滁州市2020~2021学年第一学期高一期末联考
英语试卷
考生注意:
1.本试卷由四个部分组成。满分150分,考试时间120分钟。
2.考生作答时,请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效,在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
3.本卷命题范围:必修①~必修② Unit 4。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the woman think of the course?
A. Hard. B. Useless. C. Boring.
2. What is the man probably?
A. A shop assistant. B. A bank clerk. C. A fashion designer.
3. What will the woman probably buy?
A. A book. B. A dictionary. C. A dress.
4. How late was the man for the wedding?
A. Twenty minutes late. B. Thirty minutes late. C. Fifty minutes late.
5. What will the woman do?
A. Surf the Internet. B. Write her paper. C. Go to bed.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6. When does the conversation probably take place?
A. In the morning. B. In the afternoon. C. In the evening.
7. What are the speakers talking about?
A. How to enjoy a game. B. How to ease the stress.
C. How to make a speech.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8. What is the woman probably?
A. A tour guide. B. A travel agent. C. A hotel manager.
9. According to the man, why did some people get sick?
A. Because of the bad food.
B. Because of the cold room.
C. Because of the tiring tour.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. How did the man’s friends enjoy themselves in Ogasawara?
A. By going fishing. B. By going swimming. C. By going diving.
11. Why did the man get out of the water?
A. He had a heart attack. B. He hurt his toes. C. He found some sharks.
12. What happened to the man in Kominato?
A. He was bitten by a fish.
B. He was frightened by a fish.
C. He was stared at by many fishes.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. What animal bothered the woman?
A. A bat. B. A spider. C. A frog.
14. How does the man think the animal got into the house?
A. Through the door. B. Through the windows. C. Through the roof.
15. What does the woman say about the animal?
A. It’s scary. B. It’s harmful. C. It’s short-sighted.
16. What does the woman have to do by this F riday?
A. Mend the holes in the wall.
B. Hand in her working plan.
C. Get the animal out of her house.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. Who is Sam probably?
A. An adviser. B. A coach. C. A group leader.
18. Where should the rock climbing group meet Mike at noon?
A. In the gym. B. In the parking lot. C. In the library.
19. When will the horse riding group probably have lunch?
A. At 12:30. B. At 1:00. C. At 1:30.
20. What does the speaker tell the last group to do?
A. Have a bath before lunch.
B. Go to the drama hall by bus.
C. Meet their leader under the trees.
第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项。
A
The Forbidden City
The Forbidden City in Beijing, China, was completed in 1420 during the early Ming Dynasty. It is the largest ancient palatial (宫殿似的) building in the world and it’s open to tourists to allow them to have a look at ancient Chinese architecture.
The Little Mermaid
The Little Mermaid is a statue in Copenhagen, Denmark. It sits on a rock in the harbor. It was inspired by a performance of a ballet based on the fairy tale The Little Mermaid by Hans Christian Andersen. It was presented to the public on 23 August, 1913. And there are many tourists taking photos with the Little Mermaid every year.
The Taj Mahal
As one of the Seven Wonders of the World, the Taj Mahal is the jewel of India. It is considered as the finest example of Mughal architecture, a mix of Indian, Persian and Islamic styles.
Niagara Falls State Park
America’s oldest state park, open year-round, brings you closer than you ever thought possible to the power of the Falls. The best viewing area for the American Falls and Rapids is the Prospect Point. It is also home to the Visitors Service Center, Niagara Adventure Theater, the Observation Tower and the Maid of the Mist.
21. What can you do when visiting the Little Mermaid?
A. Listen to a fairy tale. B. Attend a performance.
C. Meet Hans Christian Andersen. D. Take pictures with the statue.
22. Which is the best place to see the American Falls and Rapids?
A. The Prospect Point. B. The Niagara Adventure Theater.
C. The Observation Tower. D. The Maid of the Mist.
23. What can we learn from the text?
A. Tourists can only see the Forbidden City from outside.
B. The Little Mermaid statue was made by Hans Christian Andersen.
C. The Taj Mahal is the finest example of mixed styles of Mughal buildings.
D. Tourists must check the opening time before visiting the Niagara Falls State Park.
B
One day I was calculating my household expenses when I heard a knock at the door. I opened the door and saw two ragged(衣衫褴褛的) children huddling(蜷缩) together.
