黄金埠中学2020-2021学年高一下学期6月月考英语试卷
考试时间：120分钟
满分：120分
本试卷分第I卷（选择题，共100分）和
第II卷（非选择题，共50分）两部分。总分150分，考试时间120分钟。
第一部分
听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节
(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.
What
gift
will
the
woman
probably
get
for
Mary?
A.
A
schoolbag.
B.
A
CD.
C.
A
movie
ticket.
2.
What
is
the
man
doing?
A.
Watching
TV.
B.
Enjoying
a
party.
C.
Looking
for
his
clothes.
3.
What
does
the
man
mainly
do
in
his
spare
time?
A.
He
plays
sports.
B.
He
plays
the
piano.
C.
He
learns
a
language.
4.
Which
flavor
is
the
most
popular?
A.
Strawberry.
B.
Chocolate.
C.
Lemon.
5.
What
are
the
speakers
talking
about?
A.
A
movie
they
just
saw.
B.
A
favorite
actor.
C.
Weekend
plans.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选岀最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给岀5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6.
What
is
the
relationship
between
the
speakers?
A.
Former
classmates.
B.
Teacher
and
student.
C.
Old
teammates.
7.
What
is
the
woman
more
interested
in
now?
A.
Playing
tennis.
B.
Playing
the
piano.
C.
Playing
basketball.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8.
What
caused
the
woman’s
problem?
A.
She’s
been
studying
late
into
the
night.
B.
She
feels
nervous
about
her
classes.
C.
She
cannot
sleep
at
night.
9.
What
does
the
man
suggest
the
woman
do?
A.
Take
some
medicine.
B.
Get
more
fresh
air.
C.
Get
more
sleep.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10.
When
did
the
library
open?
A.
Last
week.
B.
Yesterday.
C.
The
day
before
yesterday.
11.
What
is
TURE
about
the
library?
A.
It’s
tall.
B.
It’s
very
modern.
C.
The
computer
lab
is
on
the
second
floor.
12.
Why
didn’t
the
man
sign
up
for
a
library
card?
A.
He
didn’t
have
enough
money.
B.
He
didn’t
take
his
student
card.
C.
The
library
was
far
away
from
his
home.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13.
What
time
should
the
bus
have
come?
A.
At
8:00.
B.
At
8:15.
C.
At
9:15.
14.
What
did
the
woman
do
in
the
library?
A.
She
finished
her
school
project.
B.
She
borrowed
a
book
on
kings
and
queens.
C.
She
searched
for
some
books
but
got
nothing.
15.
Where
was
the
woman
at
3:00
p.m.?
A.
At
home.
B.
On
a
bus.
C.
In
a
bookstore.
16.
Why
did
it
take
the
woman
a
long
time
to
get
home?
A.
She
walked
all
the
way.
B.
The
bus
broke
down
halfway.
C.
She
went
to
a
bookstore
on
the
way.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17.
Why
can’t
the
speaker
go
to
work
today?
A.
Her
son
is
sick.
B.
She
isn’t
feeling
well.
C.
She
has
to
go
to
her
son’s
school.
18.
What
does
the
speaker
ask
Raman
to
do?
A.
Order
lunch
for
ten
people.
B.
Get
in
touch
with
the
trainer.
C.
Book
a
meeting
room.
19.
What
is
the
relationship
between
the
speaker
and
Raman?
A.
Boss
and
secretary.
B.
Trainer
and
trainee.
C.
Partners.
20.
Where
does
the
conversation
take
place?
A.
In
the
office.
B.
On
the
phone.
C.
In
a
coffee
shop.
第二部分
阅读(共两节,满分40分)
第一节
(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,
并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
A
July
20,
2021
marks
the
52th
anniversary
of
the
first
moon
landing.
The
National
Space
Center
will
provide
you
with
super-sizes
pace
experiences:
a
giant
Earth
model,
a
domed
planetarium
(穹顶天文台)
and
a
42-meter
rocket
tower.
