安徽省安庆市怀宁县二中2020-2021学年高一上学期期中考试英语试题 Word版含答案(无听力音频无文字材料)

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名称 安徽省安庆市怀宁县二中2020-2021学年高一上学期期中考试英语试题 Word版含答案(无听力音频无文字材料)
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怀宁县二中2020—2021学年度第一学期期中考试
高一英语试题
本试卷分第Ⅰ卷﹙选择题﹚和第Ⅱ卷﹙非选择题﹚两部分。 满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分:听力(共两小节,满分30分)
该部分分为第一、第二两节,注意,做题时,请先将答案标在试卷上,该部分录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上。
第一节(共5题:每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,井标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题,每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What programs does the woman prefer?
A. Talk shows. B. Sports programs. C. Cooking programs.
2. What does the woman ask the man to do?
A. Have dinner. B. Pick up a gift. C. Look at a piece of jewelry.
3. What does the man usually take with him on vacation?
A. A suitcase. B. A backpack. C.A sports bag.
4. How does Anna feel about chemistry?
A. Worried. B. Confident. C. Hopeless.
5. Why did the man choose the guitar?
A. He needs a cheap instrument.
B. He wants to be like his friends.
C. He thinks it is cool to play the guitar.
第二节(共15题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6至7题。
6. Why is it an important day for the man?
A. He will sign an agreement. B. He will attend a wedding.
C. He will pick up an important guest.
7. What color is the tie the man will wear?
A. Red. B. Blue. C. Grey.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题,
8. Where does the conversation take place?
A. At a restaurant. B. At a bus stop. C. At the train station.
9. When will the man抯 sister arrive?
A.At4:10. B. At 4:20. C.At4:30.
10. How often does the No.1 bus run?
A. Every 5 minutes. B. Every 10 minutes. C. Every 15 minutes.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题,
11.Why does the woman invite the man to the beach?
A. To relax. B. To see a whale. C. To collect some plastic.
12. Who will deal with the garbage?
A. The community. B. The government. C. A recycling company.
13. What is the woman like?
A. Lazy. B. Responsible. C. Emotional.
听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。
14. Which is the woman’s favorite hobby?
A. Doing exercise. B. Writing at home. C. Collecting recipes.
15. Why does the woman suggest cooking?
A. It is a creative hobby. B. It is good to do alone.
C. It helps avoid going to restaurants.
16. What does the man probably think of cooking?
A. It抯 hard to learn. B. It抯 healthy to cook his own food.
C. It抯 a fun thing to do with his family.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. When will the first storm arrive?
A. Today. B. This weekend. C. Next week.
18. Which city will have fog?
A. New York City. B. Saint Paul. C. Boston.
19. For whom will the ice cause problems according to the speaker?
A. People traveling on foot. B. People driving on the road.
C. People celebrating by the water.
20. What will the weather be like in Chicago?
A. Sunny. B. Snowy. C. Windy.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中选出最佳选项。
A
Active New Zealand
Adventure tours in New Zealand and South America
Website:www.activenewzealand.com
Phone:1-800-661-9073
Destinations: South Pacific, New Zealand, South America
Activities: Bicycling, Wildlife, Walking
Adventure Life
Exceptional travel in Latin America and Antarctica
Website: www.adventure-life.com
Phone:1-800-344-6118
Destinations: South America, Argentina, Chile, Peru, Central America
Activities: Rafting, Hiking Backpacking, Exploring, Nature, Rainforest
Adventure Spirit/Travel Network
Adventure tour operator+Travel agency
Website: www.adventurespirit.net.au
Phone:800-492-0257,800-492-0259
Destinations: Asia, Europe, Africa, South America, North America
Activities: Bicycling, Snow sport, Nature, Photography, Fishing, Sailing, Around the World Tours
21. This text is probably__________.
A. an advertisement B. a newspaper story
C. a piece of news D. an informal letter
22. If you want to see the wildlife, you can call__________for information.
A.1-800-661-9073 B.1-800-344-6118
C.800-492-0257 D.800-492-0259
23. If you want to go rafting, you can choose__________.
A. Active New Zealand. B. Adventure Life.
C. Adventure spirit. D. Travel Network.
B
Recently, my college degree has just been completed. The last project was called 揝mile. The class was asked to go out to smile at three people and write down their reactions. I am a very friendly person and always smile at everyone and say hello anyway. So, I thought this would be a piece of cake.
