山西省太原市2021届高三上学期期中质量监测英语试题 （word版）（无听力音频，无听力文字材料）

2020?2021学年第一学期高三年级期中质量监测
英语试卷
（考试时间：上午10：00——12：00）
说明：本试卷为闭卷笔答，答题时间120分钟，满分150分（不含听力）。请将第一卷试题答案填在第二卷卷首的相应位置。
第I卷
第一部分
听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案
转写到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题;每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅
读一遍。答案写在答题卡上。
例：How
much
is
the
shirt?
A.
?
19.15.
B.
?9.18.
C.
?9.15.
答案是C。
1.
Where
does
the
conversation
probably
take
place?
A.
In
the
street.
B.
In
a
supermarket.
C.
In
the
subway
station.
2.
What
are
the
speakers
talking
about?
A.
A
new
museum.
B.
The
woman's
job.
C.
The
national
history.
3.
What
does
Sunny
do?
A.
She's
a
pet
seller.
B.
She's
a
volunteer.
C.
She's
a
zoo
keeper.
4.
How
much
did
Alex
pay
for
his
new
jacket?
A.
$80.
B.
$90.
C.
$180.
5.
Why
does
the
woman
ask
for
leave?
A.
She
has
a
toothache.
B.
There
is
a
problem
with
her
work.
C.
Her
son
needs
to
see
the
dentist.
第二节（共15小题;每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项
中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，
各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。答案写在答题卡上。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.
What
will
the
woman
do
this
weekend?
A.
Have
a
dinner
party.
B.
Go
to
the
local
park.
C.
Work
in
the
company.
7.
What's
the
possible
relationship
between
the
speakers?
A.
Colleagues.
B.
Host
and
guest.
C.
Husband
and
wife.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8.
What
are
the
speakers
trying
to
do?
A.
Find
a
convenience
store.
B,
Get
familiar
with
a
new
area.
C.
Look
for
a
place
to
play
tennis.
9.
What
are
the
speakers
going
to
do
next?
A.
Ask
someone
for
help.
B.
Find
the
location
on
a
map.
C.
Buy
a
new
mobile
phone.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10.
Where
are
the
speakers?
A.
At
a
gift
store.
B.
At
a
post
office.
C.
At
the
woman's
office.
11.
What
does
the
woman
think
of
boxing
up
the
package?
A.
It
is
unnecessary.
B.
It
is
too
expensive.
C.
Its
price
is
reasonable.
12.
What
will
the
woman
do?
A.
She
will
send
a
regular
mail.
B.
She
might
fax
a
letter
this
afternoon.
C.
She
will
deliver
the
letter
via
overnight
mail.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13.
What
do
the
woman’s
family
like
best?
A.
Shopping.
B.
Travelling.
C.
Swimming.
14.
Why
does
the
woman
like
the
beaches?
A.
They
are
clean.
B.
They
are
empty.
C.
They
are
quiet.
15.
What
are
the
restaurants
like
according
to
the
woman?
A.
Wait
time
is
long.
B.
The
food
is
delicious.
C.
The
waiters
are
impolite.
16.
What
advice
docs
the
woman
give
the
man?
A.
Improving
the
bus
service.
B.
Providing
free
sightseeing
buses.
C.
Offering
more
bike-sharing
service.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17.
Who
is
the
announcer?
A.
A
sports
fan.
B.
A
stadium
worker.
C.
A
soccer
player.
18.
What’s
the
purpose
of
making
the
announcement?
A.
To
introduce
the
stadium.
B.
To
attract
more
soccer
fans.
C.
To
declare
rules
to
the
audience.
19.
When
can
the
fans
enter
the
field?
A.
At
no
time.
B.
Before
the
game.
C.
After
the
game.
20.
What
may
happen
if
the
fans
don't
observe
the
rules?
A.
They
may
be
warned.
B.
They
may
be
heavily
fined.
C.
They
may
be
asked
to
leave.
第二部分
阅读理解（共两节，满分60分）
第一节（共15小题;每小题3分，满分45分），
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。答案写在答题卡上。
Transfer
Students
—
August
Orientation
（迎新日）Schedule
You
and
your
family
are
welcome
to
attend
August
orientation
for
a
comprehensive
introduction
to
the
university,
including
meeting
academic
advisors
and
registering
for
classes.
