2020-2021
学年第二学期九年级英语教学质量检测（一）
听力材料
第一节：听下面五段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的
A
、B
、C
三个选
项中选出正确的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有
10
秒钟的时间回
答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.
M:
Mary,
do
you
need
some
help
with
your
cooking?
W:
No,
thanks.
I
can
manage
it
myself.
2.
M:
Hello,
Lucy,
are
you
the
oldest
in
your
class?
W:
No,
I
am
13.
But
Bruce
is
one
year
older
than
me.
3.
M:
Excuse
me,
how
can
I
get
to
the
City
Library?
W:
The
No.12
bus
will
take
you
there.
It’s
just
next
to
Guangming
Middle
School.
4.
M:
How
can
we
go
to
the
airport?
W:
We
can
take
a
bus
or
a
taxi.
But
it
will
take
an
hour
to
get
there
by
bus,
and
we’ll
miss
the
plane.
5.
M:
Which
T-shirt
would
you
like
to
try
on,
the
pink
one
or
the
blue
one?
W:
Neither.
I
like
white
best.
I’ll
try
on
this
white
one.
第二节：听下面两段长对话。每段对话后有
2
至
3
个小题，从题中所给的
A
、B
、C
三
个选项中选出正确的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完对话后，你有
10
至
15
秒钟的时间
回答有关小题。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段长对话，回答下面
6-7
两个小题。听对话前，你将有
10
秒钟的时间阅读有
关内容。
W:
Jack,
look
at
the
river
there
.
It’s
so
dirty.
M:
So
terrible.
The
water
pollution
is
really
getting
worse.
W:
I
agree
with
you.
I
think
everyone
should
do
something
to
protect
the
environment.
For
example,
we
shouldn’t
throw
the
rubbish
into
the
river.
M:
You
are
right.
We
can
make
some
signs
to
stop
people
from
doing
that.
听下面一段长对话，
回答下面
8-
10
三个小题。听对话前，你将有
15
秒钟的时间阅读有
关内容。
W:
Hi,
Mike,
I
heard
that
you
won
a
prize.
Tell
me
something
about
it.
M:
OK,
I
entered
a
dancing
competition
in
Shanghai
and
won
the
first
prize.
W:
Wow,
congratulations!
You
are
great!
How
long
have
you
learned
dancing?
M:
I’ve
learned
dancing
since
I
was
only
six.
My
parents
are
both
music
teachers.
They
teach
me
how
to
dance
beautifully.
W:
Did
they
go
to
Shanghai
with
you?
M:
Sure,
they
gave
me
courage
and
confidence
before
the
competition.
W:
Great.
How
long
did
you
stay
there?
M:
We
stayed
there
for
seven
days,
and
it
was
an
unforgettable
experience.
第三节：听下面一段独白。从题中所给的
A
、B
、C
三个选项中选出正确的选项，并标
在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有
25
秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。独白读两遍。
W/M:
Mr.
White
is
my
neighbor.
He
is
fifty
years
old.
He
is
a
policeman.
He
is
also
a
funny
man.
Now
let
me
tell
you
an
interesting
story
about
him.
One
day,
when
he
woke
up
in
the
middle
of
the
night,
he
saw
something
white
in
his
garden.
And
it
seemed
to
be
moving
toward
his
house.
He
was
so
afraid
that
he
took
his
gun
and
shot
at
it
quickly.
The
next
morning,
Mr
.
White
went
out
and
found
one
of
his
white
shirts
hanging
on
the
clothes
line
in
the
garden.
But
there
was
a
hole
right
through
the
middle
of
it.
Mr.
White
laughed
and
laughed.
2020-2021
学年第二学期九年级英语教学质量检测（一）
参考答案及评分建议
一、听力（共
15
小题
；第一节每小题
1
分
，第二、三节每小题
2
分，满分
25
分）
1-5
CCCBC
6-
10
BCCBA
11-
15
CCBBA
二、完形填空
（共
15
小题
；每小题
1
分
，满分
15
分）
16-20
BAADC
21-25
CBDBC
26-30
CADBD
三、阅读理解
（共
15
小题
；每小题
2
分
，满分
30
分）
31-35
BBDCA
36-40
DDBCA
41-45
CCABB
四、词汇运用
（共
15
小题
；每小题
1
分
，满分
15
分）
九年级英语参考答案第
2
页(共
2
页)
46.
strangers/stranger
47.
find
out
48.
taller
50.
us
51.
director
52.
realized
54.
relationship
55.
encourages
56.
gun
58.
his
59.
similar
60.
importance
五、语法填空
（共
10
小题
；每小题
1
分
，满分
10
分）
61.
is
pronounced
62.
wishes
63.