It's
all
under
cover
so
it's
a
good
place
to
visit
on
a
rainy
day.
Ticket
It's
not
cheap--adult
$
15,
5-to-16-year-olds
$
12--but
once
you've
paid
you
can
revisit
as
many
times
as
you
want
in
a
year,
and
admission
is
free
for
kids
under
five.
Opening
hours
10
am--4
pm
Monday
to
Friday,
10
am--5
pm
weekends
and
school
holidays.
What
about
lunch?
The
Boosters
Cafe
serves
reasonably
priced
hot
and
cold
snacks
and
drinks
at
the
foot
of
the
center’s
two
rockets.
The
cafe
offers
vegetarian
(素食的)
option
too.
Exit
through
the
gift
shop
?
It's
stocked
with
souvenirs（纪念品）
including
books,
games
and
telescopes.
Some
are
quite
pricey.
The
gift
shop
is
the
first
thing
you
pass
on
entry
and
also
the
last
thing
you
see
as
you
leave.
21.
What
gifts
can
you
buy
in
the
Center?
A.
Rockets.
B.
Telescopes.
C.
Pencils.
D.
Earth
models.
22.
What
can
you
learn
about
the
National
Space
Center?
A.
It
is
free
for
kids
under
6
B.
It
has
two
gift
shops.
C.
It
is
vegetarian-friendly.
D.It
is
open
at
night
in
holidays.
23.
What
is
this
passage
mainly
about?
A.
Holiday
plans.
B.
Space
experiences.
C.
Suggestions
for
visiting
the
Center.
D.
Information
about
the
Center.
B
I
have
heard
having
a
good
sense
of
humour
often
helps
in
breaking
the
ice.
Also
people
remember
you
because
of
your
humour.
But
I
think
I
don’t
have
a
very
good
sense
of
humour.
Could
you
suggest
how
to
build
on
this?
—Radha
Karnik
This
is
a
great
question
that
is
unfortunately
difficult
to
answer.
I
can
only
give
you
my
views
on
this
topic,
which
may
or
may
not
be
correct.
I
know
that
my
sense
of
humour
developed
over
time.
When
I
was
younger
I
was
not
funny
at
all;
now
I
can
easily
make
people
laugh.
At
the
same
time,
sometimes
I
say
things
that
I
think
are
very
funny
but
others
do
not.
Improving
humour,
I
believe,
is
an
ongoing
process.
Now,
there
are
various
forms
of
humour
and
everyone
has
their
own
style.
Overall,
I
believe
being
fluent
in
a
language
is
very
important
for
being
funny.
The
way
we
play
around
with
words
adds
the
“funny”
tag
to
a
normal
sentence.
Also,
seeing
irony(讽刺)
is
very
important.
I
think
humour
is
often
the
link
between
two
unrelated
things.
In
my
experience,
laughing
frequently
and
appreciating
other
people’s
jokes
are
very
important.
Within
these,
finding
humor
in
everyday
normal
situations
is
the
key.
I
often
notice
what
is
going
on
around
me
and
say
funny
things
in
my
head
and
laugh
to
myself.
That
serves
almost
as
practice
for
when
I
am
in
a
group.
I
watch
comedy
shows
and
movies
and
I
am
sure
that
has
some
effect
on
helping
me
improve
my
sense
of
humour.
And
last,
having
confidence
that
you
are
funny
is
important.
There
will
always
be
someone
funnier
than
you,
which
is
fine.
Just
work
on
building
your
own
style.
Remember,
if
you
are
trying
to
be
funny
in
order
to
break
the
ice
at
a
business
function,
be
careful.
In
those
situations,
humour
has
to
be
mild
and
politically
correct.
Yours,
Brad
24.
What’s
RAdha
Karnik’s
problem?
A.
He
doesn’t
have
friends.
B.
He
doesn’t
know
the
functions
of
humour.
C.
He
doesn’t
understand
others’
humour.
D.