Registration
TUESDAY
,AUGUST2.0
8:00am
-
4:30pm
Get
your
student
ID
card
at
the
Campus
Service
Center
at
034
Campus
Avenue
Building.
If
you
have
uploaded
a
photo
for
your
ID,
you'll
simply
pick
up
your
card;
otherwise,
staff
will
take
your
picture
and
print
the
ID
card
while
you
wait.
Check
into
your
residence
hall
（if
you're
to
live
on
campus）,
Your
ID
card
functions
as
your
residence
hall
room
key.
ORIENTATON
DAY:
WEDNESDAY
,AUGUST21
8:00am
-
10:30am
Check-in
&
Welcome
Check
in
and
receive
your
orientation
materials.
Explore
banking
options
and
open
a
bank
account.
You
will
get
welcome
from
the
Vice
President
of
Student
Affairs.
11:00am
-
11:50am
Small
Group
Meeting
-
various
locations
You
will
meet
your
Student
Orientation
Undergraduate
Leader
(SOUL)
in
small
groups.
Each
group
will
discuss
highlights
about
your
possible
majors,
your
questions
(about
anything)
and
the
volunteer
consultants
arc
ready
to
help
you.
12:00pm
-
2:00pm
Lunch
&
Resource
Fair
You
and
your
family
members
can
purchase
lunch
at
Armstrong
Student
Center.
During
lunch,
you'11
learn
about
university
resources
and
involvement
opportunities
at
the
Resource
Fair
Staff
will
be
available
to
let
you
know
about
the
resources
and
support
for
the
students.
2:00pm-3:25pm
Career
Advising
Career
Center
staff
will
introduce
career
items
and
lead
an
activity
to
help
you
begin
to
identify
your
career
interest
and
plan
your
future
professions
in
advance.
3:30pm
-
4:00pm
Student
Life
&
Campus
Safety
Learn
about
life
outside
the
classroom.
Small
groups
will
work
together
to
solve
your
life
challenges.
Information
about
campus
safety
wilt
also
be
shared.
4:00pm
-
4:45pm
Community
Expectations
A
representative
from
the
Office
of
the
Dean
of
Students
will
discuss
the
expectations
for
you
as
a
member
of
the
community,
and
address
campus
values.
5:50pm
-
6:00pm
Announcements
&
Closing
'21.
What
are
you
required
to
do
on
the
day
of
registration?
A.
Print
the
pictures.
B.
Live
on
campus.
C.
Get
the
student
ID
card
D.
Visit
the
communities.
22.
At
what
time
will
you
expect
to
learn
about
your
professional
development
plan?
A.
11:00am.
B.
2:00pm.
C.
3:30pm.
D.
4:00pm.
23.
What
do
you
have
to
pay
for
according
to
the
text?
A.
Getting
orientation
materials.
B.
Accessing
academic
resources.
C.
Consulting
the
advisors
or
the
staff.
D.
Having
lunch
at
Armstrong
Student
Center.
B
The
COVID-19
lockdown
worried
me.
I
worried
about
what
the
weeks
and
months
ahead
might
look
like.
I
decided
to
take
the
idea
of
"
love
the
neighbour"
seriously,
though
I
had
only
met
them
from
the
kitchen
window.
On
a
Saturday
morning,
I
made
a
sign
that
said,
Have
a
nice
day,“
and
stuck
it
on
my
kitchen
window,
with
a
smiley
face.
A
while
later
that
day,
the
neighbour
living
across
from
me,
taped
up
a
sign
on
the
window
with
a
message
for
us,
"Thank
you.
You
too!"
We
went
on
like
this
for
a
few
days,
back
and
forth,
like
an
echo,
and
I
thought
of
how
this
would
be
a
nice
story
for
us
all:
move
from
strangers
in
the
beginning
to
good
friends
in
the
end.
Somewhere
around
Day
5,
I
positioned
“Beaker
the
Muppet"
in
the
window,
and
they
responded
with
a
cute
stuffed
dog.
Then
I
put
a
note
of
a
Mary
Oliver
poem
about
spring
to
raise
the
bar.
Maybe
I
was
showing
off.
Sure
enough,
no
“echo"
this
time.