Western
65.
a
66.
their
67.
seriously
69.
to
use
70.
if
六、任务型阅读
（共
5
小题
；每小题
1
分
，满分
5
分）
71.
40,000
BC
72.
wealth
73.
difficult/hard
75.
decorate
七、书面表达
（共
1
小题
，满分
20
分）
76.
49.
sheep
53.
escaped
57.
especially
64.
meaning
68.
or
74.
ourselves
My
Perfect
Weekend
Plan
Busy
weekdays
have
passed
quickly.
An
expectable
weekend
is
coming
.
Though
we
have
to
spend
most
time
studying,
on
no
account
can
we
ignore
the
importance
of
health.
Thus,
my
plan
can
be
listed
as
follows.
I’m
fed
up
with
the
noise
of
the
city,
so
the
quiet
hill
is
a
good
choice.
And
the
most
important
thing
is
to
go
with
my
parents.
It’s
a
precious
chance
to
improve
our
relationship.
We
can
take
a
camera
with
us
to
record
the
unique
experience.
You
know,
when
you
are
surrounded
by
the
green
world,
you
can
feel
the
sunshine
on
your
face,
and
then
take
a
deep
breath.
No
one
can
describe
how
wonderful
it
is!
What’s
more,
I’ll
listen
to
my
favourite
songs
on
the
grass.
It
must
be
a
wonderful
thing.2020-2021
学年第二学期九年级英语教学质量检测
（一）
试卷说明
1.
本试卷考核范围：中考范围。
2.
本试卷共
8
页，满分
120
分。
卷
Ⅰ
一、听力
（共
15
小题
；第一节每小题
1
分
，第二、三节每小题
2
分，满分
25
分）
第一节：听下面五段小对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的
A
、B
、C
三个选
项中选出正确的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有
10
秒钟的时间回答
有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.
What
is
Mary
doing?
A.
Washing
dishes.
B.
Washing
her
clothes.
C.
Cooking
some
food
.
2.
How
old
is
Bruce?
A.
12.
B.
13.
C.
14.
3.
Where
is
the
City
Library?
A.
Across
from
the
zoo.
B.
On
No.62
Street.
C.
Next
to
Guangming
Middle
School.
4.
How
will
the
two
speakers
probably
go
to
the
airport?
A.
By
bus.
B.
By
taxi.
C.
By
underground.
5.
Which
T-shirt
does
the
girl
like?
A.
The
pink
one.
B.
The
blue
one.
C.
The
white
one.
第二节：
听下面两段长对话。每段对话后有
2
至
3
个小题，从题中所给的
A
、B
、C
三个
选项中选出正确的选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完对话后，你有
10
至
15
秒钟的时间回
答有关小题。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段长对话，
回答下面
6-7
两个小题。听对话前，你将有
10
秒钟的时间阅读有关
内容。
6.
What
pollution
are
the
two
speakers
talking
about?
A.
Noise
pollution.
B.
Water
pollution.
C.
Air
pollution.
7.
What
are
the
two
speakers
going
to
do
to
protect
the
environment
later?
A.
Make
a
programme.
B.
Raise
some
money.
C.
Make
some
signs.
听下面一段长对话，回答下面
8-
10
三个小题。听对话前，你将有
15
秒钟的时间阅读有
关内容。
8.
Why
did
Mike
go
to
Shanghai?
A.
To
have
a
test.
B.
To
have
a
meeting.
C.
To
enter
a
competition.
9.
Who
teaches
Mike
to
dance?
A.
His
teachers.
B.
His
parents.
C.
His
friends.
10.
How
long
did
Mike
stay
there?
A.
For
a
week.
B.
For
two
weeks.