He
doesn’t
have
a
good
sense
of
humour.
25.
By
telling
his
own
experience,
Brad
tried
to
make
Radha
Karnik
believe
that
__________.
A.
laughter
is
the
best
medicine
B.
laughter
and
humour
go
hand
in
hand
C.
a
sense
of
humour
can
be
developed
D.
a
sense
of
humour
helps
imipress
others
26.
Which
of
the
following
would
Brad
agree
with?
A.
Everyone
knows
how
to
appreciate
others’
jokes.
B.
Everyone
has
their
own
style
of
humour.
C.
Everyone
is
as
funny
as
others.
D.
Everyone
needs
to
laugh
to
themselves
each
day.
27.
Why
did
Brad
reply
to
Radha
Karnik’s
letter
?
A.
Because
Brad
had
trouble
of
humour
.
B.
Because
Brad
didn’t
know
how
to
be
humorous.
C.
Because
Brad
gave
Radha
the
suggestion
on
how
to
develop
a
sense
of
humour
.
D.
Because
Brad
wanted
to
get
some
suggestions
.
C
Camping
is
a
good
way
to
spend
time
along
with
your
kids
and
to
show
them
how
wonderful
nature
can
be.Through
camping,
children
can
discover
new
things
about
nature,
such
as
flowers,
birds,
and
other
small
animals.
Camping
gives
kids
time
to
get
away
from
all
the
electronics
(电子)
of
today's
culture.
So
it
is
necessary
to
plan
exciting
and
enjoyable
family
camping
trips
with
your
children
while
they
are
young.
When
planning
your
family
camping
trip,
consider
the
activities
your
kids
like:
games,
hiking,
swimming,
boating,
bicycling,
etc.
Select
a
camping
place
that
has
some
of
the
activities
the
kids
are
interested
in.
Meal
planning
is
an
important
part
of
your
camping
trip.
Plan
the
meals
together,
and
kids
love
to
choose
what
they
want
to
eat.
When
starting
to
pack
for
your
trip,
let
the
kids
pack
their
own
items
(物品).
Each
person
should
have
his/her
own
sleeping
bag
with
a
luggage
bag
to
put
it
in.
Personal
items
should
be
packed
with
their
sleeping
bags.
Encourage
the
kids
to
put
their
items
in
a
certain
place
and
always
return
it
when
they
have
finished
using
it.
When
you
have
arrived
at
your
campsite,
make
all
the
camping
activities
a
family
activity,
which
will
help
children
to
realize
how
important
team-work
is.
Everyone
can
have
his/her
own
job
setting
up
the
campsite.
Meal
time
can
be
a
fun
time.
So
let
the
older
ones
help
with
the
cooking
on
your
outdoor
camping
stove
while
the
younger
ones
get
the
picnic
table
ready.
28.
Which
of
the
following
is
the
best
place
for
a
family
camping?
A.
A
place
covered
with
forests.
B.
A
place
with
a
river
and
wild
animals.
C.
A
place
where
kids
can
find
various
foods
they
like.
D.
A
place
which
provides
many
interesting
activities.
29.
What
does
the
author
advise
parents
to
do
while
planning
a
family
camping
trip?
A.
Encourage
the
children
to
take
care
of
their
own
things.
B.
Keep
the
children
away
from
animals.
C.
Take
more
food
to
meet
the
children's
need.
D.
Let
the
children
learn
by
watching.
30.
When
at
the
campground,
it
is
necessary
to__________.
A.
allow
the
children
to
cook
B.
give
children
enough
time
to
play
C.
make
everyone
have
work
to
do
D.
keep
the
picnic
table
full
of
food
31.
For
whom
is
the
passage
most
probably
written?
A.
Teachers.
B.
Parents.
C.
Kids.
D.
Teenagers.
D
Many
children
love
using
a
trampoline（蹦床）for
fun.
They
love
the
excitement
the
activity
brings
to
them.
But
are
trampolines
safe
to
use?