The
next
day,
Dewey
was
barking
at
their
dog
in
the
backyard.
I
saw
one
of
the
guys
when
I
went
out
to
stop
my
dog.
"Sorry,
we
didn't
find
a
poem,"
he
said.
"We
meant
to,"
he
added,
“And
then
we
never
did.”
"That's
okay,"
I
replied.
And
we
both
went
back
inside.
During
the
following
days,
I
also
ran
into
the
neighbour
in
the
driveway
some
times
as
we
walked
our
dogs,
and
found
the
note
already
started
to
feel
a
little
silly.
What
if
my
notes
were
a
chore
to
them,
and
not
a
charm?
For
months,
I
had
avoided
my
favourite
blocks
sidewalk
that
cut
through
my
neighbourhood.
Going
for
walks
these
days
made
me
sad,
or
mad,
because
the
story
had
no
good
ending.
I
kept
thinking,
“How
do
I
love
you,
my
neighbour,
like
I'm
supposed
to?”
I
have
decided
after
this
is
all
over,
I
will
finally
have
all
my
neighbours
over
for
dinner.
I
will
write
this
invitation
on
a
piece
of
paper
and
stick
it
on
my
kitchen
window
for
them
to
read,
for
old,
bad
times
'
sake.
Maybe
we
can
have
a
little
laugh
together
about
how
we
tried
to
be
kind.
We'
11
say
even
during
the
hard
time,
nothing
can
lock
us.
24.
Which
of
the
following
can
explain
the
underlined
expression
"raise
the
bar"
in
paragraph
3
?
A.
Have
more
fun.
B.
Make
it
more
difficult.
C.
Remove
the
barrier.
D.
Invite
them
out
for
a
drink.
25.
How
did
the
author
feel
after
meeting
with
her
neighbor
physically?
A.
She
became
annoyed.
B.
She
felt
relieved.
C.
She
became
uneasy.
D.
She
felt
closer
to
the
neighbour.
26.
What
can
we
infer
from
the
text?
A.
The
idea
of
"Love
the
neighbour"
kept
the
author
positive.
B.
Communication
cannot
last
long
without
meeting
face
to
face.
C.
The
author
changed
the
walk
routes
in
order
to
take
a
shortcut.
D.
A
social
gathering
can
solve
all
the
problems
of
neighbourhood.
27.
Which
of
the
following
can
be
the
best
title
for
the
text?
A.
Trust
the
Next-door
Strangers
B.
Get
"Unlocked"
at
the
Lockdown
C.
Unsuccessful
lee
Breaking
Between
Neighbours
D.
Strangers
in
the
Beginning,
Good
Friends
in
the
End
C
“Ni
Hao!
Lao
Tie!
I
am
your
foreign
friend.
Just
have
a
bite
of
our
organic
apples
and
place
your
orders
here!”
Erik
Nilsson,
a
Swedish
traveler,
greeted
through
TikTok
livestreams
in
a
village
of
Jiangxi
Province.
His
appearance
online
increased
that
day's
sale
greatly.
After
experiencing
a
special
day
in
the
rural
area,
Erik
said
jokingly,
"I
wish
I
could
change
my
job.”
This
village
is
not
alone.
Nowadays,
China's
e-commerce
platforms
have
helped
open
up
the
market
for
Chinese
farmers'
produce,
bringing
an
increasing
number
of
sales
online.
This
new
trend
has
made
livestreaming
a
new
way
to
rid
farmers
of
poverty,
with
mobile
phones
becoming
“new
farm
tools”.
"Everyone
has
brought
their
own
agricultural
products.
How
can
you
make
the
audiences
believe
that
they’re
delicious
through
the
screen
in
front
of
you?
Now,
let's
feel
the
look
on
your
face
during
the
livestreaming!"
The
Farmers
,
Education
Training
Center
(FETC)
in
Hainan
Province
invites
professionals
such
as
directors
and
makeup
stylists
to
teach
farmers
a
variety
of
skills
ranging
from
short
video
editing
to
livestreaming
sales
skills.
"However,
at
first,
only
a
few
villagers
had
a
strong
desire.
We
helped
them
get
training
in
livestreaming,
short
video
marketing,
and
other
courses.