C.
For
five
days.
第三节：
听下面一段独白。从题中所给的
A
、B
、C
三个选项中选出正确的选项，并标在
试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你将有
25
秒钟的时间阅读有关内容。独白读两遍。
11.
How
old
is
Mr.
White?
A.
He
is
thirty.
B.
He
is
forty.
C.
He
is
fifty.
12.
What
is
Mr.
White?
A.
A
teacher.
B.
A
doctor.
C.
A
policeman.
13.
What
is
Mr.
White
like?
A.
Honest
.
B.
Funny.
C.
Brave.
14.
What
did
Mr.
White
see
in
his
garden
that
night?
A.
Something
black.
B.
Something
white.
C.
Something
yellow.
15.
Where
did
Mr.
White
find
a
hole?
A.
In
his
shirt.
B.
In
his
jacket.
C.
In
his
sweater.
二、完形填空
（共
15
小题
；每小题
1
分，满分
15
分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从每题所给的
A
、B
、C
、D
四个选项中选出最佳选项。
About
two
years
ago,
my
family
and
I
went
on
a
trip
to
16
.
We
went
to
lots
of
places
and
saw
many
interesting
things.
Here
I
would
like
to
17
some
of
my
interesting
experiences
with
you.
Our
18
stop
was
Germany.
Two
of
the
first
cities
we
visited
were
Frankfurt
and
Berlin.
In
Frankfurt,
I
went
to
Frankfurter
Buchmesse,
the
biggest
book
market
in
the
world.
We
stayed
there
for
19
days
and
saw
many
famous
book
publishers
from
all
over
the
world.
To
my
20
,
the
author
of
my
favorite
novel
Cat
Warrior
also
came
here.
The
21
thing
is
that
he
even
offered
to
give
me
his
signature(签名)!
On
the
fifth
day,
my
father
22
us
to
Berlin.
On
our
way
there,
we
stopped
our
car
to
take
a
break
in
the
town
of
Goettingen,
where
the
famous
Chinese
writer
Ji
Xianlin
once
studied.
In
Berlin,
we
had
a
quick
lunch
and
23
the
Berlin
Wall.
This
wall
marked
the
division(分裂)
of
Germany
and
the
signs
of
the
German
Democratic
Republic
(GDR)
could
still
be
found
on
it.
The
24
on
the
wall
described
the
history
of
the
nation
during
the
Cold
War
and
the
people’s
will
for
peace
and
unification(统一).
Walking
by
the
wall,
I
could
feel
the
25
of
families
being
separated
and
the
tension(紧张局势)
between
the
East
and
West
during
the
Cold
War.
I
took
a
lot
of
photos
and
learned
lots
of
things
from
the
drawings
on
the
wall.
Our
last
stop
was
Normandy,
France.
We
went
there
by
train.
We
enjoyed
26
supper
and
watched
the
sun
go
down
on
the
beach
where
the
Normandy
Landings
(诺曼底登陆)
took
place.
Next
to
the
beach
was
a
27
that
had
relics(遗物)
of
the
campaign
on
display.
We
also
28
a
movie
about
an
American
commander(指挥官)
who
took
part
in
the
battle.
It
was
interesting
and
we
all
enjoyed
29
.
30
,
our
trip
ended
and
it
was
time
to
go
home.
I
had
a
really
great
time
in
Europe
and
I
enjoyed
the
beautiful
scenery
there.
I
hope
to
visit
there
again
some
day.
16.
A.
Asia
B.
Europe
C.
Africa
D.
America
17.
A.
share
B.
write
C.
tell
D.
invite
18.
A.
first
B.
second
C.
third
D.
fourth
19.
A.
one
B.
two
C.
three
D.
four
20.
A.
shame
B.
regret
C.
surprise
D.
interest
21.
A.
easiest
B.
hardest
C.
happiest
D.
strangest
22.
A.
rode
B.
drove
C.
walked
D.
flew
23.
A.
asked
for
B.
waited
for
C.
paid
for
D.
left
for
24.
A.
numbers
B.
drawings
C.
stories
D.
letters
25.
A.
nervousness
B.
kindness
C.
sadness
D.
illness
26.