Starting
in
the
early
1990s,
trampolines
saw
a
major
increase
in
popularity.
In
1989,
140,000
trampolines
were
sold
in
the
United
States
and
by
1998
that
number
had
increased
to
640,000.
But
with
the
increase
in
popularity
there
was
a
rise
in
pain.
From
1990
to
1995,
trampolines-related
injuries
jumped
by
98%
and
in
1999
over
100,000
kids
were
treated
in
the
emergency
room
because
of
using
trampolines.
The
data
behind
the
danger
is
clear,
but
parents
may
not
know
that
even
though
trampolines
are
made
for
children,
they
are
not
suitable
for
kids
under
the
age
of
six.
Kait
Ellen
posted
an
article
on
Facebook
about
her
visit
to
a
trampoline
gym
with
her
son
Colton.
Actually
the
visit
was
anything
but
enjoyable
for
the
little
guy.
Colton,
who
was
three
years
old,
broke
his
bone
while
jumping
up
and
down
on
a
trampoline.
And
in
her
article
there
was
a
warning
from
a
government
department,
which
advised
that
children
under
the
age
of
six
should
never
use
a
trampoline.
In
2004,
the
first
indoor
trampoline
park
opened
Thursday
in
LasVegas,
Nevada
and
parks
have
been
growing
rapidly
ever
since.
Parents
should
keep
in
mind
the
advice
of
experts
for
keeping
their
kids
safe.
To
keep
your
kids
from
getting
injured
while
using
trampolines,
you’d
better
keep
them
away
from
them.
32.
What’s
the
author’s
purpose
in
writing
Paragraph
2?
A.
To
make
comparisons.
B.
To
show
trampolines’
popularity
in
America.
C.
To
advise
people
to
buy
trampolines.
D.
To
prove
trampolines
are
unsafe.
33.
How
did
Kait
Ellen
learn
the
danger
of
trampolines?
A.
Through
the
advice
of
expert.
B.
Through
a
government
department.
C.
Through
her
son’s
accident.
D.
Through
the
data
behind
the
danger.
34.
What’s
the
author’s
attitude
towards
trampolines?
A.
Negative
B.
Cautious
C.
Uncertain.
D.
Approving.
35.
What’s
the
passage
mainly
about
?
A.
Kids
can
easily
get
hurt
while
playing.
B.
Trampolines
are
dangerous
for
kids
under
6.
C.
Parents
often
make
trampolines
for
their
children.
D.
Trampolines
are
very
popular
with
children.
第二节：根据文章内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项；选项中的两项为多余选项。（每小题2分，共计10分）
Protect
Yourself
and
Others
from
COVID-19
If
COVID-19
is
spreading
in
your
community,
getting
into
panic
is
probably
not
a
wise
choice
for
both
you
and
your
family
members.
36
Follow
the
advice
below
and
do
it
all!
Keep
your
distance
at
least
one
metre.
37
Keep
an
even
greater
distance
between
yourself
and
others
when
indoors.
The
further
away,
the
better.
38
What
type
of
mask
to
wear
and
when
depend
on
how
much
virus
is
circulating
where
you
live,
where
you
go
and
who
you
are.
Wear
a
medical
mask
if
you
are
over
60，feeling
unwell,
or
looking
after
an
ill
family
member.
Avoid
closed
and
crowded
places.
Outbreaks
have
been
reported
where
people
have
gathered,
such
as
restaurants,
fitness
classes,
and
nightclubs.
39
So
taking
precautions
(预防)
is
even
more
important.
Prevent
constantly
touch
from
your
eyes,
nose
and
mouth.
Hands
touch
many
surfaces
and
can
pick
up
viruses.
Once
infected,
hands
can
transfer
the
virus
to
your
eyes,
nose
or
mouth.
40
A.
Choose
the
right
mask
to
put
on.
B.
Bring
your
mask
while
in
hospital.
C.
From
there,
the
virus
can
enter
your
body
and
infect
you.