It
wasn't
fancy,
but
simple,
practical,
and
effective."
"Everybody,
please
take
a
look.
This
is
the
best
coconut.
Taste
it."
said
Pei
Yanqin.
59,
speaking
Mandarin
with
a
strong
local
accent
and
communicating
smoothly
with
netizens
through
her
livestreaming
software.
Just
over
a
year
ago,
she
was
one
of
those
villagers
with
the
least
intention
to
get
training.
In
2018,
the
demonstration
project
of
national
e-commerce
for
rural
areas
was
launched.
Today,
the
village
has
developed
eight
e-commerce
livestreaming
courtyards.
Some
presenters
work
alone,
while
others
are
husband
and
wife
teams.
In
the
next
step,
the
government
will
train
more
farmer
presenters
and
develop
in
the
direction
of
multi-variety
sales.
28.
What
is
the
purpose
of
the
first
paragraph?
A.
To
lead
in
the
topic.
B.
To
add
to
the
atmosphere.
C.
To
introduce
culture
contrast.
D.
To
give
background
knowledge.
29.
How
did
most
of
the
poor
farmers
first
respond
to
the
training?
A.
Thrilled.
B.
Doubtful.
C.
Disappointed.
D.
Impressed.
30.
Which
of
the
following
statements
is
true
according
to
the
text?
A.
Erik
wants
to
seek
for
a
new
job.
B.
E-commerce
is
a
family
business.
C.
Livestreaming
is
the
best
way
to
remove
poverty.
D.
Government
helps
farmers
become
skilled
in
marketing
online.
31.
Where
is
this
text
most
likely
taken
from?
A.
A
travel
log.
B.
A
government
report.
C.
A
research
paper.
D.
A
frontpage
article.
D
The
more
parents
talk
to
their
children,
the
faster
those
children's
vocabularies
grow
and
the
better
their
intelligence
develops.
Dr.
Hart
and
Dr.
Risley
published
their
study
in
1995.
They
found
a
close
relationship
between
the
number
of
words
a
child's
parents
had
spoken
to
him
by
the
time
he
was
three
and
his
academic
success
at
the
age
of
nine.
At
three,
children
born
into
professional
families
had
heard
30
million
more
words
than
those
from
a
poorly
performed
family.
Besides,
recent
studies
show
that
words
should
be
spoken
directly
to
a
child,
rather
than
simply
heard
in
the
home.
Leaving
children
in
front
of
the
television
does
not
have
the
same
effect.
Neither
does
letting
them
sit
at
the
feet
of
academic
parents
while
the
grown-ups
talk
about
Plato.
The
effects
can
be
seen
directly
in
the
brain.
Babies
are
born
with
about
100
billion
neurons
（神经元）more
or
less,
and
connections
between
these
neurons
form
at
an
exponentially（以指数
方式）rising
rate
in
the
early
years
of
life.
It
is
the
pattern
of
these
connections
that
determines
how
well
the
brain
works,
and
what
it
learns.
By
the
time
a
child
is
three
years
old,
there
will
be
about
1,000
trillion
connections
in
his
brain,
and
that
child's
experiences
continuously
determine
which
are
strengthened
and
which
decreased.
This
process—gradual
and
irreversible（不可逆的），
has
shaped
the
path
of
the
child's
life.
Fortunately,
there
are
tools
that
can
help
those
silent
parents.
One
such
is
a
Language
Environment
Analysis
（LENA）
device.
It
is
like
a
pedometer,
but
instead
of
recording
users
,
walking
steps,
this
device
keeps
track
of
words
by
analysing
the
speech
children
hear.
Parents
use
it
to
monitor
and
improve
their
patterns
of
words,
much
as
a
pedometer-wearing
couch
potato
might
try
to
reach
10,000
steps
a
day.
Plus,
parents
are
taught
to
make
the
words
they
speak
to
their
children
more
enriching.
In
this
way
parents
can
make
sure
of
an
enough
input.
32.
Which
factor
influences
the
children's
intelligence
development
most
according
to
the
text?
A.
The
wealth
of
households.
B.
Parents'
academic
success.
C.
Babies'
inborn
language
ability.
D.
Effective
vocabulary
input
by
parents.
33.
What
can
we
learn
from
paragraph
3?