A.
my
B.
your
C.
our
D.
his
27.
A.
museum
B.
cinema
C.
church
D.
gym
28.
A.
bought
B.
read
C.
looked
D.
watched
29.
A.
myself
B.
ourselves
C.
yourselves
D.
themselves
30.
A.
Properly
B.
Widely
C.
Luckily
D.
Finally
三、阅读理解
（共
15
小题
；每小题
2
分，满分
30
分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的
A
、B
、C
、D
四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Today
is
Friday.
Linda’s
class
would
like
to
have
a
barbecue(烧烤)
tomorrow.
Linda
and
her
classmate,
Jack,
are
shopping
in
a
supermarket
now.
They
need
some
food
and
drinks
for
the
barbecue.
Linda’s
Shopping
List
Item(商品)
Price
Quantity(数量)
water
30
yuan
a
box
2
boxes
green
tea
45
yuan
a
box
3
boxes
fresh
milk
8
yuan
a
bottle
5
bottles
cola
6.5
yuan
a
bottle
5
bottles
corn
5
yuan
a
kilo
8
kilos
sausage
12
yuan
a
bag
5
bags
beef
70
yuan
a
kilo
2
kilos
pork
20
yuan
a
kilo
3
kilos
apple
12
yuan
a
kilo
10
kilos
banana
3
yuan
a
kilo
10
kilos
31.
When
will
Linda’s
class
have
a
barbecue?
A.
On
Friday.
B.
On
Saturday.
C.
On
Sunday.
D.
We
have
no
idea.
32.
How
many
kinds
of
fruit
are
they
going
to
buy?
A.
One
.
B.
Two
.
C.
Three
.
D.
Four.
33.
Linda
should
pay
yuan
for
beef
and
pork
in
all.
A.
20
B.
70
C.
90
D.
200
B
If
you
like
breaking,
you’ll
be
glad
to
hear
this
news.
Breaking
will
be
an
Olympic
sport
at
the
2024
Paris
Summer
Olympics,
the
International
Olympic
Committee
(IOC)
said
on
Dec
.
7th.
It
will
be
the
latest
modern
sport
to
be
added
to
the
Olympics,
CNN
reported.
IOC
President
Thomas
Bach
said
they
made
the
decision
because
they
hoped
that
more
younger
people
would
watch
the
event.
“This
sport
is
especially
popular
among
the
younger
people,”
Bach
said.
Breaking,
or
breakdancing,
was
born
in
New
York
City,
US,
in
the
early
1970s.
Performers
dance
along
to
hip-hop
music
while
using
different
kinds
of
body
movements,
such
as
spins(旋转),
freezes(定格),
and
other
acrobatic(杂技般的)
moves.
It
quickly
became
popular
among
young
people
in
big
cities
across
the
country.
Today,
it
continues
to
be
a
popular
street
dance
style,
with
millions
of
practitioners
around
the
world.
It
was
an
event
at
the
2018
Youth
Olympic
Games
in
Argentina.
According
to
the
IOC,
Olympic
judges(评委)
will
consider
the
breaking
competitors’
skill,
creativity
and
style.
They
will
also
look
at
the
competitors’
strength,
speed,
rhythm(节奏)
and
agility(敏捷).
Skateboarding,
surfing,
and
sport
climbing,
which
will
appear
at
the
Olympics
for
the
first
time
in
Tokyo,
will
also
be
on
the
program
for
the
2024
Paris
Summer
Olympics
.
34.
The
2024
Olympics
will
be
held
in
.
A.
New
York
City
B.
Argentina
C.
Paris
D.
Tokyo
35.
Breaking
will
be
added
to
the
Olympics
because
.
A.
the
IOC
hopes
that
more
younger
people
will
watch
the
event
B.
performers
use
different
kinds
of
body
movements
when
dancing
C.
it
quickly
became
popular
among
young
people
across
the
country
D.
breaking
was
born
in
New
York
City,
US
36.
According
to
the
passage,
like
breaking
most.
A.
people
of
all
ages
B.
girls
C.
boys
D.
young
people
37.
Olympic
judges
will
consider
the
breaking
competitors
from
aspects(方面)
.