My husband, the youngest son and I went out to McDonald. We were standing in line when all of a sudden everyone around us began to back away. As I turned around, an unpleasant body smell came to my nose and two poor homeless men stood just behind me. As I looked at the short blue-eyed gentleman closest to me, he was “smiling”. The second man fumbled (摸索)with his hands as he stood behind his friend.
The young lady at the counter asked him what they wanted. He said, “Coffee is all, Miss,” because that was all they could afford.
Then I really felt it — I embraced (拥抱)the little man with the blue eyes. That is when I noticed all eyes in the restaurant were set on me, judging my every action. I smiled and asked two more breakfast meals and gave them to the men.
The blue-eyed gentleman looked up at me, with tears in his eyes, and said, 揟hank you.
I turned in my project. My teacher said, 揅an I share this? I slowly nodded as she got the attention of the class. She began to read and that is when I knew that we as human beings share this need to make people happy and to be mare happy.
In my own way I had touched the people at McDonald抯 and every soul that heard the story in the classroom. But, I graduated with one of the biggest lessons I would ever learn.
24. The underlined part 揳 piece of cake in Paragraph 1 means _______.
A. easy B. embarrassing C. moving D. comfortable
25. Why did people around the writer in the McDonald step back?
A. Because they were very polite to the two men.
B. Because they were moved by the two men.
C. Because the two men seemed unfriendly.
D. Because the two men smelt terrible.
26. What did the teacher think of the author抯 project?
A. Hard to believe B. Interesting to read
C. Very puzzling D. Very satisifing
27. What did the writer think she learned from the story?
A. A friend in need is a friend indeed.
B. Helping others can bring pleasure to many people.
C. Nothing is difficult to a willing heart.
D. Don抰 judge people according to their appearance.
C
In China, many people are leaving the countryside to find jobs in the cities, because the countryside is much poorer than the city, and often there isn抰 much work there. Services such as hospital and transport are usually much better in the city than in the countryside. They hope that their lives will improve when they move to the city.
But in the big cities of Europe like London or Paris, people are moving out of the city. These rich families want to live a quieter life. They are tired of the noise and the dirt of the city, and they are tired of the crowded streets, crowded trains and buses. They don抰 want to live in the cities any more. They want a house with a garden in the countryside, and breathe the fresh air there.
So they move out of the cities. Some don抰 go very far, just a little way out of the city, to the towns near the cities, other people move to the real countryside with sheep, cows and green fields. There, they start new lives and try to make new friends.
Not all those who move from the city to the countryside are happy. After two or three years, many people who have done this feel that it was a big mistake. They don抰 make so much money and there isn抰 much work to do. People in the countryside are very different and aren抰 always very friendly.
As a result, quite a lot of people who have moved to the countryside move back to the city. 揑t抯 wonderful to see crowds in the streets and cinema lights, they say.
28. Which is NOT the reason for people moving to the cities in China?
A.The countryside is much poorer than me city.
B.People in the countryside have nothing to eat.
C.People in the countryside don’t have much work to do there.
D.Services in cities are usually much better than those in the countryside.
29. Why do some rich families in Europe move to the countryside?
A.Because they will find good jobs.????
B.Because they are tired of living in the city.
C.Because they can make more money there.
D.Because they like feeding sheep and cows in the green fields.
30. ?The underlined sentence?in the last paragraph shows __________.
A.they are happy to move back to the city
B.they miss their friends in the countryside
C.they still want to move to the countryside
D.they are tired of the noise and the crowded streets in the city
31. The best title of this passage may be “__________”
A.A happy life!?????????????????????? ????? B.Living in the city!
C.Moving out or moving back???????? ?????? D.Living in the countryside!
D
On February 6, 2020, American astronaut Christina Koch arrived back on Earth after 328 days in space. Her time in space is just one of the records set by herself. That抯 the longest spaceflight ever made by a woman, and just one of the many things Ms. Koch achieved in space.
Ms. Koch took off from Earth for the International Space Station (ISS) on March 12, 2019. While in space, she made 5, 248 trips around the Earth, travelling 2, 237 million kilometers, which is roughly the same as 291 trips to the Moon and back. During her 11 months on the ISS, Ms. Koch took part in six spacewalks, spending over 42 hours in all outside the station. In October of 2019, Ms. Koch led the first ever all-female spacewalk with Jessica Meir.