A.
The
number
of
neurons
at
birth
varies
a
lot.
B.
Neurons
connections
can
be
decided
by
experiences.
C.
Individual
efforts
can
also
shape
the
kids'
development.
D.
School
education
leads
to
faster
increase
of
the
connections.
34.
Why
is
the
"pedometer"
mentioned
in
the
last
paragraph?
A.
To
give
parents
two
options.
B.
To
offer
two
possible
solutions.
C.
To
show
the
similarity
to
LENA.
D.
To
tell
the
difference
from
LENA.
35.
What
should
parents
do
for
their
babies
according
to
the
text?
A.
Involve
in
their
games.
B.
Share
more
quality
time
with
them.
C.
Enlarge
their
vocabulary
through
media.
D.
Expose
them
to
being
spoken
to
directly.
第二节（共5小题;每小题3分，满分15分）’
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余
选项。答案写在答题卡上。
It
is
not
just
doctors
and
nurses
that
work
at
Children's
National
Hospital
in
Michigan.
There
are
also
two
furry
friends
on
the
staff.36.
Their
main
responsibility
is
to
comfort
the
young
patients
at
the
hospital.
Their
work
is
called
animal-assisted
therapy
（疗法）.37.
Research
shows
that
animal
therapy
can
lower
stress
and
anxiety
levels,
increase
patient
mobility,
and
provide
an
alternative
focus
from
pain.
Facility
dogs
are
expertly
trained
dogs
who
partner
with
a
facilitator
working
in
a
health
care,
visitation
or
education
setting.
They
would
visit
kids
for
a
hug
or
paw
shake.
More
than
just
dogs
can
be
animal
therapists.38.
They
are
kids'
favorites
to
comfort
patients
and
families
through
bedside
visits,
as
well
as
motivating
and
assisting
during
certain
types
of
therapy
and
rehabilitation
（修复）.
39.
Therapaws
of
Michigan
uses
a
strict
screening
agreement
to
ensure
the
selection
of
well-mannered
dogs
of
sound
temper
and
good
health.
Under
the
supervision
of
trained
volunteers,
these
special
animals
visit
patients
in
a
variety
of
settings:
in
their
inpatient
rooms;
in
waiting
rooms
and
in
other
settings
considered
appropriate
by
hospital
staff.
Then
they
were
specifically
matched
to
patients
based
on
needs
and
types.
This
year,
for
safety
reasons,
the
hospital
had
to
pause
the
animal
therapy
program.
But
Allison
Proctor
still
runs
her
program.40.
Even
special
requests
for
dog
visits
outside
regularly
schedule
can
be
accommodated
as
long
as
her
team
is
available.
A.
The
program
focuses
on
a
medical
goal
B.
Small
horses
would
sometimes
hang
out
C.
Each
has
an
important
job
as
a
facility
dog
D.
It
is
known
to
have
many
positive
effects
on
patients
E.
These
animals
usually
have
to
go
through
special
training
F.
Each
team
had
one
dog,
plus
one
human
in
charge
of
the
dog
G.
Her
commitment
to
the
treatment
with
the
human-animal
bond
never
stops
第三部分
语言知识运用（共两节，满分55分）
第一节（共20小题;每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最
佳选项。答案写在答题卡上。
The
morning
was
dark
and
cold.
Stars
twinkled
down
from
the
sky
and
a
half
41
was
still
hanging
there.
"Varrow,
wake
up,
"
Gramps
whispered,
42
me
gently,
"It's
sea
turtle
time."
I
rubbed
my
eyes
and
43
my
way
in
the
dark,
dizzy
and
woozy.
Then,
the
repeated
"sea
turtle
time"
44
me
completely.
Gramps
and
I
45
our
heavy
waterproof
boots
over
our
pajamas
and
threw
rain
jackets
on
our
shoulders
46
.
I
pushed
the
front
door
open
and
ran
out
onto
the
47
,
Gramps
not
far
behind.
There,
I
held
my
48
.
Thousands
of
baby
sea
turtles
were
49
out
on
the
endless
stretch
of
sand
and
racing
to
the
ocean.
We
took
in
the
amazing
scene
50
.
But
Gramps
and
I
weren't
there
just
to
watch.
We
had
a
51
.