“Any old papers, lady?”Asked one of them.
I was busy. I wanted to say“no”until I looked down at their feet. They were wearing thin lttle sandals(凉鞋), wet with heavy snow.
“Come in and I’ll make you a cup of hot cocoa. ”
They walked over and sat down at the table. Their wet sandals left marks upon the floor. I served them cocoa and bread with jam to fight against the cold outside.
The girl held the empty cup in her hands, looking at it. Then she asked in a flat voice, “Lady, are you rich?”The girl put her cup back in its saucer(茶杯托) carefully and said, “Your cups match your saucers. Her voice was hungry with a need that no amount of food . could supply.
They left after that, holding their bundles of papers against the wind. They hadn’t said “Thank you.”They didn’t need to. They had reminded me that I had so much for which to be grateful. Plain blue china cups and saucers were only worth five pence. But they matched. I tasted the potatoes and stirred(搅动) the meat soup. Potatoes and brown meat soup; a roof over our heads, my husband with a good steady job- these matched, too.
I moved the chairs back from the fire and cleaned the living room. The muddy prints of small sandals were still wet upon my floor. Let them be for a while, I thought, just in case I should begin to forget how rich I am.
24. Why did the children come to the writer’s house?
A. They wanted to beg for some food.
B. They wanted the writer s pity on them.
C. They wanted to sell old papers to the writer.
D. They wanted to see how rich the writer was.
25. Why did the writer say“they didn’t need to say thank you”?
A. The children were impolite.
B. The children inspired her mind.
C. It’s her pleasure to help them.
D. She did not care about it.
26. What can decide whether you are rich or not according to the text?
A. How much money you have had.
B. What job your husband is doing.
C. How you have helped others.
D. How you feel about your life.
27. Why did the writer leave the muddy prints on the floor?
A. To show her husband that someone had come.
B. To remind her that she had helped two children.
C. To remind her how happy her life is.
D. To remind her that she was very rich in the neighborhood.
C
I have an amazing connection with marathons. I didn’t realize until I started running in my 30s that running was a battle against myself, not about competition or whether or not I was athletic. It was all about the battle against my own body and mind. A test of will!
I remember back to my 7th year in school. In my first P. E. class, the teacher required us to run laps and then hit a softball. I didn’t do either well. He later informed me that I was not athletic. Though he didn’t mean it, that stuck with me for years.
A month before my first marathon,one of my ankles was injured and this meant not running for two weeks,leaving me only two weeks to train. Yet, I was determined to go ahead. The night before my marathon, I dreamt that I couldn’t even find the finish line. I woke up sweating and nervous, but ready to prove something to myself.
Shortly after crossing the start line, my shoe ties became undone. So I stopped to readjust. Not the start I wanted !
At mile 3, I passed a sign:“GO FOR IT, RUNNERS!”
By mile 17, I became out of breath and the once injured ankle hurt badly. Despite the pain, I stayed the course walking a bit and then running again.
By mile 21, I was starving!
As I approached mile 23,I could see my wife waving a sign. She is my biggest fan. She never minded the alarm clock sounding at 4 am or questioned my expenses on running.
I was one of the final runners to finish. But I finished! And I got a medal. In fact, I got the same medal as the one that the guy who came in first place had.
Determined to be myself, move forward, free of shame and worldly labels, I can now call myself a marathon winner.