But for most astronauts, space travel isn’t about setting records. It’s about doing science. Ms. Koch took part in a wide variety of special experiments, including studying how crystals (晶体) grow in space, how atoms (原子) behave in extreme cold and learning more about growing plants in low gravity. Growing plants in space could be an important way to provide food on future trips. She also tested a new way of separating liquids from gases. This experiment could lead to simple methods of cleaning water and air in space, which could be very important for future space travel.
Ms. Koch isn抰 just a scientist and an astronaut. She is also being studied. She抯 part of a NASA program studying how astronauts are affected by being in space for long periods of time. Her trip was only 12 days shorter than the American record set by Scott Kelly in 2016. As they did with Mr. Kelly, NASA scientists are looking carefully at ways Ms. Koch抯 body has been affected by her time in space. That research is important for the longer space trips NASA hopes to make in the future, such as for a base on the moon or a trip to Mars.
32. Which of the following is an achievement Ms. Koch has made?
A. Leading the first women-only spacewalk.
B. Making the longest spaceflight by herself.
C. Cleaning water and air successfully in space.
D. Staying outside the ISS continuously for 42 hours.
33. What does the author want to tell us with so many detailed figures in Paragraph 2?
A. Koch made historic breakthroughs in space.
B. Koch went through a life-threatening space trip.
C. Koch is the most experienced astronaut in NASA.
D. Koch completed admirable tasks in the space travel.
34. Which statement agrees with the text?
A. Astronauts are competing to set new records.
B. Koch抯 team produced their own food in space.
C. NASA has founded a scientific base on the moon.
D. Koch抯 research is significant for space exploration.
35. What can be the best title for the text?
A. US Astronauts Carried out Experiments in Space
B. Record-Setting Astronaut Koch Returns to Earth
C. Spacewalks Have Successfully Been Done on the ISS
D. NASA is Studying Astronauts for Longer Space Trips
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,共10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
While people in both England and the U.S. speak English, the two types of English can be very different.
First, there are differences in spelling. The British like the letter 搖 and have kept it in many words. 36.________ Somewhere in our language history, we decided that 搇abor, 揷olor and 揻avorite were just fine without the 搖 next to the 搊. 37.________ Sometimes, we use totally different words. Here, we live in apartments with elevators. Over there, they live in flats with lifts. We power our cars with gas. They use petrol. And, if we need to look in our car抯 dark trunk for something, we use a flashlight. They would use a torch to search their dark boot.
38.________Some British and American idioms have the same meaning, but use different words. For example, in the U. S. if you want to add your opinion to a conversation, you put in your two cents. In the U.K., they put in their two pence. Make sense. They have pence and we don抰. Finally, a familiar word used by both countries but in different ways is 揷heers. We use the word over drinks when we are wishing someone good health or congratulating on success. The British use cheers to mean 搕hank you. 39._________
Now, we don抰 expect you to pick sides. 40._______
A. The usage of the word comes from America.
B. For that, we Americans say, 揟hank you!
C. American English will be used more often than British English.
D. Americans have dropped it.
E. Then there are idioms.
F. Both American and British English have their strong points.
G. But our differences go beyond spelling.
第三部分 英语知识运用(共二节;满分45分)
第一节 完型填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项﹙A、B、C和D﹚中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
People eat different things in different parts of the world.
In some countries, people eat 41 every day. Sometimes they eat it two or 42 times a day, for breakfast, lunch and supper. They can 43 it, fry it or make it into rice flour(面粉). They usually eat it 44 meat, fish and vegetables.
Some people do not eat some kind of 45 . Muslims, for example, do not eat pork.
The 46 eat a lot of fish. Japan is an island and its 47 go all over the Pacific looking for fish to 48. The Japanese sometimes eat uncooked fish, and they also eat a lot of rice.
In 49 such as Britain and the United States of America, the most important food is 50 or potatoes. People there usually make their bread from wheat flour. They 51 potatoes in different ways. They can boil them and fry them.
In Africa, corn is the most important 52 like rice and wheat. Corn is a kind of cereal(谷类食物). African people make the corn 53 flour. From the flour they make 54 kinds of bread and cakes. Many Africans are very 55 and so they can’t afford to eat much 56 with their cereal.
Cereal and meat are very important, but we also 57 plenty of vegetables and lots of fresh fruit.
