alice
and
Sally
Kay
were
doing.Mother
had
just
hung
up
the
phone
when
we
came
bursting
through
the
back
door,
into
the
kitchen
of
our
apartment.
“Girls,”
Mother
asked,
“
Why
were
you
two
going
around
the
neighborhood
telling
people
you
would
clean
their
houses?”
Mother
wasn't
angry
with
us.
In
fact,
we
learned
afterwards,
she
was
amused
that
we
had
come
up
with
such
an
idea.
But,
for
some
reason,
we
both
denied
having
done
any'
such
thing.
Shocked
and
terribly
hurt
that
her
dear
little
girls
could
be
such“bold-faced(厚颜无耻的）liars,"Mother
then
told
us
that
Mrs.
Jones
had
just
called
to
tell
her
we
had
been
to
her
house
and
said
we
would
clean
it
for
a
quarter.
Faced
with
the
truth,
we
admitted
what
we
had
done.
Mother
said
that
we
had“fibbed（撒个小谎）。”We
had
not
told
the
truth.She
tried
to
explain
why
a
fib
hurt
but
she
didn't
feel
that
we
really
understood.
Mother
decided
to
teach
us
a
lesson,
one
that
we
never
forgot.
Then
an
idea
came
to
her
in
a
flash.
She
cheerfully
continued
preparing
for
lunch.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150词左右（每段开头已给出，不计入总词数）；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
As
we
were
chewing
on
sandwiches,
she
asked,
“Would
you
two
like
to
go
to
the
movies
this
afternoon?”
Mother
bent
and
gathered
us
in
her
arms
with
tears
in
her
eyes.2021届高三年级第一学期期中调研考试
英语答案
听力（共20小题，每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5
BABCB
6-10
ACBAA
11-15
CBBCA
16-20
CCCAB
第二部分
阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2.5分，满分50分）
21-25
DBCDC
26-30
ABDBC
31-35
CBCAC
36-40
FGCDA
第三部分
语言运用（共三节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45
DBCAC
46-50
DCABD
51-55
BADCA
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
is
approaching
57.
where
58.
it
59.
higher
60.
what
setting
62.
failure
63.
but
64.
a
65.
turning
写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
Dear
Owen,
So
glad
to
know
you
are
fond
of
Chinese
classics.
Journey
to
the
West
written
by
Wu
Cheng’en
is
a
must-read
for
you.
Set
in
the
Tang
Dynasty,
it
describes
the
tough
journey
of
a
monk
Xuanzang
to
fetch
sutras
from
India
with
some
animal
spirits,
including
the
Monkey
King.
The
story
is
not
only
entertaining
with
magical
tricks,
but
inspiring
in
terms
of
courage
and
persistence.
Additionally,
you
will
enjoy
being
exposed
to
abundant
Chinese
folk
stories.
Honestly,
its
mixture
of
fantasy
and
reality
is
my
favourite.（80
words）
Hope
that
you
will
love
it.
Yours
sincerely,
Li
Hua
第二节（满分25分）
As
we
were
chewing
on
sandwiches,
she
asked,
“Would
you
two
like
to
go
to
the
movies
this
afternoon?”
“Wow!
Fantastic!”
We
soon
got
bathed
and
dressed
up.
It
was
like
getting
ready
for
a
birthday
party.
We
hurried
outside
the
apartment,
not
wanting
to
miss
the
bus
that
would
take
us
downtown.
On
the
landing,
Mother
astonished
us
by
saying,
“Girls,
we
are
not
going
to
the
movies
today.”
“What?”
We
couldn’t
believe
our
ears.
“What
do
you
mean?
Mommy,
you
SAID
it!”
Mother
bent
and
gathered
us
in
her
arms
with
tears
in
her
eyes.
She
gently
explained
that
this
was
what
a
fib
felt
like.
“It
is
important
that
what
we
SAY
is
TRUE,”
Mother
said,
“I
fibbed
to
you
just
now
and
it
felt
awful.
I
don’t
want
to
fib
again
and
I’m
sure
you
don’t
either.”
That
is
how
my
sister
and
I
learned
to
be
truthful.
We
have
never
forgotten
how
much
a
fib
can
hurt.
(150
words)
录音稿
(Text
1)
W:
Marco
and
I
want
to
do
something
to
help
the
flood
victims.
M:
What
are
you
going
to
do?
W:
We’re
going
to
do
a
charity
walk
tomorrow.
(Text
2)
M:
If
you
need
the
book,
I
can
bring
it
round
to
your
house
tonight.
Will
you
be
in?
W:
Well,
I’ve
got
an
English
class
until
seven
o’clock,
but
I’ll
be
back
about
half
an
hour
after
that.
M:
OK,
that’s
fine.
I’m
meeting
Richard
in
a
cafe
at
eight,
but
I
can
come
round
to
your
place
first.
(Text
3)
W:
Hello.
I
bought
a
nice
T-shirt
from
here
—
with
a
picture
of
horses
on
it.
Do
you
know
if
you
have
any
more?
I’d
like
one
for
my
friend.
M:
Well,
they
should
be
over
there
on
the
shelf.
(Text
4)
W:
I
went
to
the
movies
with
my
friends
last
Saturday.
How
about
you?
M:
Well,
my
parents
and
I
planned
to
go
to
the
seaside
and
have
a
picnic,
but
before
we
left,
my
dad
checked
a
travel
website
which
said
there
would
be
traffic
jams.
So
we
went
to
the
country
park
instead.