28. What does the underlined “that”in Para. 2 refer to?
A. His teacher’s request. B. His failed sports.
C. His no-talent in sports. D. The awkward memory.
29. What happened in the author’s first marathon?
A. He made it eventually. B. He has lost confidence.
C. He gave up halfway. D. He was too nervous to finish.
30. How did the author’s wife respond to his running?
A. Doubted. B. Supported.
C. Indifferent. D. Unconcerned.
31. What can we learn from the text?
A. One is never too old to learn.
B. Failure is the mother of ssuccess.
C. A winner is one with a great effort of will.
D. A man owes his success to his family support.
D
Dear 2020,
Goodbye! You have been a long year. I have felt your effect in many ways. I can say that I’ve learned quite a few things somewhere within the eternity of your 12 months.
One of the things I’ve learned is to cherish the time I spend with others. I often think of our lives before quarantine(隔离), the simple pleasures, such as going to grab a coffee with a friend or settling in for a movie night. I realize now that I took this time for granted. Looking back, these simple pleasures are the times I cherish the most.
I’ve also learned to appreciate the people around me. I now cherish my parents and appreciate their love and support more than ever before. I cherish my friends and their ability to make me laugh no matter the circumstances. And I’ve learned how to cherish myself. Spending months and months stuck in my home, I’ve had ample time to work on the person I am and gain a little more appreciation for my body and my mind.
Within the long months of quarantine, I have also found things to be grateful for. Personally, I’m thankful for the shows, movies and music that I’ve discovered, the creativity I’ve found in the world now that our doors are closed and our minds are open. Overall, most importantly, 2020, you have taught me how to look for the good hidden among the bad.
However, I won’t miss the goodbyes you have forced us to say or the losses that others have gone through. I won’t miss the darkness of you, 2020,and the great pain you have caused.
We have felt the lows and the highs and everything in between. We will feel the impact of you long after you end, but we will learn to live beyond it and grow into something better.
Goodbye, 2020. It is your time to end.
Sincerely,
A writer from the Clog
32. What was the most important thing did 2020 teach the author?
A. Cherish the time spent with others.
B. Realize the simple pleasures.
C. Appreciate the people around her.
D. Look for the good hidden in the evil.
33. What does the underlined word “ample”I n Para. 3 probably mean?
A. Annual. B. Enough. C. Awesome. D. Optional.
34. How was the author’s 2020?
A. She enjoyed it all the time.
B. She was sick of the stuck time.
C. She felt ups and downs.
D. She missed all the past in 2020.
35. What does this text mainly talk about?
A. The sufferings of 2020.
B. A farewell to 2020.
C. A regret in 2020.
D. The expectations for 2021.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Reasons for Learning Professional English
English is not just used in everyday situations. 36 There are many reasons for learning professional English, even if you are not looking for an English-speaking job right away :
You will have better job choices. Many large businesses now require that you speak English, especially if they deal with any international customers or partners._ 37
38 No matter where you are in the world, since so many people know at least a little bit of English, you can use the language to communicate.
You will have an easier time getting promotions. Even if you start at the bottom of a company where knowing English is not that important, you will have an easier time getting promoted if you know English. Many managers and other important company members must know English.
You will have the chance to work abroad. 39 Then getting a job there will be important. Knowing English will give you an important advantage when you are applying.
40 Let’s go for it!
A. You will use it better.
B. You will be able to communicate better.
C. Getting professional help is an important step.
D. In short, learning professional English has many benefits!
E. Have you been hoping to move to someplace that speaks English?
F. It is also used in businesses and professional settings all over the world.
G. Knowing English will open doors for you to better careers and give you more options.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Last summer I looked out the door of my old house at my newly planted garden and my adopted dog Stevie. I paused. I was filled with 41 . I realized nothing is trash and I believe in 42.
I started to look around me at all the things that we usually 43 of as trashabandoned ( 丢弃的) plastic bags, water from boiled noodles, pulled weeds (杂草), newspapers, furniture and 44 we outgrow—and I began to think and act and live 45 a belief that all things have a continued 46 in the world, if we just 47 it.