Some people 58 only fruit and vegetables. They do not eat meat or fish or 59 that comes from animals. They eat only food from 60 . Some people say that food from plants is better for us than meat.
41. A. fish B. meat C. rice D. wheat
42. A. five B. four C. one D. three
43. A. boil B. drink C. eat D. have
44. A. as B. like C. together D. with
45. A. apples B. fish C. meat D. vegetables
46. A. Americans B. Chinese C. English D. Japanese
47. A. fishing boats B. lifeboats C. planes D. trains
48. A. buy B. catch C. hold D. weigh
49. A. developing B. Eastern countries C. the world D. Western countries
50. A. bread B. cakes C. rice D. vegetables
51. A. cook B. eat C. make D. take
52. A. food B. meal C. pork D. thing
53. A. from B. into C. of D. up of
54. A. all B. different C. the same D. two
55. A. healthy B. poor C. rich D. weak
56. A. corn B. meat C. rice D. wheat
57. A. buy B. like C. need D. plant
58. A. cook B. eat C. harvest D. hate
59. A. anything B. pork C. rice D. vegetables
60. A. apples B. fish C. pigs D. plants
第Ⅱ卷
第二节 短文填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The coronavirus pandemic has so far swept the world. Social distancing is playing an important role in the battle ___56___ it. Recently, some companies launched an initiative (倡议) to call for people to stay indoors through creative ideas.
Coca-cola, for example, ran ___57___ advertisement in New York抯 Times Square last month. It ___58___ (show) the letters of its famous brand being placed further away from each other to represent social distancing. Also, ___59___the billboard displayed was this 棑Staying apart is the best way to stay ___60___ (unite). Similarly, McDonald抯 moved the two iconic arches of its logo away from each other on ___61___ (it) Brazilian Facebook page.
More ___62___ (interesting), some artists have even re-imagined brands. A director Jure Tovrlijan added a mask to Starbucks’ double-tailed mermaid ( 美人鱼). By doing so, he wanted to encourage people to wear masks when ___63___ (go) out in public places.
___64___ these initiatives are only posted online, it’s still “a positive move encouraging people to reduce ___65___ (necessary) physical contact with others”, China Daily noted.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。作文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏子符号(∧)并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
Happiness is very importance in my daily life. This is why it makes me feel cheerful, and full joy. If you felt happy, you will make others feel good. When I don抰 feel cheerful, I try to remember good moments to making me feel better. When I miss some friends or family member I also try to remember those happy moments we were spent together. In my opinion, the best way to help people be happy in life are to make them laugh every time we are feeling down. Also by give them love you can make them feel sure about themselves.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假如你是李华,在英语课上,英语老师让同学们用英语把自己介绍给全班同学。请根据下列要点,用英语描述自己。
1. 外貌:个子高,略有点瘦;
2. 优点:诚实友善,学习勤奋,乐于助人,与同学相处很好,深受同学们的喜爱;
3. 爱好和特长:喜欢流行音乐,爱好体育,擅长打篮球;会说一口流利的英语。
4. 决心向同学们学习。
注意:词数:100左右。可适当增加细节。






2020—2021学年度第一学期期中考试
高一英语试题参考答案
一、听力(共20小题,每小题 1.5分,满分30分)
1-5 CABAA 6-10 ABBCB 11-15 CCBAA 16-20 CBAAC
二、阅读理解(共20小题,每小题 2分,满分40分)
21-25 AABAD 26-30 DBBBA 31-35 CADDB 36-40 DGEBF
三、完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
41-45 CDADC 46-50 DABDA 51-55 AABBB 56-60 BCBAD
四、短文填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
61.against 62.an 63.showed 64.what 65.united
66.its 67.interestingly 68.going
69.Though/ Although/ While 70. unnecessary
五、改错(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
importance改成important. why改成because. full后加of .
felt改成feel. making改成make. member改成members.
were删掉. are改成is. we改成they. give改成giving
六、作文(满分25分)
Hello, class, it is an honor to introduce myself to everyone. I am XXX years old. I come from XXX City. I am a little fat,but honest and friendly. I study very hard and do well in all subjects. I can get along well with the classmates and I am always ready to help others. I am popular among the students. I have a great many hobbies, such as pop music and sports activities. I am good at playing basketball. What’s more, I will make up my mind to learn from everyone.
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