A.
three
B.
four
C.
six
D.
seven
C
Many
of
you
have
probably
had
this
experience:
You
get
on
a
train
and
are
ready
to
take
a
break
or
read
a
book,
only
to
find
that
the
passenger
in
front
of
you
is
watching
a
TV
show
on
his
tablet
without
earphones.
The
child
next
to
you
won’t
stop
crying.
And
the
old
lady
behind
you
talks
on
her
phone
during
the
whole
trip.
Wish
the
train
could
be
less
noisy?
There
might
be
a
piece
of
good
news
for
you.
The
Beijing-Shanghai
high-speed
railway,
one
of
China’s
busiest
high-speed
rail
lines,
will
have
“quiet”
carriages(车厢)
starting
from
Dec
.
23,
Xinhua
reported.
In
quiet
carriages,
onboard
videos
will
be
muted(静音)
and
announcements
(广播)
will
be
made
at
a
lower
volume(音量).
Doors
at
the
ends
of
the
carriage
will
be
kept
closed
to
reduce
noise
from
other
carriages,
CGTN
noted.
Train
attendants(乘务员)
will
be
responsible
for
making
sure
that
passengers
remain
quiet
and
follow
the
rules.
Passengers
who
are
willing
to
obey
the
rules
can
choose
the
quiet
carriages
when
booking
their
tickets,
according
to
a
China’s
national
railway
operator.
Some
people
have
pointed
out
that
this
kind
of
quiet
environment
should
be
offered
in
all
carriages.
They
say
that
having
quiet
carriages
might
give
people
the
impression
that
they
don’t
need
to
be
quiet
in
non-quiet
carriages.
While
some
Internet
users
support
the
new
service,
there’s
also
a
discussion
about
just
how
quiet
travelers
should
be
in
quiet
carriages.
Many
people
have
raised
questions
such
as
“What
if
I
snore
(打呼噜)?”
“Can
we
talk
to
our
travel
companions
if
we
need
to?”
“Will
it
be
more
expensive?”
and
“What
if
I
break
the
rules?”
Thinking
about
these
questions,
many
people
won’t
make
a
quick
decision.
38.
How
did
the
writer
introduce
the
topic(话题)
of
the
passage?
A.
By
telling
stories
.
B.
By
giving
examples
.
C.
By
answering
questions
.
D.
By
asking
questions
.
39.
According
to
the
passage,
in
quiet
carriages.
A.
onboard
videos
will
be
played
at
a
lower
volume
B.
announcements
will
remain
the
same
C.
doors
at
the
ends
of
the
carriage
will
be
kept
closed
to
reduce
noise
from
other
carriages
D.
passengers
can
talk
in
a
low
voice
40.
From
the
last
second
paragraph(段落),
we
can
learn
something
about
the
idea
of
quiet
carriages.
A.
bad
B.
new
C.
good
D.
wonderful
41.
What
do
the
questions
mean
in
the
last
paragraph?
A.
Many
people
are
looking
forward
to
the
quiet
carriages.
B.
Many
people
support
the
quiet
carriages
completely.
C.
Many
people
may
not
choose
the
quiet
carriages.
D.
Many
people
will
choose
to
take
the
quiet
carriages
without
thinking
twice.
D
Zhang
Zefeng,
28,
is
a
Chinese
student
studying
in
the
state
of
Michigan
in
the
US.
He
would
often
get
together
with
his
friends
for
midnight
snacks
and
drinks
when
he
was
in
China.
“But
here
in
the
US,
not
so
many
people
dare
walk
alone
at
night,”
Zhang
told
TEENS.
“We
hear
about
robberies(抢劫)
happening
in
nearby
neighborhoods
from
time
to
time.”
Gallup,
a
US
company,
recently
did
a
survey
on
residents’
sense
of
safety
in
144
countries
and
regions.
The
report
showed
that
Chinese
people
are
confident
in
public
safety
and
order
in
their
country.
The
country
ranked(
排名
)
third
in
personal
security
following
Singapore
and
Turkmenistan.
The
researcher
asked
questions
like
“Do
you
have
confidence
in
the
local
police?”
and
“Do
you
feel
safe
walking
alone
at
night
in
the
area
where
you
live?”