In my neighborhood everyone puts out their raked autumn 48 on the streets- out of sight, out of 49 . This didn’t 50 with my environmental protection idea, so I planned out a new 51 with some moving boxes and 52 a sign that said, “Dump(倒) your leaves here.” I watched through the autumn as my 53 piled their leaves on this new garden. I watered the leaves with 54 rainwater, and even composted( 堆肥) some of Stevie’s doggie doo. Now, I have a new beautiful garden.
I even use my bath water to water my garden. Dirty as it might seem to my friends, I see it as 55 waiting to be filled, as future heads of vegetables and flowers. This might seem like a big 56 but if we can get down to 57 our gardens with our bath water, maybe we wouldn’t be so afraid of 58 our mistakes and failings—maybe our 59 materials would be things to learn from, and 60 turn into something better.
41. A. joy B. sadness C. regret D. anger
42. A. gardening B. recycling C. adopting D. planting
43. A. guess B. help C. tell D. think
44. A. foods B. books C. clothes D. tables
45. A. according to B. ought to C. try to D. intend to
46. A. thing B. waste C. purpose D. harm
47. A. find B. hate C. break D. ignore
48. A. flowers B. leaves C. trees D. vegetables
49. A. duty B. idea C. task D. mind
50. A. avoid B. fit C. continue D. give
51. A. house B. plant C. aim D. garden
52. A. put in B. taken out C.put up D. handed out
53. A. neighbors B. dogs C. friends D. officials
54. A. thrown B. examined C. collected D. fixed
55. A. stressful B. potential C. particular D. flexible
56. A. joke B. chat C. distance D. step
57. A. watering B. removing C. flling D. dragging
58. A. thinking B. turning C. admitting D. staring
59. A. useful B. abandoned C. dusty D. decorative
60. A. definitely B. actually C. entirely D. eventually
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下列材料,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Once upon a time, there was an old man 61 (live) in a village. Most people in the village disliked him since he was young. He always 62 (keep) complaining and was in a bad mood. He would 63 (rude) turn people away when they tried to cheer him up.
The 64 (long) he lived, the more bad-tempered he became. People were unwilling to stay with him because of his bad mood, 65 had a strong influence on others. Around him, feeling happy was even thought unusual and impolite. By this way, he made the others feel unhappy 66 well.
On the day of his 67 (eighty) birthday, an unbelievable thing happened. Some villagers found he had complained about nothing and that he was happy. 68 whole village went to see him and asked what had happened. He answered it was no use that he had been looking for 69 (happy) and then he was happy.
It is important to realize that 70 (you) mood can affect the moods of those around you. Everyone has bad days sometimes. If someone tries to cheer you up, just try to accept their help.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
Ms. Wu is my favorite teacher. She is friendly and easy- going lady whom treats her work very seriously. We have learned a lot of from her. In her class, we listen so careful that we never miss any important points. With her well-organized or creative teaching practice, she has helped us make great progresses. She is not only patience in her teaching but also helpful in our daily life. Whenever we face difficulties, she encourage us not to give up. She once said to us, “Nothing was impossible to a willing heart. ” Ms. Wu is a great teacher and a great person who is always there for his students.
第二节 书面表达(满分 25分)
假定你是李华,你的英国笔友Tom给你发邮件倾诉学习和生活压力过大。请根据以下内容给他回信:
1.安慰他尽全力就好,别太在意结果;
2.回答他关于你实际学习情况的询问;
3.给他提出解决问题的具体建议。
注意:1.词数100左右;
2.可适当增加内容,以使行文连贯。
滁州市2020~2021学年第一学期高一期末联考·英语
参考答案、提示及评分细则
听力部分录音稿
(Text 1)
M: You took the course on learning methods, didn’t you? How did you like it?
W: Well, in fact, my grades haven’t improved at all.
(Text 2)
W:These skirts are very nice. How much are they?
M:They’re on sale. Thirty dollars each. And twenty dollars off if you buy two.
(Text 3)
M: Wow, look at all the electronic books and dictionaries on this website.
W:They’re not what I want. You promised to buy me a new dress and I want it today. Let’s go get it right now, OK?