52
,
we
made
our
way
through
the
mess
of
broken
shells
and
the
little
lovely
sea
turtles
to
53
those
that
needed
help.
Soon
enough,
I
54
one.
A
baby
turtle
was
flipped（翻转）
on
its
back,
55
to
roll
over
no
matter
how
hard
it
kicked
its
legs.
Reaching
my
hand
down,
I
gently
picked
the
fragile
baby
up
and
flipped
it
over
and
got
it
right
back
to
its
56
to
the
ocean.
"Nice
job,
Varrow."
Gramps
patted
me
on
the
shoulder,
his
eyes
twinkling
and
his
mouth
stretching
into
a
smile.
I
felt
a
rush
of
pride
and
became
even
more
57
because
of
Gramps'
compliment
for
the
next
few
hours.
By
7:00,
the
last
sea
turtles
had
crawled
into
the
water
and
we
finally
sat
down
on
the
soft
sand,
58
.
We
couldn't
be
more
satisfied
with
our
hard
work.
As
the
sun
rose
from
the
horizon,
golden
beams
of
sunlight
stretching
ever
outwards
onto
the
deep
59
.
The
colourful
world
woke
up.
What
a
60
for
those
in
their
deep
sleep!
They
missed
the
amazing
natural
gifts
right
under
their
nose.
41.
A.
sun
B.
moon
C.
ray
D.
shadow
42.
A.
waving
B.
moving
C.
shaking
D.
observing
43.
A.
felt
B.
pushed
C.
changed
D.
made
44.
A.
covered
B.
awoke
C.
struck
D.
surrounded
45.
A.
relied
on
B.
gave
away
C.
pulled
on
D.
kicked
off
46.
A.
hurriedly
B.
formally
C.
awkwardly
D.
unwillingly
47.
A.
board
B.
boat
C.
square
D.
beach
48.
A.
attention
B.
breath
C.
strength
D.
records
49.
A.
hatching
B.
breaking
C.
sleeping
D.
sliding
50.
A.
in
response
B.
in
detail
C.
in
horror
D.
in
wonder
51.
A.
mission
B.
rest
C.
curiosity
D.
secret
52.
A.
Hopefully
B.
Luckily
C.
Carefully
D.
Confidently
53.
A.
dig
out
B.
take
away
C.
pass
by
D.
search
for
54.
A.
realised
B.
released
C.
stopped
D.
spotted
55.
A.
uncertain
B.
unable
C.
struggling
D.
managing
56.
A.
shell
B.
desire
C.
journey
D.
space
57.
A.
comfortable
B.
independent
C.
touched
D,
motivated
58.
A.
exhausted
B.
curious
C.
defeated
D.
astonished
59.
A.
red
B.
blue
C.
island
D.
ground
60.
A.
surprise
B.
relief
C.
pity
D.
passion
题号
第一部分
第二部分
第三部分
第四部分
总分
得分
答题卡
题号
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
选项
题号
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34.
35
36
37
38
39
40
选项
题号
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
选项
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
.
第II卷
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式,答案写在答题卡上。
Nowadays,
more
and
more
Chinese
are
aware
of
food
waste
issues.
Even
young
people
tend
to
take
home
their
leftovers
when
dining
out,
most
of
61
would
pack
the
dish
in
a
doggie
bag
if
the
leftovers
are
still
in
good
shape
and
there
are
also
a
lot
left,
according
to
the
survey
62
(conduct)
by
China
Youth
Daily.
The
people
born
in
the
1980s
or
1990s
believe
that
63
(save)
food
is
a
virtue.
Young
people
also
gave
their
opinions
on
how
64
(help)
reduce
food
waste.
Some
advised
restaurants
to
offer
the
serving
chopsticks,
which
would
be
instrumental
for
customers
to
pack
the
leftovers.
Others
said
it
might
be
useful
to
promote
65
(small)
or
half
portion
dishes.
Another
good
66
(suggest)
is
that
catering
businesses
give
away
coupons
(优惠券)
for
customers
who
clear
their
plates
at
dinner.
China
launched
a
campaign
against
food
waste
in
2013
and
67
(renew)
the
call
early
this
year
to
create
an
68
(increasing)
prosperous
society.