Ninety
percent
of
people
from
China
said
they
feel
safe
when
walking
alone
at
night.
This
is
21
percent
higher
than
the
world
average(平均水平).
China
ranked
fifth
in
this
area
after
Singapore,
Turkmenistan,
Norway
and
the
United
Arab
Emirates,
Global
Times
reported.
The
Chinese
government
has
done
a
lot
to
improve
public
security
in
recent
years.
For
example,
in
2018,
China
started
a
three-year
activity
against
organized
crime
(集团犯罪).
By
the
end
of
August,
the
police
had
broken
up
3,347
mafia-style(黑社会性质的)
organizations
and
10,564
criminal
gangs(帮派),
according
to
Xinhua
News.
42.
Zhang
Zefeng
felt
while
walking
alone
at
night
in
the
US.
A.
crazy
B.
easy
C.
unsafe
D.
confident
43.
People
in
feel
the
most
confident
in
their
security.
A.
Singapore
B.
the
United
States
C.
Norway
D.
China
44.
How
many
of
the
people
feel
safe
while
walking
alone
at
night
in
China?
A.
About
two-thirds.
B.
About
nine-tenths.
C.
About
one-fifth.
D.
About
four-fifths.
45.
What
can
we
learn
from
the
passage?
A.
Living
in
America
is
safe
and
living
in
China
is
safe
as
well.
B.
Living
in
China
is
safe
and
China
has
made
efforts
to
improve
public
security.
C.
The
people
feel
safe
when
walking
alone
at
night
in
America
and
Singapore.
D.
China
still
has
a
long
way
to
go
to
improve
public
safety.
卷Ⅱ
四、词汇运用
（共
15
小题
；每小题
1
分，满分
15
分）
A.
用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空。每词限用一次
。
we,
find
out,
sheep,
stranger,
tall
46.
My
mother
often
tells
me
not
to
speak
to
the
in
the
street.
She
thinks
it
is
a
dangerous
thing.
47.
Can
you
help
me
who
broke
the
window?
48.
Mary
is
much
than
Betty,
and
that’s
why
she
sits
behind
Betty.
49.
Look!
There
are
hundreds
of
in
the
fields,
eating
the
green
grass.
50.
Our
English
teacher
often
tells
to
circle
key
words
when
taking
exams.
B
.
阅读下面短文
，然后根据括号内所给汉语意思写出单词的正确形式。每空限填一词
。
．
．
．
．
Seeing
its
name,
I
was
not
quite
interested
in
the
1993
movie
A
Perfect
World,
which
was
made
by
US
51
(导演)
Clint
Eastwood.
How
could
a
world
be
perfect?
However,
after
watching
it,
I
52
(意识到)
it
was
about
far
more
than
a
perfect
world.
Butch
Haynes,
a
criminal(罪犯)
who
has
just
53
(逃离)
from
jail,
breaks
into
a
house
and
kidnaps(绑架)
a
boy
named
Phillip
Perry.
Like
Butch,
young
Phillip’s
father
leaves
him
during
his
childhood.
So
Butch
wants
to
make
it
up
to
him
and
develops
a
father-son
54
(关系)
with
Phillip.
He
55
(鼓励)
Phillip
to
make
his
own
decisions
and
make
a
list
of
wishes.
When
they
stay
in
the
home
of
a
man
who
often
abuses(虐待)
his
grandson,
Butch
beats
him.
Phillip
takes
a
56
(枪)
and
shoots
Butch.
But
Butch
doesn’t
die
and
then
they
have
a
long
talk.
Phillip
understands
Butch
better
and
is
unwilling
to
leave
him
when
the
police
come.
Though
it’s
called
A
Perfect
World,
every
character
in
this
movie
is
imperfect,
57
(尤其)
Butch.
His
father’s
absence
in
58
(他的)
childhood
leads
him
to
become
a
criminal.
However,
the
most
touching
part
is
that
he
tries
to
give
Phillip,
who
has
had
59
(相似的)
experiences,
a
better
world.
It
shows
the
60
(重要性)
of
a
father’s
love.
If
parents
act
as
negative(负面的)
role
models,
they
can
largely
change
their
children’s
lives.