(Text 4)
W: You were supposed to be here half an hour ago and the wedding bells rang out 20 minutes ago.
M: Sorry. But the traffic today was heavier than any other day this week.
(Text 5)
M: Why are you still working on the computer? It’s almost midnight.
W:I have to stay up until I finish the paper.
(Text 6)
W :Can you just sit down and stop walking around in the room? I can’t concentrate on the football game.
M:Sorry, but I can’t help it. I feel nervous every time I take exams.
W:Just relax and go to bed early. I used to feel the same way but then I attended a talk on taking exams at a university. Things changed.
M: How did they change?
W:I learned how to make study plans before exams from the professor. That was really important and worked quite well. I’ve never been nervous since then.
(Text 7)
M:I paid good money for this tour and would appreciate some help with some problems that have come up.
W:I’d like to help you get rid of any difficulties you’re having. How can I help you?
M: Your tour company can’t seem to organize anything. We are always arriving after something is closed or getting there when the guides are at break.
W:We’re trying to fix that. Is there anything wrong with your room?
M:It was cold and smelled of smoke, but it was supposed to be a nonsmoking room.
W: You should not have to put up with that. Was the hotel restaurant good?
M:Actually a few people from our group got sick, and everyone thinks it was from the dinner that we ate.
(Text 8)
W:Could you talk about your ocean swimming experience in Ogasawara?
M:Sure. One time, my friends came to visit me and so, we went fishing. But before we started fishing, I decided to have a swim instead. I could see all the way to the bottom of the ocean. Suddenly I saw some sharks. My friends helped to get me out of the water. My heart was beating so fast.
W : Were they dangerous?
M:Not really. They were quite small but I didn’t want to take any chances. Have you had any encounters with fish?
W: Well, do you remember that time when we were swimming in Kominato and a strange fish started staring at us? And it chased you all the way out of the sea, and onto the beach.
M: That’s right. I thought it would bite my toes. But it didn’t. How can I ever forget that time when such a small fish chased me out of the ocean?
(Text 9)
M: You look really tired.
W: Yeah. I haven’t had a good sleep for the past three nights. There’s a bat in my house. And I’m afraid of such things.
M: Bats, just like spiders and frogs, are actually useful animals. A TV program says that a bat eats about 1200 insects in one night.
W :Great, but I don’t have a problem with insects! I don’t even know how the bat got inside. I usually keep the door and windows closed.
M:Oh, most bats can get through very small holes in the roof.
W:I just don’t know what to do. I don’t think it can find its way out by itself. Bats are blind, aren’t they?
M:No. They may not be able to see very well, but all bats can see.
W:I have no idea. Well, I just want to get it out of my house so I can sleep. Above all, my new working plan is due this Friday. Hey, since you’re such a bat expert,I was wondering, uh, are you free tonight?
(Text 10)
Now this is the first day of the courses. My name is Danny and I’m your adviser. Those of you doing rock climbing put up your hands. Okay. You’d better go now because Sam is waiting for you. Go to the gym. That’s past the swimming pool and the car park. You can’t miss it- it’s a great big yellow building. At noon, make sure you come back here, I mean, to the library. And Mike, your group leader, will take you off to lunch which is served at 12:30. Don’t be late because the afternoon lessons start at 1 :30. Now the group doing horse riding. Make sure you are wearing either riding boots or strong shoes. The bus will bring you back for lunch. You’ll have to wait at the main gate for lunch which should be served at 1:00 p. m. And finally, for those of you doing discos dancing, your class will meet in the drama hall. That’s the building you can see through the trees on your right. You must take a towel because you need to have showers over there before meeting up for lunch.