We
can
all
play
69
part
in
reaching
the
national
food
waste
reduction
goal
—
to
reduce
food
waste
70
50%
in
the
next
10
years.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节
短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共
有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
In
order
to
celebrated
National
Day
and
the
Mid-Autumn
Festival,
and
we
had
an
8-day
holiday.
After
it,
my
classmates
and
I
were
talking
about
how
to
do
during
the
holiday
excitedly.
Then
we
decided
to
go
to
help
the
farmers
instead
of
stay
at
home.
As
soon
as
we
arrived
at
farm,
we
were
attracted
by
the
apples
hanging
on
the
branches.
We
couldn't
wait
to
pick
the
apples,
which
were
the
most
interesting
work.
Particular,
we
were
allowed
to
choose
what
we
liked
best
and
taste
them.
We
didn't
feel
boring
at
all
even
though
the
job
was
tiring.
We
worked
for
5
hours
happily
unless
the
sun
set.
第二节书面表达（满分25分）
最近,你校组织了
5公里的迷你马拉松（mini-marathon）比赛,请你向21世纪英文报投稿,
介绍比赛的情况。内容包括：
1.时间、地点和参加人员；
2.比赛过程；
3.比赛的意义。
注意：1.词数100左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
2020-2021学年第一学期高三年级期中质量监测
英语参考答案及评分建议
（满分150分）
选择题答案
第一部分听力
1.
A
2.
A
3.
B
4.
B
5.
C
6.
B
7,
A
8.
C
9.
A
10.
B
1LC
12.
B
13.C
14.
A
15.
B
16.
C
17.
B
18.
C
19.
A
20.
C
第二部分
阅读理解
供20小题；每小题3分，满分60分）
21.
C
22.
B
23.
D
24.
B
25.
C
26.
A
27.
B
28.
A
29.
B
30.
D
31.
D
32.
D
33.
B
34.
C
35.
D
36.
C
37.
D
38.
B
39.
E
40.
G
第三部分
语言知识运用（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
41.
B
42.
C
43.
A
44.
B
45.
C
46.
A
47.
D
48.
B
49.
A
50.
D
51.
A
52.
C
53.
D
54.
D
55.
B
56.
C
57.
D
58.
A
59.
B
60.
C
非选择题答案
第三部分
语言知识运用（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
61.
whom
62.
conducted
63.
saving
64.
to
help
65.
smaller
66.
suggestion
67.
renewed
68.
increasingly
69.
a
70.
by
第四部分写作
第一节（共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分）
第二节（满分25分）
Possible
version:
Last
Friday
witnessed
the
successful
5K
Mini-marathon
in
our
school
playground.
Approximately
100
athletes,
consisting
of
students,
parents
and
teachers,
had
taken
part
in
it,
all
of
whom
were
thrilled
to
warm
up
in
the
early
morning.
At
9am,
the
starting
gun
blasted
and
off
went
the
eager
runners,
who,
though
not
professional,
tried
the
very
best
to
finish
their
first
“marathon”.
Despite
the
fact
that
their
results
varied
a
lot,
not
a
single
participant
quit
halfway.
Rounds
of
deafening
cheers
encouraged
them
to
hold
on
to
the
end.
Finally,
all
were
awarded
medals
in
praise
of
their
performance.
This
event
is
beneficial
not
only
by
enabling
the
students
to
work
out
with
bravery
and
perseverance,
but
also
providing
an
outlet
for
students
under
pressure
and
form
a
new
bond
with
their
parents
and
teachers.
书面表达评分标准
第五档：（21?25分）完全完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点，应用了较多的语法结构和词汇，语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，
但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致，有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构
紧凑。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档：（16?20分）
完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉1、2个次重点，应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，语法结构或词汇方面
应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致，应用简单的语句间连接
成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档：（11?15分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖了主要内容，应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，有一
些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解，应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容
连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档：（6?10分）
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容，语法结构单调、词汇知识有限，
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作的理解，较少使用语句间的连接成分，内
容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档：（1~5分）
未完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏了主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求，语法结构单调，
词汇知识有限，较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解，缺乏语句间的连
接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。
(0分）
未能传达给读者任何信息，内容太少，无法评判；所写的内容均与所要求的内容
无关或所写内容无法看清。