(Text
5)
M:
You
seem
a
little
warm.
Let
me
take
your
temperature.
Yes,
you
have
a
fever.
W:
Really?
I
hope
I
won’t
be
too
sick
to
go
to
work.
M:
You’d
better
take
a
few
days
off.
I’ll
give
you
some
medicine
and
be
sure
to
get
more
rest
and
drink
lots
of
water.
(Text
6)
W:
Well,
I
think
all
the
applicants
were
really
good
today!
M:
I’m
not
sure
if
I
agree,
Jenny.
I
wasn’t
so
impressed
with
them.
W:
Really?
I
thought
John
seemed
really
enthusiastic
and
Peter
has
some
excellent
qualifications.
M:
John
doesn’t
have
enough
experience
and
Peter
has
only
just
finished
college.
We
need
people
with
lots
of
experience
who
can
take
on
lots
of
responsibility.
W:
But
what
about
Paula?
She
has
two
years’
experience
working
in
a
bank.
M:
I
suppose
so.
And
she
has
good
qualifications.
She
would
need
extra
training
if
we
decide
to
employ
her.
W:
Absolutely.
(Text
7)
W:
Thank
you
for
meeting
me,
Dr.
Freeman.
M:
It’s
my
pleasure.
I’m
glad
to
be
here.
W:
Sorry
for
the
short
notice,
but
we’re
hoping
to
air
this
story
on
tonight’s
evening
news.
The
producer
already
briefed
you
about
our
interview,
right?
M:
Yes,
she
told
me
we’re
going
to
discuss
the
research
results
of
our
study.
W:
Yes,
hopefully
the
results
will
encourage
more
people
to
recycle
and
care
for
the
environment.
The
interview
should
take
about
thirty
minutes.
Are
you
ready
to
begin?
M:
Sure,
let’s
start.
W:
Good
evening.
Today
with
me
is
Dr.
Freeman.
And
you
know
he
is
…
(Text
8)
W:
So,
Eric,
how
is
life
in
Greenland
these
days?
M:
Oh,
you
know.
Winters
are
long.
I
live
on
the
coast,
though,
so
I
get
to
see
the
ocean
every
day.
That’s
always
nice.
W:
I
heard
that
winters
in
Greenland
are
somewhat
shorter
than
they
used
to
be
—
global
warming,
I
guess?
M:
Yes,
that’s
true.
They’re
calling
it
“the
greening
of
Greenland”.
W:
The
“greening”?
What
does
that
mean?
M:
Well,
the
average
temperature
in
Greenland
is
rising
twice
as
fast
as
in
other
places.
So,
now
I
have
a
few
trees
near
my
house.
Trees
didn’t
use
to
exist
in
Greenland,
you
know!
And
we,
um,
people
are
growing
some
vegetables
now
—
cabbage,
potatoes,
and
things
like
that.
And
farmers
can
grow
more
grass
for
their
animals.
(Text
9)
W:
Jack.
It’s
very
unusual
for
you
to
be
so
late.
What
happened?
M:
I
managed
to
get
the
train,
but
it
was
really
crowded
and
it
was
a
terrible
journey.
W:
How
come?
M:
The
train
was
full
of
immature
students
who
thought
it
was
funny
to
set
off
the
emergency
alarm.
W:
Oh,
no!
M:
So
we
stopped
in
the
middle
of
nowhere,
and
it
took
the
guard
forever
to
deal
with
the
kids
and
call
the
police.
I
got
a
bit
impatient
after
a
while
and
argued
with
the
guard,
who
then
made
me
get
off
the
train.
Then
I
had
to
wait
an
hour
for
the
next
train
because
it
was
delayed!
W:
Oh,
dear!
So
you
haven’t
had
supper
yet?
M:
No.
I’m
really
hungry.
W:
OK.
Supper
is
ready.
(Text
10)
W:
I’ve
just
discovered
a
fantastic
new
show
called
How
Do
They
Do
That?.
The
idea
is
simple.
Take
a
topic
—
like
travel,
for
example
and
then
think
of
lots
of
little
mysteries
that
could
be
explained.
How
do
planes
take
off
and
land?
That
sort
of
thing.
Then
get
two
young,
enthusiastic
hosts
in
a
lab
to
do
lots
of
exciting
experiments.
Add
some
pictures
to
explain
the
process
to
the
audience
and
that’s
the
show.
Get
the
idea?
Each
edition
looks
at
a
different
subject.
As
well
as
travel,
topics
that
have
already
been
covered
include
education,
the
body,
things
around
the
house
and
magic
—
my
favorite
so
far.
Still
to
come
are
personal
finances,
the
natural
world,
sports,
and
life
and
how
to
live
it.
The
one
I’m
personally
looking
forward
to
the
most
is
how
to
meet
the
perfect
partner.
But
some
of
my
friends
would
like
to
know
how
to
eat
chocolate
without
putting
on
weight.
What
I
like
most
about
the
show
is
that
it’s
fun
and
you
learn
something
at
the
same
time,
so
you
don’t
feel
so
guilty
about
spending
60
minutes
in
front
of
the
TV
each
week.
So
if
you
aren’t
already
watching
How
Do
They
Do
That?,
I
strongly
recommend
that
you
make
the
time.
You’ll
never
think
it
boring.
It’s
on
every
Tuesday
at
9
p.m.
but
this
week’s
edition
won’t
be
shown
until
half
an
hour
later
because
of
the
live
international
soccer
game.
Get
watching
and
start
learning!