五、语法填空
（共
10
小题
；每小题
1
分，满分
10
分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
．
．
The
“666”
emoji
recently
came
out
on
WeChat.
It
shows
a
smirking(得意的)
face
that
holds
up
the
Chinese
hand
sign
for
“6”
with
the
number
“666”
shown
next
to
it.
Most
Chinese
people
know
that
this
emoji
is
supposed
to
have
a
positive
meaning.
After
all,
the
Chinese
character
“six”
61
(pronounce)
the
same
way
as
liu(溜),
which
means
“smooth”.
There
is
also
the
proverb
liuliu
dashun
(六六大顺).
It
is
used
to
give
good
62
(wish)
to
one’s
friends
or
relatives.
But
in
some
63
(west)
countries,
“666”
has
a
very
different
64
(mean)
—
a
religious(宗教的)
one.
It
is
said
to
be
the
“Mark
of
the
Beast”,
a
symbol
that
the
devil(恶魔)
forces
people
to
wear
in
order
to
show
their
loyalty(忠诚)
to
him.
That’s
why
some
people
consider
this
number
to
be
65
symbol
of
darkness
and
rebellion(反叛).
It
is
especially
popular
among
heavy
metal
bands
(重金属乐队)
and
66
(they)
fans.
But
we
all
know
that
the
devil
isn’t
real.
No
one
really
takes
it
67
(serious)
in
modern
times.
As
a
heavy
metal
fan
who
is
also
interested
in
Chinese
culture,
I
like
the
new
emoji
for
many
reasons.
I
can
send
it
to
either
my
Chinese
68
Western
friends
and
get
different
reactions.
This
makes
it
flexible(灵活的)
and
fun
69
(use).
Just
don’t
be
surprised
70
you
get
a
strange
reaction
from
a
Westerner
if
you
send
it
to
him!
六、任务型阅读
（共
5
小题
；每小题
1
分，
满分
5
分）
阅读下面短文，根据所给信息
，完成后面的表格
，每空限填一词
。
．
．
．
．
Gold
has
been
popular,
ever
since
it
was
first
discovered
in
40,000
BC.
For
thousands
of
years,
we
have
regarded
it
as
wealth
and
power.
But
what
else
can
we
learn
about
this
popular
metal?
For
one
thing,
it
comes
from
the
outer
space.
Studies
have
shown
that
when
neutron
stars
(中子星)
crash
into
each
other,
they
start
a
fusion
reaction
(熔合反应)
that
creates
gold.
It
didn’t
just
appear
on
Earth
one
day
—
it
was
here
from
the
start
when
these
stars
spread
it
all
over
the
universe.
It’s
actually
not
easy
to
create
gold.
The
powerful
reactions
created
by
neutron
stars
will
do
it.
That
is
to
say,
we
can’t
make
gold
on
our
own.
But
that
hasn’t
stopped
humans
from
trying.
In
the
past
centuries,
scientists
who
called
themselves
“alchemists”(炼金师)
tried
making
it
by
mixing
together
different
elements,
such
as
lead(铅)
.
In
a
word,
gold
is
very
useful.
Since
it’s
not
dangerous
to
eat
the
gold
in
very
tiny
amounts,
sometimes
gold
can
be
used
to
decorate(装饰)
food.
The
most
important
thing
is
that
there
are
few
pieces
of
jewelry(珠宝)
that
are
as
classic
as
a
simple
gold
necklace.
It
seems
that
gold
can
stay
forever.
Something
about
gold
Gold
was
first
discovered
in
71
.
Gold
has
been
regarded
as
72
and
power.
It’s
actually
73
to
create
gold.
We
can’t
make
gold
by
74
.
Sometimes
we
use
gold
to
75
food.
七、书面表达
（共
1
小题，
满分
20
分）
76.
春暖花开之际，给自己制定一个完美的周末计划吧。
提示：
要求：
My
Perfect
Weekend
Plan
What
is
your
plan?
study,
read
a
book…
With
whom?
parents,
friends…
How?
…
…
…
1
.
作文词数
100
左右
（标题已给出，不计入总词数）
。
2
.
文中不得出现真实的校名和姓名等。
My
Perfect
Weekend
Plan