参考答案
1~5 BACAB 6~10 CBBAA 11~15 CBACA 16~20 BBCBA
21.D细节理解题。根据第二部分最后一句话可知。
22.A细节理解题。根据第四部分可知the Prospect Point是观看美国瀑布和急流的最佳地点。
23.C细节理解题。根据第一部分可知紫禁城是对游客开放的;根据第二部分可知童话故事《小美人鱼》是安徒生创作的,雕像不是;根据第三部分可知泰姬陵是混合了印度、波斯和伊斯兰的风格的莫卧儿王朝建筑的最佳典范;根据第四部分可知尼亚加拉瀑布州立公园全年开放。
24.C推理判断题。根据文章第二段可知,这两个孩子是来卖旧报纸的。
25.B细节理解题。根据倒数第二段他们提醒了我有那么多值得感激的东西可知。
26. D推理判断题。文章最后两段作者觉得虽然自己的东西很便宜生活也很简朴,但相对于两个孩子来说已经拥有很多了,所以是否富有取决于对生活的主观感受。
27.C 细节理解题。从文章中最后一段可以看出作者留下泥迹是为了让她不要忘了自己有多富有应该知足常乐。
28.C代词指示题。他后来告诉我,我不擅长运动。虽然他不是有意的,但这句话让我久久不能释怀。
29.A细节理解题。根据文章后几段可知,作者坚持到了最后,而且得到了一块奖牌,由此可知他成功地跑完了马拉松。
30.B观点态度题。根据第八段作者的妻子对他凌晨4点的闹钟和跑步的花费都不介意等可知她是支持的。
31.C主旨大意题。通读全文可知,作者在讲述自己凭借意志跑完马拉松的经历可得知。
32.D细节理解题。根据第四段最后一句可知,最重要的是2020年教会了我如何在坏事中寻找好的一面。
33.B词义猜测题。根据上文一个月又一个月困在家里可推知ample意为充足的。
34.C推理判断题。2020之于作者之于所有人都是充满悲欢离合与酸甜苦辣的一年。作者从中领悟到了一些真谛也决心挥别过往难过的糟糕回忆。
35.B主旨大意题。通读全文以及首尾的goodbye可知。
36~40 FGBED
41.A我满心欢喜。
42.B我相信回收利用。
43.D我们通常认为是垃圾的东西。
44.C我们长大后穿不下的衣服。
45.A我开始按照一种信念去思考、行动和生活。
46.C世界上所有的事情都有一个持续的目标。
47.A只要我们找到它。
48. B在我家附近,人人都把扫过的秋叶倒在街上。根据下文可知。
49.D 眼不见,心不烦。
50.B这不符合我的环保理念。
51.D原词复现题,根据多次的出现的garden以及文章首句可知。
52.C我张贴了一张指示牌。
53.A我的邻居把树叶堆在这个新花园里。
54.C我用收集的雨水浇灌树叶。
55.B我却认为这是一种潜在的等待将被填补。
56.D 这看起来似乎是一大步要走。
57.A但如果我们都能开始认真考虑用洗澡水浇灌我们的花园。
58.C或许我们不会那么害怕承认我们的错误和失败。
59.B 也许我们废弃的材料可以作为学习的对象。
60.D最终变成更好的东西。
61. living 62. kept 63. rudely 64. longer 65. which 66. as 67. eightieth 68. The 69. happiness
70. your
短文改错
Ms. Wu is my favorite teacher. She is ∧ friendly and easy-going lady whom treats her work very
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168592510795seriously. We have learned a lot of from her. In her class, we listen so careful that we never miss any
carefully
important points. With her well-organized or creative teaching practice, she has helped us make great
and
progresses. She is not only patience in her teaching but also helpful in our daily life. Whenever we face
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difficulties, she encourage us not to give up. She once said to us,“Nothing was impossible to a willing heart. ”
encourages is
Ms. Wu is a great teacher and a great person who is always there for his students.
her
书面表达.
Dear Tom,
I was very worried when I received your letter. I believe that we should struggle for our best and don’t pay too much attention to the result.
In my family, my parents treat me as their friend and won’t put too much stress on me and allow me to develop my own interest in art, music and sports. So I’m pretty lucky in this aspect.
I suggest that you have a heart- to-heart talk with your parents or teachers. Besides, exercise every day is also important. I’m sure you will get relief sooner or later.
Yours,
Li Hua