D.
Therefore,
clean
your
hands
before
you
put
your
mask
on.
E.
You
can,
of
course,
stay
safe
by
taking
some
simple
measures.
F.
This
will
reduce
your
risk
of
infection
when
others
cough,
sneeze
or
speak.
G.
These
environments
make
it
more
efficient
and
easier
for
the
virus
to
spread.
第三部分：英语知识应用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节:完形填空（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从41～60各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
In
a
class
I
teach
for
adults,
I
recently
did
what
students
usually
hate.
I
gave
them
41
!
The
assignment
was
to
tell
someone
you
love
them.
It
has
to
be
someone
you
have
42
said
those
words
to
before
or
someone
who
you
haven't
43
those
words
with
for
a
long
time.
It
may
not
sound
like
a
very
44
assignment,
but
most
of
the
men
in
my
class
were
over
35
and
were
45
in
the
years
when
they
were
taught
that
46
emotions
is
not
manly
enough.
So
this
was
a
very
47
assignment
for
some
of
them.
At
the
beginning
of
our
next
class
one
month
later,
one
of
the
men
48
his
hand
and
shared
his
story
with
us.
He
appeared
quite
49
.
“As
I
drove
home,
I
knew
exactly
who
I
needed
to
say
‘I
love
you’
to.
Five
years
ago,
my
50
and
I
had
a
51
.
From
then
on,
we
avoided
seeing
each
other
and
52
spoke
to
each
other.
53
,
last
Tuesday
by
the
time
I
got
home
I
had
54
myself
I
was
going
to
tell
my
father
I
loved
him.
Making
the
decision
seemed
to
lift
a
heavy
55
off
my
chest.
At
5:30
pm,
I
was
at
my
parents'
house
ringing
the
doorbell,
56
that
Dad
would
57
the
door.
58
luck
would
have
it,
Dad
did
answer
the
door.
I
didn't
waste
any
time
and
said,‘Dad,
I
just
came
over
to
tell
you
that
I
love
you.”
“Before
my
eyes
dad's
59
softened,
the
wrinkles(皱纹)
seemed
to
disappear
and
he
began
to
cry.
He
reached
out
and
hugged
me,
saying,‘I
love
you
too,
son,
but
I’ve
never
been
able
to
say
it.’
It
was
such
a
60
moment.”
41.A.competition
B.
test
C.
game
D.
homework
42.A.
always
B.
never
C.
often
D.
usually
43.
A.
shared
B.
presented
C.
received
D.
isolated
44.
A.
easy
B.
tough
C.
small
D.
light
45.
A.
turned
out
B.
brought
up
C.
worn
out
D.
worked
out
46.
A.
expressing
B.
declaring
C.
yelling
D.
refusing
47.
A.
exciting
B.
disappointing
C.
challenging
D.
boring
48.
A.
showed
B.
hid
C.
raised
D.
shook
49.
A.
annoyed
B.
moved
C.
surprised
D.
exhausted
50.
A.
brother
B.
mother
C.
sister
D.
father
51.
A.
meeting
B.
quarrel
C.
party
D.
dinner
52.
A.
hardly
B.
frequently
C.
regularly
D.
seriously
53.
A.
However
B.
Moreover
C.
Besides
D.
Therefore
54.
A.
decided
B.
determined
C.
rejected
D.
convinced
55.
A.
company
B.
question
C.
load
D.
affair
56.
A.
crying
B.
calling
C.
praying
D.
dreaming
57.
A.
shut
B.
close
C.
answer
D.
lock
58.
A.
When
B.
Where
C.
Although
D.
As
59.
A.
face
B.
nose
C.
heart
D.
mouth
60.
A.
precious
B.
different
C.
valueless
D.
difficult
第二节：语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
Liu
Cixin's
novel
The
Three-body
Problem
is
61
Best
Story
of
2015
Hugo
Awards.
His
works
62
(receive)
wide
attention
so
far
because
of
their
63
(power)
atmosphere
and
brilliant
imagination.
The
author,
64
has
tried
to
create
a
unique
Chinese
style
of
science
fiction
has
become
a
role
model
of
many
teenagers.
Three-Body
Problem
is
the
first
chance
for
English-speaking
readers
65
(experience)
this
award
winning
novel
from
China's
most
beloved
science
fiction
author.
The
story
starts
with
a
secret
military
project
66
(send)
signals
into
space
to
establish
contact
67
aliens(外星人).
An
alien
civilization
68
(accidental)
receives
the
signal
and
plans
to
invade(侵略)
Earth.
Meanwhile,
on
Earth,
different
69
(camp)
start
forming,
planning
to
either
welcome
the
superior
aliens
and
help
them
take
over
Earth,
70
to
fight
against
the
invasion.
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节、短文改错（每小题1分,共计10分）(请按要求改错，否则不得分!)
英语课上，老师要求同桌同学相互修改作文。假设以下书信为你同桌所写，请你对其进行修改。文中共有10处错误，每句中最多有两处。错误涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏词符号（∧），并在此符号下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（\）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：
1.
每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.
只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
It
was
the
Mid-Autumn
Festival
yesterday,
and
I
invite
my
foreign
friend
Harry
to
spend
the
traditionally
festival
with
my
family.
At
dinner
table,
my
father
was
warmly
welcomed
Harry.
He
said,“This
is
a
family
reunion
dinner
for
a
Chinese
family
on
the
Mid-Autumn
Festival,
so
today
you
are
certainly
one
of
our
family.”Harry
was
so
happy
but,
of
course,
enjoyed
the
delicious
Chinese
dishes
preparing
by
my
mother.
In
the
evening,
we
sat
in
the
yard,
listening
to
some
beautiful
story
about
the
moon
and
sharing
mooncakes
while
admire
the
moon.“How
an
amazing
day
I've
had
today!
I
will
never
forget
them,”Harry
said.
第二节
书面表达(满分25分)
假如你是李华，你的英国朋友Tom想了解你们学校的体育活动，请你回封电子邮件给他，内容包括：
1.学校体育活动的安排情况；
2.体育活动对学生的意义；
3.你最喜欢的一项体育活动。
注意：1.词数不少于100；
2.可适当加入细节，使内容充实、行文连贯。
高一月考英语试题答案
听力
1-5
BCCBC
6-10
ABACA
11-15
ABACA
16-20
BAACB
阅读理解
21--23
BCD
24--27
DCBC
28--31
DACB
32--35DCAB
36--40
EFAGC
完型填空
41--45
DBABB
46--50
ACCBD
50--55
BADDC
56--60
CCDAA
语法填空
61.
the
62.
have
received
63.
powerful
64.
who
65.
to
experience
66.
sending
67.
with
68.
accidentally
69.
camps
70.
or
改错
书面表达
Dear
Tom，
I'm
glad
to
have
received
your
email
asking
about
our
sports
activities.
I
am
writing
to
share
some
details
with
you.
Every
week,
we
have
two
PE
classes,
in
which
our
school
offers
us
opportunities
to
do
a
variety
of
sports.
We
play
basketball,
run
for
exercise,
and
take
part
in
all
kinds
of
sports
competitions.
Besides,
we
all
participate
in
Sunshine
Sports
during
the
30-minute
break.
As
senior
students,
we
benefit
a
lot
from
sport
activities.
Not
only
can
we
build
up
strength
through
those
activities,
but
we
can
reduce
the
anxiety
and
burden
of
our
study.
Furthermore,
we
are
learning
teamwork
and
sports
spirit.
Of
all
the
sports,
I
like
badminton
best,
which
helps
me
to
keep
fit
and
build
perseverance.
I
believe
a
good
health
is
the
guarantee
of
successful
completion
of
studies
in
school.
Looking
forward
to
hearing
from
you
again.
Yours,
